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Practice MOST 7 Midterm

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are risk factors of developing MDRO? (Select all that apply)

a)

Nosocomial exposure

b)

Overuse of antimicrobials

c)

Community exposure

d)

Previous use of antimicrobials

e)

Use of broad spectrum antibiotics

2.

Which of the following are Gram-Positive resistance organisms? (Select all that apply)

a)

MRSA

b)

VISA

c)

VRSA

d)

VRE

e)

hVISA

3.

Which of the following describes the gene responsible for MRSA Resistance?

a)

mecA gene

b)

mecB gene

c)

VanA

d)

VanB

e)

VanC

4.

Please select which of the following options can be used to treat VRE (Select all that apply)

a)

Linezolid

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Dalbavancin

d)

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

e)

Tedizolid

5.

True or False, Antibiotic use, specifically 3rd Generation Cephalosporins, causes AmpC B-Lactamase genes to activate and causes resistance to B-Lactams.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following are antibiotic treatment options for AmpC? (Select all that apply)

a)

Cefepime

b)

Imipenem-Cilastatin

c)

Dalbavancin

d)

Doripenem

e)

Meropenem

7.

Examples of Time-Dependent antibiotic dosing include which of the following? (Select all that apply)

a)

Carbapenems

b)

Aztreonam

c)

Linezolid

d)

Clindamycin

e)

Vancomycin

8.

Which of the following terms are used to describe Antimicrobial Stewardship? (Select all that apply)

a)

Right Drug

b)

Right Dose

c)

Right Bug

d)

Right Time

e)

Right Disease

9.

Front end ASP Strategies are done ______ initial prescribing of antimicrobial agents

a)

Before

b)

During

c)

After

10.

Limited selection of antimicrobials available for use

a)

Antimicrobial Cycling

b)

Indication Restrictions

c)

Prior authorization

d)

Formulary restrictions

11.

What is the days of Therapy for Levofloxacin 500mg QD x 10 Days?

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

20 days

12.

Which of the following drugs are INSTIs? (Select all that apply)

a)

Tivicay

b)

Biktravy

c)

Dolutegravir

d)

Epzicom

e)

Lamivudine/Abacavir

13.

Which of the following are examples of Protease Inhibitors? (Select all that apply)

a)

Reyataz

b)

Norvir

c)

Symtuza

d)

Darunavir

e)

Atazanavir/Cobicistat

14.

Which of the following Antiretroviral agents also provide coverage for Hepatitis B? (Select all that apply)

a)

Lamivudine

b)

Abacavir

c)

Darunavir

d)

Emtricitabine

e)

Tenofovir

15.

Which of the following Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors require renal dose adjusting?

a)

Tenofovir DF

b)

Tenofovir AF

c)

Abacavir

d)

Lamivudine

e)

Zidovudine

16.

Which of the following drugs have Lipoatrophy as a potential side effect? (Select all that apply)

a)

Lamivudine

b)

Efavirenz

c)

Doultegravir

d)

Biktarvy

e)

Prezcobix

17.

Which of the following drugs have Hyperbilirubinemia as a potential side effect?

a)

Darunavir

b)

Reyataz

c)

Norvir

d)

Ritonavir

e)

Odefsey

18.

Which of the following medications are contraindicated with Proton Pump Inhibitors? (Select all that apply)

a)

Atazanaivr

b)

Ritonavir

c)

Rilpivirine

d)

Abacavir

e)

Insentress

19.

Which of the following are recommended for use of treating hyperlipidemia in HIV patients using Protease inhibitors/Cobicistat?

a)

Simvastatin 20 mg

b)

Lovastatin 20 mg

c)

Rosuvastatin 10 mg

d)

Atorvastatin 80 mg

20.

True or False, ALL inhaled corticosteroids are recommended for use in HIV patients currently on PIs?

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following NRTI regimens are recommended for Pregnancy? (Select all that apply)

a)

TAF/Emtricitabine

b)

TDF/Emtricitabine

c)

Abacavir/Lamivudine

d)

TDF/Lamivudine

e)

Raltegravir

22.

PrEP Guidelines, which of the following medications is not recommended for those who have receptive vaginal sex?

a)

Truvada

b)

Descovy

c)

Odefsey

d)

Abacavir

23.

True or False, a Tenofovir hypersensitivity test should be initiated before starting therapy?

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Please write the brand name medication to this combination product. Rilpivirine/TDF/Emtricitabine

(a)  

25.

Please write the brand name of the following combination product. Emtricitabine/Tenofovir AF

(a)  

26.

True or False, you can use Rilpivirine in a patient with a viral load of >100,000?

a)

True

b)

False

27.

When treating for Gonorrhea, which of the following medications are used as 1st line treatment? (Select all that apply)

a)

Ceftriaxone 250 mg x 1

b)

Cefepime 2 g x 1

c)

Azithromycin 1g x 1

d)

Cefixime 400 mg x 1

28.

Which of the following is a treatment guideline for Disseminated Gonorrhea 'Arthritis-Dermatitis'?

a)

Ceftriaxone 1-2 g Q12H x 4 weeks PLUS azithromycin 1g x 1

b)

Ceftriaxone 1-2 g Q12H x 10 - 14 days PLUS Azithromycin 1g x 1

c)

Ceftriaxone 1g IM Q24H for up to 1 week and azithromycin 1g x 1

29.

Which of the following is a treatment guideline for Disseminated Gonorrhea 'Endocarditis'?

a)

Ceftriaxone 1-2 g Q12H x 4 weeks PLUS azithromycin 1g x 1

b)

Ceftriaxone 1-2 g Q12H x 10 - 14 days PLUS Azithromycin 1g x 1

c)

Ceftriaxone 1g IM Q24H for up to 1 week and azithromycin 1g x 1

30.

Which of the following is the treatment guideline for Chlamydia?

a)

Azithromycin 1g x 1

b)

Ceftriaxone 250mg x 1

c)

Clarithromycin 1g x 1

d)

Doxycycling 100mg x 1

31.

True or False, you can provide EPT for someone and their partner for Gonorrhoea?

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Syphilis site of infection: Multi-system, hematogenous and lymphatic spread. Which stage of syphilis is this?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Latent

d)

Neurosyphilis

33.

When treating Syphilis and using the RPR, what decrease in value are we looking for in treatment?

a)

2 fold

b)

4 fold

c)

6 fold

d)

10 fold

34.

Which of the following treatments is recommended for patients with Late Latent Syphilis, unknown duration, or Tertiary Syphilis?

a)

PCN G 2.4 Mil x 1

b)

PCN G 2.4 Mil x 3

c)

PCN G 3-4 Mil IV Q4H x 10-14 days

d)

Azithromycin 1g x 1 PLUS Ceftriaxone 250 mg

35.

True or False, you should discontinue treatment if the patient experiences a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction from Syphilis treatment?

a)

True

b)

False

36.

How long is the duration of therapy with acyclovir/Valacyclovir for the 1st episode of genital herpes?

a)

3-5 days

b)

7-10 days

c)

10-14 days

d)

14-21 days

37.

How long is the duration of therapy with acyclovir/Valacyclovir for the Recurrent episode of genital herpes?

a)

3-5 days

b)

7-10 days

c)

10-14 days

d)

14-21 days

38.

POL gene is responsible for...

a)

Reverse transcriptase, Protease, Ribonuclease enzymes

b)

Viral coat proteins mediating CD4 and chemokine receptor binding and membrane fusion

c)

Nucleocapsid core and matrix proteins

d)

Required for elongation of viral transcripts

39.

ENV gene is responsible for...

a)

Reverse transcriptase, Protease, Ribonuclease enzymes

b)

Viral coat proteins (gp120 and gp41) mediating CD4 and chemokine receptor binding and membrane fusion

c)

Nucleocapsid core and matrix proteins

d)

Required for elongation of viral transcripts

40.

GAG gene is responsible for...

a)

Reverse transcriptase, Protease, Ribonuclease enzymes

b)

Viral coat proteins (gp120 and gp41) mediating CD4 and chemokine receptor binding and membrane fusion

c)

Nucleocapsid core and matrix proteins

d)

Required for elongation of viral transcripts

41.

Which one of the following agents is likely to exacerbate gout and also have an interaction with allopurinol?

a)

Abacavir

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Didanosine

d)

Emtricitabine

42.

Sporozoites rapidly invade which cells?

a)

Lung cells

b)

Liver cells

c)

Cardiac cells

d)

Epithelial cells

43.

Which medication is most effective against Hypnozoites?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Quinine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Primaquine

44.

Primaquine should be avoided in patients with which mutation?

a)

gp120

b)

gp41

c)

G6PD

d)

M184V

45.

Which of the following is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients?

a)

MAC

b)

Toxo

c)

PCP

d)

VZV

46.

You can stop PCP primary prevention when the patient meets what standards?

a)

>200 CD4 cells 1 month

b)

>100 CD4 cells 3 months

c)

>200 CD4 cells 3 months

d)

>100 CD4 cells 1 month

47.

Which of the following is the treatment option for primary prevention of PCP?

a)

SMX-TMP DS QD

b)

SMX-TMP DS BID

c)

SMX-TMP DS BIW

d)

SMX-TMP DS TIW

48.

What is the duration of therapy for PCP treatment with Bactrim DS?

a)

7 days

b)

14 days

c)

21 days

d)

30 days

49.

What CD4 count are you most at risk for acquiring Toxoplasma Gondii?

a)

<200

b)

<150

c)

<100

d)

<50

50.

When do you stop primary prevention treatment for TE?

a)

>200 CD4 for 1 month

b)

>200 CD4 for 3 months

c)

>200 CD4 for 6 months

51.

Which of the following is the Primary Prophylaxis dose of MAC?

a)

Bactrim SS QD

b)

Bactrim DS QD

c)

Bactrim DS BID

d)

Azithromycin 1200mg Weekly

52.

True or False, you can initiate MAC treatment when Initiating ART?

a)

True

b)

False

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