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MODEL EXAM - I (MSN-II)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The act of measuring hearing acuity for variations in sound intensity, pitch and for tone is measured by

a)

a. Ophthalmoscope

b)

b. Endoscope

c)

c. Audiometry

d)

d. Proctoscope

2.

In which of the following condition the underdeveloped external ear is present?

a)

a. Protruded ear

b)

b. Constricted ear

c)

c. Cryptotia

d)

d. Microtia

3.

The process of softening cerumen (ear wax) for removal is

a)

a. Instrumentation

b)

b. Ear syringing

c)

c. Ceruminolysis

d)

d. All the above

4.

A condition in which fluid resides in the middle ear

a)

a. Serous otitis media

b)

b. Otitis media with effusion

c)

c. Middle ear effusion

d)

d. All the above

5.

Hardening of the ear due to the formation of an abnormal spongy bone is

a)

a. Mastoiditis

b)

b. Otitis media

c)

c. Otosclerosis

d)

d. Swimmers ear

6.

An abnormal inner ear fluid balance is known as

a)

a. Acoustic neuroma

b)

b. Meniere’s disease

c)

c. Ototoxicity

d)

d. Labyrinthitis

7.

Which of the following is the drug of choice to control vertigo and to suppress the vestibular system?

a)

a. Anti-emetics

b)

b. Vasodilators

c)

c. Diuretics

d)

d. Antihistamines

8.

A slow growing, benign tumour of VIII cranial nerve is

a)

a. Acoustic neuroma

b)

b. Meniere’s disease

c)

c. Ototoxicity

d)

d. Labyrinthitis

9.

Hearing loss that occurs gradually with aging

a)

a. Deafness

b)

b. None of these

c)

c. Hearing loss

d)

d. Presbycusis

10.

Hearing loss results from inner ear or auditory nerve dysfunction

a)

a. Conductive hearing loss

b)

b. Sensory neural hearing loss

c)

c. Mixed hearing loss

d)

d. Deafness

11.

Inability to hear properly or at all before the patient learnt how to utter or understand speech

a)

a. Prelingual deafness

b)

b. Post lingual deafness

c)

c. Unilateral deafness

d)

d. Bilateral deafness

12.

Inability to hear sound at 41 - 55 dB is

a)

a. Mild hearing loss

b)

b. Severe hearing loss

c)

c. Moderate hearing loss

d)

d. Profound hearing loss

13.

Which of the following part of the hearing aid will magnifies electrical impulses?

a)

a. Microphone

b)

b. Amplifier

c)

c. Receiver

d)

d. None of these

14.

Which of the following drug is used to treat vertigo?

a)

a. Neomycin

b)

b. Amoxicillin

c)

c. Gentamicin

d)

d. Meclizine

15.

Which of the following drug is used to treat inflammation of the skin of the ear canal?

a)

a. Diuretics

b)

b. Antivert

c)

c. Steroid

d)

d. Local anesthetic

16.

What is called entropion?

a)

a. Inversion of an eyelid

b)

b. Eversion of an eyelid

c)

c. Both and b

d)

d. None of the above

17.

The drug of choice for allergic conjunctivitis is

a)

a. Ciprofloxacin

b)

b. Chromalin sodium

c)

c. Antiviral

d)

d. Decongestant

18.

What is keratitis?

a)

a. Inflammation of the conjunctiva

b)

b. Inflammation of the cornea

c)

c. Inflammation of the iris

d)

d. Inflammation of the sclera

19.

The shape of the eye does not bend light correctly, resulting in a blurred image

a)

a. Keratitis

b)

b. Conjunctivitis

c)

c. Corneal ulcer

d)

d. Refractory error

20.

A group of ocular disorders characterized by increased intra ocular pressure, optic nerve atrophy and visual field loss

a)

a. Cataract

b)

b. Retinopathy

c)

c. Glaucoma

d)

d. Uveitis

21.

Inflammation of the iris, ciliary body and choroid is called

a)

a. Anterior uveitis

b)

b. Pan uveitis

c)

c. Posterior uveitis

d)

d. None of these

22.

Which of the following is usually associated with a hole or tear in the sensory retina from the retinal pigment epithelium?

a)

a. Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment

b)

b. Tractional Retinal Detachment

c)

c. Exudative Retinal Detachment

d)

d. None

23.

The most common primarily intraocular malignancy in adults is:

a)

a. Retinoblastoma

b)

b. Choroidal melanoma

c)

c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva

d)

d. Iris nevus

24.

What is called Visual Impairment or low vision?

a)

a. Visual acuity of less than 3/60 (Snellen's) or its equivalent

b)

b. Visual acuity of less than <6/18 - 6/60

c)

c. Visual acuity of less than <6/60- 4/60

d)

d. NPL (No Perception of Light)

25.

Which of the following method used for tissue retrieval?

a)

a. Eye enucleation

b)

b. Corneal excision

c)

c. Both a and b

d)

d. None of these

26.

Which of the following type of ocular prosthesis allows fibro vascular ingrowth throughout the implant?

a)

a. Non-integrated implants

b)

b. Integrated implants

c)

c. Lens implants

d)

d. None of these

27.

Pilocarpine (0-5%) drops are indicated in the treatment of

a)

a. Acute iritis

b)

b. Acute uveitis

c)

c. Myopia

d)

d. Glaucoma

28.

Which of the following short acting steroids are used for ophthalmic conditions?

a)

a. Hydrocortizone

b)

b. Cortisone

c)

c. Prednisolone

d)

d. All the above

29.

Which of the following drops used as Lubricants?

a)

a. Hydrocortizone

b)

b. Refresh tears

c)

c. Cortisone

d)

d. Prednisolone

30.

Ocular prosthesis otherwise called what?

a)

a. Artificial eye

b)

b. Glass eye

c)

c. Craniofacial prosthesis

d)

d. All the above

31.
All of the following are signs of possible endometriosis EXCEPT:
a)
painful menstruation
b)
pelvic pain
c)
cervical cancer
d)
infertility
32.
What hormone initiates growth of follicles in the ovaries?
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
Estrogen
d)
Progesterone
33.

Which of the following is the most common benign neoplasm of the cervix and endocervix?

a)

a. Polyp

b)

b. Leiomyoma

c)

c. Nabothian cyst

d)

d. Endometriosis

34.

Second degree uterovaginal prolapse is characterized by

a)

a. Complete protrusion of uterus outside introitus.

b)

b. Descent of genital tract within vagina.

c)

c. Descent of genital tract upto introitus.

d)

d. Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.

35.

The mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is:

a)

a. Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

b)

b. Inducing endometrial atrophy.

c)

c. Increasing cervical mucous hostility.

d)

d. Inducing endometritis

36.

The most common cause of rectovaginal fistula is:

a)

a. Obstetrical.

b)

b. Irradiation of the pelvis

c)

c. Carcinoma.

d)

d. Endometriosis.

37.

Which of the following is used to take cervical smear?

a)

a. Colposcope.

b)

b. Vaginoscope.

c)

c. Ayre’s spatula.

d)

d. Laparoscope.

38.

The most common symptom of endometrial hyperplasia is:

a)

a. Vaginal bleeding.

b)

b. Amenorrhea.

c)

c. Pelvic pain.

d)

d. Abdominal distention.

39.

Which of the following is used as an emergency contraceptive?

a)

a. Combined oral contraceptive pills.

b)

b. Progesterone only.

c)

c. Depoprovera.

d)

d. Levonorgestril (EM-Kit).

40.

Endometriosis is

(mark all that apply)

a)

a. a condition that causes constant abdominal pain

b)

b. a cause of dyspareunia

c)

c. a common cause of tubal infertility

d)

d. a condition that causes anovulation

41.

Which of the following is not an expected symptom of Premenstrual syndrome?

a)

a. Abdominal bloating

b)

b. Weight loss

c)

c. Anxiety

d)

d. Breast tenderness

42.

Which of the following is the primary feature of cervical cancer?

a)

a. Polyurea

b)

b. Anorexia

c)

c. Irregular menstruation

d)

d. Headache

43.

Menorrhagia means?

a)

a. Excessive bleeding during menstruation

b)

b, Painful menstruation

c)

c. Bleeding between menstrual periods

d)

d. Irregular menstruation

44.

A whitish vaginal discharge with fishy odor is a common sign of?

a)

a. Pelvic inflammatory disease

b)

b. Bacterial Vaginitis

c)

c. Atrophic vaginitis

d)

d. Trichomonas vaginalis

45.

History of weight gain, irregular periods and worsening facial hair are the signs and symptoms of ?

a)

a. Polycystic ovarian disease.

b)

b. Hypothyroidism.

c)

c. Obesity.

d)

d. Cushing’s Syndrome

46.

Which of the following are good prognostic factors in breast cancer?

a)

Grade III tumour

b)

estrogen receptor positivity

c)

HER 2 receptor overexpression

d)

Lymph node involvement

47.

The signs and symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome are

a)

a. High temperature,

b)

b. Vomiting, diarrhoea,

c)

c. Fainting and muscle pain.

d)

d. All the above

48.

_________ is a well-established risk factor for breast cancer.

a)

a. Poor sleep

b)

b. Obesity

c)

c. Unhealthy diet

d)

d. Lack of exercise

49.

Cystocele is formed by which part of bladder ?

a)

a. Trigone

b)

b. Base

c)

c. Superior surface

d)

d. Posterior surface

50.

Abnormal shape of the uterus is diagnosed by?

a)

a. Ultrasound

b)

b. Speculum

c)

c. HSG

d)

d. Laparotomy