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IMI FINAL REVISION FOR LV02 LV03

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Oxygen makes up approximately how much of the atmosphere?

a)

23%

b)

"24%

c)

21%

d)

31%

2.

Air pollution comes from ?

a)

Factories

b)

Transportation

c)

Forests

d)

Oil refineries

3.

Evaporated emissions create?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

HC

d)

NoX

4.

A chemically correct AF ratio is also termed?

a)

Stoichiometric

b)

Lambda 1

c)

Pascal

d)

Zirconium

5.

An over rich mixture can create

a)

Cause black smoke

b)

High fuel consumption

c)

Strong smell of fuel

d)

Hot engine

6.

NoX is formed when the combustion temperature rises above 1300 degrees C. What makes a big difference to the chamber temperature.

a)

Ignition timing

b)

Engine load

c)

Lean fuel mixture

7.

NoX is measured in?

a)

Parts Per Million

b)

Percentage

c)

Milligrams

d)

CCs

8.

To create the least amount Hydrocarbons the engine runs?

a)

Too Rich

b)

correct

c)

Too lean

9.

Running the engine lean can result in

a)

High combustion temperatures

b)

Poor performance

c)

Piston damage

d)

Poor fuel consumption

10.

NoX is produced when an engine is under

a)

Light load

b)

Warm up

c)

Heavy load

d)

Idling

11.

The catalytic converter starts to work at?

a)

350 + degrees C

b)

750 + degrees C

c)

150 degrees C

d)

Ambient Temperature

12.

A lean mixture will read

a)

300mv

b)

200mv

c)

5 volts

d)

800mv

13.

800mv will make the injectors open for

a)

longer

b)

the same

c)

shorter

d)

stop

14.

Oxygen sensors are made of

a)

platinum

b)

zirconium

c)

gold

d)

silver

15.

Another name for an oxygen sensor is

a)

Lambda

b)

O2

c)

HEGO

16.

when a piston is at TDC at the end of the exhaust stroke it will be at the

a)

top of the cylinder with the inlet and exhaust valves completely closed

b)

top of the cylinder with the inlet and exhaust valves fully open

c)

top of the cylinder with the inlet and exhaust valves partially open

d)

bottom of the cylinder with the inlet and exhaust valves completely closed.

17.

which one the following is checked by heating a small amount of brake fluid ?

a)

moisture content

b)

fluid specification

c)

air in the system

d)

age of the fluid

18.

what action needs to be carried out after replacing a filter in a CI engine fuel system?

a)

it should be filled with petrol

b)

it should be filled with air

c)

it should have all air removed

d)

it should have all diesel fuel removed

19.

On first starting an engine with new oil and filter, the technician should make sure the engine oil

a)

Pump is primed and vented

b)

Warning light extinguishes

c)

Reaches the camshaft drive belt

d)

Is allowed to change color before reviewing

20.

when checking the engine oil level the vehicle must be on level ground and

a)

the engine switched off and checked a short time after

b)

running at idle speed

c)

switching off and checked immediately

d)

running above 3000 rev/min

21.

what will using a higher viscosity specification oil in a diesel (CI) engine result in?

a)

poor starting in cold weather

b)

higher idle speeds

c)

increased performance

d)

improved fuel consumption

22.

which one of the following would be identified by a visual inspection of the brake pads?

a)

possible overheating during braking

b)

the asbestos content

c)

warped brake disc

d)

incorrect ABS operation

23.

Which one of the following is a method of testing coolant for its frost protection

a)

Pressure gauge

b)

Hydrometer

c)

Torque wrench

d)

Frosty gauge

24.

why do cambelts require replacing at a specified mileage?

a)

to ensure valve clearance remain constant

b)

to reduce camshaft wear

c)

to prevent damage to the engine

d)

to improve engine performance

25.

Before removing the cap radiator ,what must a technician do?

a)

allow the engine cooling system to cool down

b)

remove the ignition keys

c)

use a suitable container to catch the excessive coolant

d)

ensure the correct cap is fitted

26.

which one of the following is a steering service item?

a)

steering wheel height adjustment

b)

steering air bag re-charge

c)

excessive linkage free

d)

play king pin re-alignment

27.

what action should be taken with brake shoes that have become contaminated with brake fluid?

a)

they must be cleaned with brake cleaner

b)

they must be replaced with new ones

c)

they must be refitted after being exposed to air for 24 hours

d)

they must be heated with a flame and cleaned with brake cleaner

28.

On a coil per plug system the ignition coils are situated on the

a)

Distributor cap

b)

King leads

c)

Spark plug

d)

Battery

29.

An internal combustion engine turns (a)   into energy

30.

What are the four strokes called in a four stroke engine?

a)

Intake, compression, exhaust, cleaning

b)

Exhaust, diesel, complication, cleaning

c)

Intake, compression, combustion, exhaust

d)

Petrol, spark, explosion, exhaust

31.

Which part of an engine turns as a result of the combustion of the fuel, and hence powers the other parts of the vehicle?

a)

Camshaft

b)

Crankshaft

c)

Piston

d)

Valve

32.

There are usually two valves in a four stroke engine, an intake valve and an exhaust valve

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which stroke provides the power that actually turns the crankshaft?

a)

Combustion

b)

Compression

c)

Exhaust

d)

Intake

34.

The timing belt is necessary to make sure the valves open and close at the right points in the pistons' movements

a)

True

b)

False

35.

An anti- roll bar is also known as :

a)

a control arm

b)

a sway bar

c)

torsion bar

d)

trailing arm

36.

This component absorbs bumps in the road to help prevent driver feel.

a)

rotor

b)

leaf spring

c)

shock

d)

sway bar

37.

Name this component

a)

radius arm

b)

control arm

c)

strut

d)

steering rack

38.

Name this component

a)

strut

b)

shank

c)

shock 

39.

Name this component

a)

u bolt

b)

leaf spring

c)

sway bar

d)

torsion bar

40.

Name this component

a)

Strut

b)

shock

c)

coil spring

d)

damper

41.

The automotive suspension system interacts very closely with the steering system.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Tech A says that loose ball joints can cause the vehicle to wander. Tech B says that loose control arm bushings can affect alignment angles. Who is correct?

a)

Tech A

b)

Tech B

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

43.

Choose the purpose of the braking system.

a)

The braking system is designed to help you do smoky burnouts

b)

The braking system is designed to decrease the speed of the vehicle.

c)

The braking system is designed to prevent you from driving to fast.

d)

The braking system is designed to stop you from driving into the car in front of you

44.

Which of the following is not part of the disc brake system

a)

Brake rotor

b)

Brake caliper

c)

Brake Shoe

d)

Brake pad

45.

What does the acronym ABS stand for?

a)

All Brakes Stopping

b)

Awesome Braking System

c)

Anti-lock Braking System

d)

Advanced Braking System

46.

Select appropriate answer for the image given

a)

Drum Brake Part

b)

Disc Brake part

47.

Select appropriate answer for the image given

a)

Drum Brake Part

b)

Disc Brake Part

48.

What does the braking system use to reduce the speed of a vehicle?

a)

grease

b)

speed

c)

friction

d)

torque

49.

What converts fluid pressure to mechanical motion

a)

caliper

b)

brake shoe

c)

rotor

d)

brake pad

50.

What is this part?

a)

Wheel stud

b)

Wheelcylinder

c)

Wheel bearing

d)

Starter

51.
What is this part?
a)
Master cylinder
b)
Brake shoe
c)
Brake rotor
d)
Brake pump
52.

Which Greek letter is used to represent the coefficient of friction

a)

Pi (π)

b)

Mu (μ

c)

Delta (Δ)

d)

Omega (Ω)

53.

What can the driver do to reduce the possibility of brake fade caused by heat?

a)

Pump the brake pedal while descending a steep hill

b)

Shift the transmission into neutral and allow the vehicle to coast down long or steep hills

c)

Ride the brakes to keep the shoes and pads against the drum or rotor

d)

Select a lower transmission gear

54.

Which of the following is a form of steering mechanism?

a)

Ackermann steering

b)

Peg and Ball

c)

Crown wheel and pinion

d)

Rack and pinion

55.

To satisfy the MOT regulations the minimum braking efficiency for the footbrake must not be:

a)

less than 16%

b)

less than 25%

c)

less than 50%

d)

less than 75%

56.

In relation to checking and adjusting the front wheel alignment which of the following is NOT true?

a)

Adjustments must be made equally to both track rods

b)

You should remove any very heavy loads from the boot

c)

You should check the tyre pressures are correct

d)

Buckled wheels will not affect the wheel alignment

57.

An offside brake caliper piston seized in the off position may cause the:

a)

vehicle to pull to the right when accelerating

b)

vehicle to pull to the right when braking

c)

vehicle to pull to the left when accelerating

d)

vehicle to pull to the left when braking

58.

In relation to vehicle behaviour during cornering 'oversteer' is when the:

a)

slip angles of the rear tyres are smaller than the slip angles of the front tyres

b)

slip angles of the rear tyres are larger than the slip angles of the front tyres

c)

slip angles of the front tyres are the same as the slip angles of the rear tyres

d)

rear wheels of a vehicle are carrying much less load than the front wheels

59.

A driver complains of steering wheel 'shimmy' that gets worse as the vehicle's speed increases. This most likely indicates the:

a)

tyre pressures are too high

b)

front wheels need balancing

c)

wheel alignment needs adjusting

d)

shock absorbers need replacing

60.

The Ackermann steering layout produces:

a)

toe-out of the front wheels during cornering

b)

understeer of the front wheels during cornering

c)

oversteer of the front wheels during cornering

d)

centre point steering on the front wheels

61.

A customer complains that their vehicle pulls to the left during braking. One possible cause of this fault is:

a)

the front wheel alignment is incorrectly set with excessive toe-in

b)

the brake servo has failed due to a collapsed induction manifold pipe

c)

seized front brake caliper pistons on the offside of the vehicle

d)

seized front brake caliper pistons on the nearside of the vehicle

62.

The legal limit for a car tyre tread depth is::

a)

1 mm across 75% of the tyre width

b)

1 mm across 100% of the tyre width

c)

1.6 mm across 75% of the tyre width

d)

1.6 mm across 100% of the tyre width

63.

A vertical movement of the body at the front then the back in turn is called:

a)

roll

b)

bounce

c)

pitch

d)

sway

64.

In relation to vehicle behaviour during cornering ‘understeer’ is when the:

a)

slip angles of the rear tyres are smaller than the slip angles of the front tyres

b)

slip angles of the front tyres are larger than the slip angles of the rear tyres

c)

slip angles of the front tyres are the same as the slip angles of the rear tyres

d)

rear wheels of a vehicle are carrying much less load than the front wheels

65.

A constant velocity joint is used:

a)

in a front wheel drive shaft

b)

in a dead axle

c)

in a fully floating axle

d)

in a live axle

66.

The ABS operating phases are controlled by:

a)

Boden cables

b)

electronic solenoids

c)

engine speed

d)

mechanical linkages

67.

What is the nominal section width of a tyre with the following markings 205/45/17 84W?

a)

17 inches

b)

45 mm

c)

84mm

d)

205 mm

68.

Explain the operation and construction of single-point injection systems.

a)

The operation of single-point injection systems involves delivering air to the engine instead of fuel.

b)

The single-point injection system operates by delivering fuel to the engine through a single injector located in the intake manifold.

c)

The single-point injection system operates by delivering fuel to the engine through multiple injectors located in the exhaust manifold.

d)

The construction of single-point injection systems involves using a carburetor instead of an injector.

69.

What are the types of air flow sensors used in petrol injection systems?

a)

MAF and MAP sensors

b)

Oxygen and Nitrogen sensors

c)

Temperature and Pressure sensors

d)

Speed and Acceleration sensors

70.

Describe the fuel supply system in a multi-point injection system.

a)

Fuel pump delivers fuel to the exhaust system

b)

The fuel supply system is not important in a multi-point injection system

c)

Fuel is delivered to the spark plugs

d)

Fuel pump delivers fuel to the injectors

71.

Explain the function of a fuel pump in a petrol injection system.

a)

Providing lubrication to the moving parts of the engine

b)

Regulating the temperature of the engine

c)

Mixing air and fuel to create combustion

d)

Delivering fuel from the fuel tank to the engine at the correct pressure and flow rate.

72.

What is the purpose of a fuel filter in an injection system?

a)

To increase the fuel efficiency

b)

To regulate the engine temperature

c)

To improve the exhaust system

d)

To remove contaminants and impurities from the fuel

73.

Describe the role of a fuel regulator in a petrol injection system.

a)

Regulates air pressure to the engine

b)

Monitors exhaust emissions

c)

Controls the temperature of the fuel

d)

Controls fuel pressure to ensure correct amount of fuel is delivered to the engine

74.

Explain the function of injectors in a multi-point injection system.

a)

Regulating the temperature of the engine

b)

Controlling the exhaust emissions

c)

Mixing air and fuel in the intake manifold

d)

Delivering fuel to each individual cylinder in a multi-point injection system.

75.

What is the significance of a sequencer in a petrol injection system?

a)

It is only used for diagnostic purposes.

b)

It has no impact on the performance of the petrol injection system.

c)

It controls the timing and sequence of fuel injection into the engine cylinders.

d)

It increases the fuel consumption of the engine.

76.

Differentiate between single-point and multi-point injection systems.

a)

Single-point injection systems use a single injector to supply fuel to all cylinders, while multi-point injection systems use individual injectors for each cylinder.

b)

Single-point injection systems use individual injectors for each cylinder, while multi-point injection systems do not use injectors at all.

c)

Single-point injection systems use a single injector for each cylinder, while multi-point injection systems use individual injectors for each cylinder.

d)

Single-point injection systems use individual injectors for each cylinder, while multi-point injection systems use a single injector to supply fuel to all cylinders.

77.

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of single and multi-point injection systems.

a)

Multi-point injection systems offer less precise fuel delivery

b)

Single-point injection systems are more expensive and complex

c)

Single-point injection systems offer better fuel distribution and improved performance

d)

Advantages of single-point injection systems include lower cost and simpler design, while disadvantages include less precise fuel delivery. Multi-point injection systems offer better fuel distribution and improved performance, but they are more complex and expensive.

78.

What is the role of a throttle body in a petrol injection system?

a)

It controls the amount of air entering the engine

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It filters the fuel before it enters the engine

d)

It cools down the engine

79.

How does a petrol injection system improve engine performance?

a)

By increasing the engine's exhaust emissions

b)

By delivering fuel at the correct pressure and flow rate for optimal combustion

c)

By reducing the engine's fuel consumption

d)

By cooling down the engine

80.

What is the function of an oxygen sensor in a petrol injection system?

a)

It measures the level of oxygen in the exhaust gases to ensure optimal fuel combustion

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It filters the fuel before it enters the engine

d)

It cools down the engine

81.

What is the role of a fuel pressure regulator in a petrol injection system?

a)

It controls the amount of air entering the engine

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure to ensure the correct amount of fuel is delivered to the engine

c)

It filters the fuel before it enters the engine

d)

It cools down the engine

82.

How does a multi-point injection system improve engine performance compared to a single-point injection system?

a)

By delivering fuel at the correct pressure and flow rate for optimal combustion

b)

By reducing the engine's fuel consumption

c)

By increasing the engine's exhaust emissions

d)

By delivering fuel to each individual cylinder, allowing for more precise control over fuel distribution

83.

What is the function of a Mass Air Flow (MAF) sensor in a petrol injection system?

a)

It measures the level of oxygen in the exhaust gases to ensure optimal fuel combustion

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It measures the amount of air entering the engine, which is used to calculate the correct amount of fuel to inject

d)

It cools down the engine

84.

What is the role of a Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) sensor in a petrol injection system?

a)

It measures the level of oxygen in the exhaust gases to ensure optimal fuel combustion

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It measures the pressure in the intake manifold, which is used to calculate the correct amount of fuel to inject

d)

It cools down the engine

85.

How does a petrol injection system contribute to reducing exhaust emissions?

a)

By increasing the engine's fuel consumption

b)

By delivering fuel at the correct pressure and flow rate for optimal combustion, reducing unburnt fuel in the exhaust

c)

By reducing the engine's fuel efficiency

d)

By heating up the engine

86.

What is the function of an Electronic Control Unit (ECU) in a petrol injection system?

a)

It controls the amount of air entering the engine

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It filters the fuel before it enters the engine

d)

It manages the fuel injection process based on sensor inputs to optimize engine performance

87.

What is the role of a fuel rail in a petrol injection system?

a)

It controls the amount of air entering the engine

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It distributes fuel to the injectors

d)

It cools down the engine

88.

How does a petrol injection system maintain fuel efficiency?

a)

By increasing the engine's exhaust emissions

b)

By delivering fuel at the correct pressure and flow rate for optimal combustion

c)

By reducing the engine's fuel consumption

d)

By cooling down the engine

89.

What is the function of a throttle position sensor in a petrol injection system?

a)

It measures the level of oxygen in the exhaust gases to ensure optimal fuel combustion

b)

It regulates the fuel pressure

c)

It measures the position of the throttle, which is used to calculate the correct amount of fuel to inject

d)

It cools down the engine

90.

What is the fuel supply pressure for a Single Point Injection system?

a)

2 bar

b)

1 bar

c)

0.5 bar

d)

1.5 bar

91.

Compared to multi-point systems, what is a noted advantage of Single Point Injection systems?

a)

Higher efficiency

b)

More complex design

c)

Lower production costs

d)

Higher fuel supply pressure

92.

What is the fuel supply pressure range for the system described in the image?

a)

1-2 bar

b)

2-3 bar

c)

3-4 bar

d)

4-5 bar

93.

According to the image, how many injectors are there per cylinder in the described system?

a)

One injector per cylinder

b)

Two injectors per cylinder

c)

Three injectors per cylinder

d)

Four injectors per cylinder

94.

What does the acronym MAF stand for in the context of air metering devices?

a)

Manifold Air Flow

b)

Mass Air Flow

c)

Metered Air Flow

d)

Maximum Air Flow

95.

What does "Pinking" refer to in engine terminology?

a)

A type of engine oil

b)

A method of cleaning engine parts

c)

Abnormal combustion

d)

A color indicator for engine temperature

96.

What type of actuator is used on a remotely switched fuel flap release?

a)

A motor and gear actuator

b)

A pneumatic motor

c)

A stepper motor

d)

An electric solenoid

97.

What device is used to control the duration of the heater systems operation?

a)

A regulator and a relay

b)

A relay and timer

c)

A thermistor and relay

d)

A relay and resistor

98.

What electrical unit is used to control the power flow in the circuit?

a)

A regulator

b)

A diode

c)

A relay

d)

A thyristor

99.

When testing a suspected faulty door actuator, what would you expect to find on the two activation wires when the central locking is active?

a)

Both showing an earth

b)

Both reading 12 volt

c)

12 volts and an earth

d)

0 Ohms

100.

In modern, heavy commercial vehicles what is the most common use for LED lighting?

a)

Side marker lights

b)

Headlight low beam

c)

Front driving lights

d)

Front fog lights

101.

What is the purpose of a power capacitor in a higher power amplifier system?

a)

To act as a second power source for the amplifiers if the vehicle battery fails

b)

To keep the amp supply to the amplifiers at a pre-set level in all conditions

c)

To prevent damage to electronic amplifier control systems in a power failure situation

d)

To provide a constant voltage to the amplifiers under all conditions

102.

What causes an element to get hot?

a)

The magnetic field that forms around the element when current flows

b)

The elements resistance to the flow of electrical current

c)

The higher voltage produced by the alternator when the screen heater is operated

d)

The glasses resistance to the flow of electrical current

103.

The door lock actuators are wired in:

a)

parallel

b)

series then parallel

c)

parallel then series

d)

series

104.

What is the name of the component in an alternator that converts AC to DC?

a)

Regulator

b)

Stator

c)

Rectifier

d)

One way clutch

105.

Before carrying out any repairs on an airbag system, what must you do?

a)

Disconnect the battery and start work straight away

b)

Leave the battery connected and remove the ignition keys for 15 minutes

c)

Disconnect the battery and wait for at least 15 minutes

d)

Disconnect the battery and wait for at least 5 minutes

106.

What is the function of the Clock Spring?

a)

To measure the time difference between the triggering of the two SRS sensors

b)

To prevent premature wear and breakage of the wiring to the steering wheel

c)

To enable the correct timing of the seat belt pre-tensioner and the airbag

d)

To allow the wiper controls to operate when turning the steering wheel

107.

Why is the airbag coated with a fine powder?

a)

To provide lubrication to reduce friction when the airbag is being installed

b)

To provide lubrication to reduce friction when the airbag is inflating

c)

It is to stop occupants being burnt by the hot gases in the airbag

d)

It is a by product of the gas generant burning process

108.

On a SRS system with an Airbag and Seatbelt Pre-tensioner what will be occurring from 20-30 milliseconds after impact?

a)

Driver hits the bag and the pre-tensioner releases

b)

Airbag is inflated and the pre-tensioning is complete

c)

Airbag collapses and normal seatbelt function occurs

d)

Airbag starts to inflate and pre-tensioner moving

109.

What electrical component has a low resistance to flow in one direction and a high resistance (preferably infinite) to flow in the other direction?

a)

A fuse

b)

A diode

c)

A circuit breaker

d)

A resistor

110.

What electrical principle causes an electrical motor to stop immediately?

a)

Regenerative braking

b)

Electro-magnetic induction

c)

Electro-motive force

d)

OHMs Law

111.

What component in a vehicle's electrical system is primarily responsible for storing electrical energy?

a)

Battery

b)

Alternator

c)

Capacitor

d)

Coil

112.

What is the primary function of an alternators regulator?

a)

To charge the battery

b)

To control the alternators current output

c)

To control the alternators voltage output

d)

To convert the current from AC to DC