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Vet 114 Review

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The opposite of dorsal is

a)

posterior

b)

ventral

c)

distal

d)

proximal

2.

Caudal means

a)

toward the spine

b)

toward the head

c)

toward the tail

d)

cranial

3.

An elevated BUN level is associated with

a)

liver failure

b)

kidney failure

c)

pancreatitis

d)

diabetes

4.

Insulin is secreted by the

a)

pancreas

b)

kidneys

c)

liver

d)

adrenal glands

5.

High levels of ____ may indicate liver damage from hepatitis, infection, cirrhosis, liver cancer, or other liver diseases.

a)

ALT

b)

BUN

c)

ALP

d)

Glucose

6.

When the pancreas is inflamed, increased blood levels of ________ and ______, pancreatic enzymes, will result.

a)

glucose, insulin

b)

BUN, creatinine

c)

amylase, lipase

d)

bilirubin, ALP

7.

A disease causing organism is called

a)

your ex

b)

iatrogenic

c)

a pathogen

d)

a fomite

8.

pH is a scale indicating how ___ or ___ a substance is

a)

dense, loose

b)

concentrated, dilute

c)

weak, strong

d)

acidic, basic

9.

Ringworm is a type of

a)

intestinal parasite

b)

heavy metal band

c)

dermatophyte

d)

endoparasite

10.

____ _____ means using practices and procedures to prevent contamination from pathogens.

a)

Being careful

b)

Aseptic technique

c)

Hand washing

d)

Invasive technique

11.

The stain used to classify bacterial into one of two groups is

a)

iodine

b)

Dif-Quick Romanowsky

c)

gram

d)

Methylene blue

12.

It is important roll the sample on the the slide, in order to

a)

create a thin layer

b)

avoid cell damage

c)

get it all off the swab

d)

maintain sterile technique

13.

Anaerobic means....

a)

capable of flying

b)

hydrophobic

c)

without air

d)

without water

14.

Sample cultures are performed in order to

a)

determine the duration of treatment

b)

determine the proper antimicrobial

c)

identify dermatophytes

d)

make money for the hospital

15.

After looking at a sample under the microscope, it is important to

a)

discard the sample

b)

record the results

c)

leave the lens covered in oil

d)

leave the microscope light on

16.

A patient needing a lateral abdominal Xray will be positioned

a)

in right lateral recumbency

b)

in dorsal recumbency

c)

in ventral recumbency

d)

sitting up

17.

Thoracic radiographs are taken

a)

on expiration

b)

with contrast

c)

on inspiration

d)

sitting up

18.

The landmarks for a ventral/dorsal (V/D) abdominal radiograph are

a)

the clavicle and xiphoid process

b)

greater tubercle and scapula

c)

not specific

d)

xiphoid process and greater trochanter

19.

This patient is positioned for a ____ _____ radiograph.

a)

lateral abdominal

b)

ventral dorsal thorax

c)

ventral dorsal abdomen

d)

dorsal ventral thorax

20.

An example of a positive contrast media is

a)

artifact

b)

Reddit

c)

air

d)

barium sulfate

21.

Hospitals using manual film processing for full body radiographs,

a)

practice quality patient care

b)

is a high volume facility

c)

have higher profit margins

d)

none of the above

22.

When taking radiographs you should always be wearing, at a minimum,

a)

a leaded apron, thyroid shield and dosimetry badge

b)

scrubs, goggles and lab coat

c)

socks, underwear and deodorant

d)

a smile

23.

Leaded gloves, aprons and thyroid shield should be

a)

stored in a drawer

b)

checked for cracks annually

c)

sent through the wash weekly

d)

none of the above

24.

DICOM stands for

a)

Did I Commit On Memory

b)

Dogs and Cats Other Mammals

c)

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

d)

Deviation Intussusception Contralateral Oblique Mesentery

25.

ALARA

a)

means as low as reasonably achievable

b)

is one of the Avengers

c)

is a character on The Mandalorian

d)

for the love of mike, pick the first answer

26.

____ ____ decreases radiographic contrast, projects in all directions and is a safety hazard to patients and personnel

a)

HVAC

b)

A negative attitude

c)

Distortion

d)

Scatter radiation

27.

On a radiograph, air will appear ____ and metal will appear ____.

a)

white, black

b)

light gray, dark gray

c)

black, white

d)

solid, textured

28.

When taking a radiograph, the area of interest should be

a)

as close to the cassette or table as possible

b)

elevated

c)

in the center of the primary beam

d)

1 and 3

29.

A _____ is used to determine the specific gravity of urine

a)

photometer

b)

spectrophotometer

c)

refractometer

d)

glucometer

30.

The microhematocrit centrifuge is designed to hold _____ ____.

a)

test tubes

b)

capillary tubes

c)

reagent rotors

d)

electrolyte fluid

31.

Without a comprehensive quality assurance program, the accuracy and precision of laboratory test results cannot be verified.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The buffy coat layer contains

a)

red blood cells

b)

white blood cells

c)

platelets

d)

2 and 3

33.

Icterus describes serum as

a)

clear and red

b)

clear and yellow

c)

turbid and white

d)

clear and colorless

34.

A microhematocrit (Hct) is the same as

a)

packed cell volume

b)

electrolyte indices

c)

total plasma protein

d)

hemolysis

35.

Pinpoint hemorrhage seen in the skin and mucous membranes is known as

a)

purpura

b)

epistaxis

c)

ecchymosis

d)

petechia

36.

All are true about albumin, EXCEPT

a)

it makes up 35-50% of plasma and serum

b)

it maintains osmotic pressure of plasma

c)

it is synthesized in the liver

d)

it helps promote clotting

37.

Bile acids levels in normal, healthy animals should be

a)

high

b)

low

38.

ALP levels can be ____ in young, growing animals due to bone remodeling and increases in the bone isoenzyme level.

a)

increased

b)

decreased

39.

A dog breed predisposed to developing urate urolithiasis is the

a)

Pug

b)

Westie

c)

Weimereiner

d)

Dalmatian

40.

The most common type of immunologic test performed in veterinary clinics are

a)

fructosamine

b)

Coomb's

c)

chemiluminescence

d)

ELISA

41.

A specific gravity is a measurement of the dissolved material in urine, an indication of

a)

liver function

b)

pancreatic function

c)

kidney function

d)

intestinal absorption

42.

All parasites require a(n)

a)

host

b)

intermediate host

c)

paratenic host

d)

vector

43.

Fleas act as an intermediate host for

a)

rickettsia

b)

tapeworms

c)

roundworms

d)

hookworms

44.

The eggs of the Cuterebra spp. tend to develop into larvae in the host's

a)

intestines

b)

subcutaneous tissue

c)

blood

d)

ears

45.

The insect on the left is a ____ ____ and the insect on the right is a ____ ____.

a)

chewing louse, sucking louse

b)

sucking louse, chewing louse

c)

tick, flea

d)

arachnid, insect

46.

Name the parasite

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei

b)

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

c)

Demodex canis

d)

Toxacara spp.

47.

Name the insect

a)

Demodex canis

b)

Sarcoptes scabiei

c)

Otodectes cynotis

d)

Chelyetiella

48.

Dirofilaria immitis is commonly known as

a)

heartworm

b)

round worms

c)

hook worms

d)

lung worms

49.

_____ are a vector for heartworms

a)

Fleas

b)

Ticks

c)

Lice

d)

Mosquitos

50.

Urine should be _____ ______ and ______ ______ for any chemical testing.

a)

room temperature, well mixed

b)

refrigerated, centrifuged

c)

preserved, stained

d)

reconstituted, adjusted

51.

Before using the urine dipsticks, always note

a)

any crystals

b)

a microscopic examination

c)

any formed elements

d)

the expiration and general condition

52.

All are techniques used to collect samples from tissues and masses, EXCEPT

a)

Impression smears

b)

Scrapings

c)

Swabbings

d)

Fine Needle biopsy

e)

All are techniques used

53.

Only specimens collected by ______ are suitable for urine culture.

a)

free-flow or free/clean catch

b)

manual expression

c)

catheterization

d)

cystocentesis

54.

Name the parasite

a)

Giardia

b)

Diplidium caninum

c)

Anaplasma spp.

d)

Platyhelminthes

55.

The pieces that are broken off are called ______ , and contain _________.

a)

Ancylostoma caninum, larvae

b)

Diplidium caninum, eggs

c)

Toxascaris leonina, nymphs

d)

Trichuris vulpis, adults

56.

Heartworm disease is routinely diagnosed by using a

a)

fecal sample

b)

skin scraping

c)

blood test

d)

radiography

57.

These tubes contain

a)

EDTA

b)

sodium citrate

c)

sodium fluoride

d)

serum separator

58.

This tube contains

a)

EDTA

b)

sodium citrate

c)

lithium heparin

d)

clot activator

59.

Blood intended for a CBC analysis should go in

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

After putting the sample in this tube, shake well to mix.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Ideally, blood tubes should be filled 2/3 full, about 1 mL

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Whole blood samples must be frozen prior to shipment

a)

True

b)

False

63.

A patient diagnosed with IMHA will have a ______ HCT

a)

low

b)

high

64.

Turbidity is the _______ quality of a liquid

a)

thickness

b)

cloudiness

c)

color

d)

sparkle

65.

The sample on the right is described as

a)

icteric

b)

hemolyzed

c)

lipemic

d)

pink

66.

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) measures

a)

the average size of an RBC

b)

hemoglobin levels

c)

reticulocyte count

d)

average shape of an RBC

67.

B. is the ______, where erythrocyte morphology is assessed

a)

feathered edge

b)

body

c)

monolayer

d)

base

68.

Which is a neutrophil?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

The "First Responders" of the WBC's

a)

eosinophils

b)

basophils

c)

neutrophils

d)

lymphocytes

70.

The leukocyte responsible for producing heparin and histamine is the

a)

neutrophil

b)

basophil

c)

lymphocyte

d)

eosinophil

71.

An elevated level of ______ is an indication of parasite infection.

a)

eosinophils

b)

lymphocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

neutrophils

72.

These macrophages clean up the remnants of inflammation

a)

neutrophils

b)

lymphocytes

c)

eosinophils

d)

monocytes

73.

Also known as platelets...

a)

erythrocytes

b)

thrombocytes

c)

lymphocytes

d)

leukocytes

74.

All are components of a complete urinalysis, EXCEPT

a)

Specific Gravity

b)

Sediment Examination

c)

Biochemical Analysis

d)

Glucosuria

75.

A refractometer is calibrated using

a)

isopropyl alcohol

b)

distilled water

c)

canned air

d)

none of the above

76.

All are zoonotic, EXCEPT

a)

Rabies

b)

Ringworm

c)

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

d)

Distemper

77.

On ultrasound, hyperechoic tissues appear _____ than surrounding tissues

a)

darker

b)

lighter

c)

deeper

d)

reflective

78.

Plasma contains ________ and serum does not.

a)

protein

b)

enzymes

c)

fibrinogen

d)

bilirubin

79.

All are shapes of bacteria, EXCEPT

a)

cocci

b)

round

c)

rods

d)

spirals

80.

What might we be looking for with a deep skin scraping

a)

Demodex

b)

Cheyletiella

c)

Anaplura

d)

Bed Bugs

81.

An 18 G needle has a smaller bore than a 25 G needle.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Uses magnetic fields to create cross-sectional images.

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

scintography

83.

A proprietary name is the same as

a)

generic name

b)

brand name

c)

chemical name

d)

none of the above

84.

Put the following in order:
A. Strain mixture, allowing liquid to form a meniscus on top
B. Gather microscope slides, coverslips, applicator stick, test tube (or Fecalyzer) and other supplies.

C. After 10-20 minutes, lift coverslip straight up and place it (fluid side down) directly onto slide. 
D. Combine 2-5g of feces with 30 mL of flotation medium

a)

D, A, B, C

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

B, D, A, C

d)

C, B, D, A

85.

IO

a)

Intraoral

b)

Intraosseous

c)

Intraoperative

d)

Intraocular

86.

prn

a)

as per nurse

b)

as needed

c)

patient really needs

d)

per rectum now

87.

A medication is to be administered AU SID. What does that mean?

a)

both eyes, twice daily

b)

right ear, once daily

c)

left eye, once daily

d)

both ears, once daily

88.

During a patient exam, you note a mass on the left eye lid. How could you write that using medical abbreviations?

a)

OD

b)

SO

c)

OS

d)

OU

89.

A hemogram with an elevated lymphocyte count would suggest

a)

an infection

b)

a parasitic infestation

c)

bone marrow suppression

d)

kidney disease

90.

During a patient exam, you see something crawling on a patient. You instinctively reach for the ________.

a)

tweezers

b)

cellophane tape

c)

doctor's hand

d)

door

91.

A kidney cell is called a

a)

kidney cell

b)

nephew

c)

nephron

d)

glomerulus

92.

An occasional ______ cell seen in urine sediment is considered normal.

a)

renal tubule

b)

epithelial

c)

neutrophil

d)

nephron

93.

Urine cast formation takes place in the

a)

bladder

b)

cortex

c)

renal tubules

d)

Bowman's capsule

94.

Uroliths are also called

a)

kidney stones

b)

gal stones

c)

ugotsome stones

d)

bladder stones

95.

Obese animals are at increased risk of many diseases, including

a)

diabetes

b)

liver disease

c)

urolithiasis

d)

joint disease

e)

all of the above

96.

A urine sample has copious amounts of RBC's on a sample collected via cystocentesis. The doctor says the cause is iatrogenic. What does that mean?

a)

normal

b)

Illness or condition inadvertently caused by a procedure

c)

I'm still looking up what copious means

d)

cause is unknown

97.

Pyuria is

a)

a Western European country

b)

a pie festival in Central Pennsylvania

c)

a mid-sized SUV built by Volkswagen

d)

pus in the urine

98.

On a feline urine sediment, fat droplets are considered

a)

unusual

b)

pathogenic

c)

normal

d)

novel

99.

Describe these RBC's

a)

punctated

b)

crenated

c)

hemolyzed

d)

Rouleaux

100.

Describe the formation

a)

punctated

b)

crenated

c)

Rouleaux

d)

hemolyzed

101.

Rickettsia, Anaplasma and Ehrlichia are all

a)

obligate, intracellular gram negative bacteria

b)

intestinal parasites

c)

livestock ectoparasites

d)

parasites indigenous to humid climates

102.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Fleas do not live in CO

b)

Fleas only thrive in dirty homes

c)

Fleas always cause itching

d)

Fleas prefer cats over dogs

e)

None of this is true

103.

An example of active immunity is

a)

antibody injection

b)

distemper vaccine

c)

maternal antibodies

d)

integument

104.

Check all that apply to Active Immunity

a)

Slow response

b)

Fast response

c)

Long duration

d)

Short duration

e)

produces antibodies

105.

The member of the veterinary staff that is responsible for interpreting the lab results is the:

a)

veterinarian.

b)

veterinary technician.

c)

kennel worker.

d)

veterinary assistant.

106.

When Kim, veterinary assistant, records color and consistency along with the types of eggs observed under magnification, she is most likely performing a:

a)

Gram stain.

b)

necropsy.

c)

culture and sensitivity.

d)

fecal float.

107.

After laboratory results are read, the information should be entered:

a)

in the kennel notebook.

b)

in the patient's file.

c)

in the radiology file.

d)

in the surgery notes.

108.

All are components of a written prescription, EXCEPT

a)

Name, address and phone number of prescribing veterinarian

b)

Date the prescription was filled

c)

Owner's name, animal's name and species

d)

Drug name, concentration/strength and number of units to be dispensed.

109.

You will need to draw up a drug volume of 1.35 mL. What will you do?

a)

Use a 3 mL syringe and draw up 1.4 mL

b)

Use a 3 mL syringe and draw up 1.36 mL

c)

Use a 3 mL syringe, draw up 1 mL and 1 1mL syringe and draw up 0.35 mL

d)

Ask someone else to do it

110.

The syringe on the left is a ______ and the syringe on the right is a ______.

a)

loose tip, screw tip

b)

Luer lock, slip tip

c)

slip tip, Luer lock

d)

Luer lock, screw tip

111.

There must be this for a veterinarian to prescribe medications.

a)

a pen and paper

b)

witness

c)

a warm and inviting relationship

d)

a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship

112.

Drugs that are prescribed extra-label

a)

are done so in a way that is not listed on the drug’s labeling

b)

is illegal and can result in fines and loss of licensure

c)

are dangerous and should not be prescribed

d)

allows veterinarians to prescribe without a current veterinarian-client-patient relationship

113.

To reduce medication administration errors, one must do all of the following, EXCEPT

a)

record all treatments in the medical record

b)

give only as much of the medication as the patient will allow

c)

follow veterinarians orders

d)

follow the 5 Rights of Drug Administration

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