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EMT Test 2 Review

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You should ventilate an adult patient at:

a)

12-20 breaths per minute

b)

18-24 breaths per minute

c)

10-12 breaths per minute

d)

5-6 breaths per minute

2.

What breath sound would indicate asthma?

a)

Rales

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheeze

3.

A complication of assisted ventilations:

a)

lung rupture

b)

poor perfusion

c)

altered mental staus

d)

abdominal distention

4.

An early sign of hypoxia is:

a)

Anxiousness

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Unresponsiveness

d)

Cyanosis

5.

Contraindications for a nasopharyngeal airway include:

a)

Unresponsive

b)

A positive gag reflex

c)

Trauma to the patient

d)

Shortness of breath

6.

Indication for an oropharyngeal airway:

a)

Unresponsive

b)

a positive gag reflex

c)

gurgling sound

d)

semi-conciousness

7.

What is the difference between ventilaltion and respiration?

a)

ventilation is a process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, respiration is movement of air in and out of the lungs

b)

Ventilation is bringing in carbon

c)

Ventilation is movement of air in and out of the lungs, respiration is a process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

Respiration is bringing in carbon

8.
Which of the following is not a sign of adequate breathing?
a)
air moving out of the nose and mouth
b)
equal expansion of both sides of the chest
c)
breathing limited to abdominal movement
d)
absence of blue or gray skin coloration
9.
Each of the following are signs of inadequate breathing except
a)
inspirations of expirations that are prolonged.
b)
breathing rate in an adult of 14-18 breaths per minute
c)
breathing is very shallow, very deep, or appears labored.
d)
the patient is unable to speak in full sentences.
10.
When at rest, the normal adequate breathing rate for an adult is _____ times per minute
a)
12 to 20
b)
30 to 40 
c)
60 to 80
d)
75 to 100
11.
The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to 
a)
clear the mouth
b)
administer oxygen 
c)
apply positive ventilation
d)
open the airway.
12.

To open the airway of a patient with no suspected head, neck or spine injury, the EMT-B should use a _____ maneuver.

a)

Jaw-thrust

b)

head-tilt, chin-lift

c)

head-tilt, neck-lift

d)

modified chin-thrust

13.
An oral or nasal airway should be 
a)
cleaned for re-use after the call
b)
inserted in all critically injured patients
c)
used to keep the tongue from blocking the airway
d)
used in order to prevent the need for suctioning
14.
An oropharyngeal airway of proper size will extend from the 
a)
corner of the patient's mouth to the tip of the earlobe
b)
lips to the larynx 
c)
nose to the angle of the jaw
d)
none of the options
15.
A nasopharyngeal airway should be 
a)
inserted with the bevel on the lateral side of the nostril
b)
measured from the patient's nostril to the earlobe.
c)
inserted in the left nostril when possible
d)
turned 180 degrees with the tip facing the roof of the mouth
16.
Scene Size-up consists of all EXCEPT
a)
determining MOI
b)
considering additional resources
c)
determining level of responsiveness
d)
Using PPE / standard precautions
17.
A patient does not respond to your questioning, but flinches and cries out when you pinch her trapezius muscle. This patient is said to be:
a)
Alert and Oriented x 4
b)
Unresponsive
c)
Responsive to painful stimuli
d)
Responsive to verbal stimuli
18.
What is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
a)
Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
b)
Looking for accessory muscle use
c)
Applying a pulse oximeter
d)
Checking for cyanosis
19.
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
a)
weak 
b)
regular
c)
irregular
d)
strong
20.
When assessing an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint. This is called:
a)
mottling
b)
pallor
c)
flushing
d)
cyanosis
21.
Normal skin conditions should be:
a)
Flushed, cool, and dry
b)
pale, cool, and moist
c)
pink, warm, and dry
d)
pink, warm, and moist
22.
The Golden Hour begins when an injury occurs and ends when:
a)
the patient receives definitive care
b)
the patient is admitted to the ICU
c)
you depart the scene en route to the hospital
d)
you arrive at the ED
23.
Which of the following responses addresses the "E" in SAMPLE history?
a)
"I am fine"
b)
"I was in the hospital last month with excessive diarrhea"
c)
"I have had a heart attack before"
d)
"I was practicing my dance moves when the pain began"
24.

Describes the front or direction toward the front of the body

a)

Anterior

b)

superior

c)

posterior

d)

Inferior

25.

describes a position above or higher than another part of the body proper.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

26.

It describes a position in a limb that is nearer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

a)

Inferior

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Anterior

27.

It describes the middle or direction toward the middle of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Anterior

d)

Superior

28.

Describes the back or direction toward the back of the body.

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

29.

It describes a position below or lower than another part of the body

a)

Superior

b)

Anterior

c)

Inferior

d)

posterior

30.

It describes a position in a limb that is farther away from the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Superficial

31.

It describes the side or direction toward the side of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Superficial

c)

Lateral

d)

Deep

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