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Blue book terms terms 201-275

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the temperature of air will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains the same

d)

None of these

2.

By increasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle, which of the following will not be affected?

a)

Efficiency

b)

Work

c)

Heat added

d)

Heat rejected

3.

By decreasing the temperature sink of Carnot cycle, which of the following will not be affected?

a)

Efficiency

b)

Work

c)

Heat added

d)

Heat rejected

4.

By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful cooling, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Condenser pressure

b)

Evaporator pressure

c)

Quality after expansion

d)

Heat rejected from condenser

5.

By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful cooling, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigerated effect

b)

COP

c)

Compressor power

d)

Mass flow rate

6.

By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Heat rejected

b)

COP

c)

Compressor power

d)

Specific volume at suction

7.

By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Heat rejected

b)

COP

c)

Compressor power

d)

Specific volume at suction

8.

By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle without useful cooling, which of the following will not be affected? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigerated effect

b)

COP

c)

Compressor power

d)

Mass flow rate

9.

By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle at condenser exit, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigerated effect

b)

Specific volume at suction

c)

Compressor power

d)

Mass flow rate

10.

By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle at condenser exit, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigerated effect

b)

Specific volume at suction

c)

Compressor power

d)

Mass flow rate

11.

By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

mass flow rate

b)

COP

c)

specific volume at suction

d)

compressor work

12.

By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigeration effect

b)

COP

c)

evaporator temperature

d)

Temperature difference between evaporator and compressor

13.

By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

moisture content after expansion

b)

compressor power

c)

heat rejected from condenser

d)

mass flow rate

14.

If the pressure drop in the condenser Increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

mass flow rate

b)

compressor power

c)

heat rejected in the condenser

d)

specific volume of suction

15.

If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigeration effect

b)

mass flow rate

c)

heat rejected in the condenser

d)

compressor power

16.

If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

compressor power

b)

mass flow rate

c)

heat rejection in the condenser

d)

COP

17.

If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

Refrigerating effect

b)

vaporizing temperature

c)

heat rejected in the condenser

d)

COP

18.

If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

specific volume at suction

b)

compressor power

c)

heat rejected in the condenser

d)

COP

19.

By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

pump work

b)

turbine

c)

heat rejected

d)

cycle efficiency

20.

By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

heat rejected

b)

pump work

c)

cycle efficiency

d)

moisture

21.

By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

moisture content at the turbine exhaust

b)

turbine work

c)

heat added

d)

heat rejected

22.

By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)

a)

moisture content at the turbine exhaust

b)

pump work

c)

condenser pressure

d)

cycle efficiency

23.

By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease?

a)

turbine work

b)

moisture content after expansion

c)

heat added

d)

heat rejected

24.

When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, which of the following will increase?

a)

turbine work

b)

heat added

c)

heat rejected

d)

cycle efficiency

25.

Is the combination of base load and peaking load.

a)

rated load

b)

intermediate load

c)

combine load

d)

over-all load

26.

Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous maximum demand.

a)

use factor

b)

capacity factor

c)

demand factor

d)

diversity factor

27.

Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite number of feedwater heaters thus efficiency is equal to:

a)

otto cycle

b)

stirling cycle

c)

ericson cycle

d)

carnot cycle

28.

A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water.

a)

back pressure turbine

b)

passout turbine

c)

peaking turbine

d)

reaction turbine

29.

States that when conductor and magnetic field move relatively to each other, an electric voltage is induced in the conductor.

a)

Maxwell’s law

b)

Kirchoff’s law

c)

Faraday’s law

d)

Newtons law

30.

Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by utilizing thermionic emissions.

a)

Thermionic motor

b)

Thermionic generator

c)

Thermionic converter

d)

Thermionic cell

31.

Is the largest group of coal containing 46-86% of fixed carbon and 20 to 40% volatile matter.

a)

anthracite

b)

sub-anthracite

c)

Bituminous

d)

Sub-bituminous

32.

When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature of about 105⁰C for a period of 1 hour, the loss in weight of the sample gives the:

a)

volatile matter

b)

ash

c)

Fixed carbon

d)

moisture content

33.

When 1 gram of sample of coal is placed in a crucible and heated 950⁰C and maintain at that temperature for 7 minutes there is a loss in weight due to elimination of:

a)

volatile matter and moisture

b)

ash

c)

Fixed carbon

d)

moisture content

34.

Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon compounds which can be removed from coal by heating.

a)

moisture content

b)

product of combustion

c)

ash

d)

volatile matter

35.

By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible until the coal is completely burned, the __ will formed.

a)

volatile matter and moisture

b)

ash

c)

Fixed carbon

d)

moisture content

36.

Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in a coke oven in the absence of __ with volatile matter driven off.

a)

air

b)

oil

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

37.

Grindability of standard coal is

a)

80

b)

90

c)

100

d)

110

38.

Major constituent of all natural gases is

a)

ethane

b)

methane

c)

propane

d)

Cethane

39.

Two types of fans are:

a)

centrifugal and axial

b)

reciprocating and axial

c)

centrifugal and rotary

d)

tangential and rotary

40.

Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to chemical composition.

a)

enthalpy of reaction

b)

enthalpy of combustion

c)

enthalpy of formation

d)

enthalpy of product

41.

A type of boiler used for duper critical pressure operation.

a)

La Mont boiler

b)

Once through-circulation boiler

c)

Force circulation boiler

d)

Natural circulation boiler

42.

Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by:

a)

electric furnace

b)

electric current

c)

incoming flue gas

d)

outgoing flue gas

43.

Receives heat partly by convection and partly by radiation.

a)

radiant superheater

b)

desuperheater

c)

convective superheater

d)

pendant superheater

44.

Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat exchangers have an energy storage medium called.

a)

matrix

b)

regenerator

c)

Boiler

d)

Recuperator

45.

Stirling cycle uses a ____ as working fluids.

a)

incompressible gas

b)

incompressible fluids

c)

compressible refrigerant

d)

compressible fluids

46.

In Striling process, the heat is added during

a)

Isobaric process

b)

Isentropic process

c)

Isothermal process

d)

Heat process

47.

Brayton cycle is known as

a)

Carnot cycle

b)

Joule cycle

c)

Carnot cycle

d)

Rankine cycle

48.

It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of certain practical characteristics.

a)

Diesel cycle

b)

Otto cycle

c)

Carnot cycle

d)

Brayton cycle

49.

Heat exchangers typically involve

a)

no work interaction

b)

no heat interaction

c)

no energy interaction

d)

none of these

50.

A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called

a)

Adiabatic

b)

Regenerator

c)

Heat engines

d)

None of these

51.

The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space at

a)

Low temperature

b)

High temperature

c)

Medium temperature

d)

None of these

52.

A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called

a)

perpetual motion machine of second kind

b)

perpetual motion machine of third kind

c)

perpetual motion machine of the first kind

d)

none of these

53.

A process is called _____ if no irreversibilities occur outside the system boundaries during the process.

a)

externally reversible

b)

internally reversible

c)

reversible

d)

none of these

54.

An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy transfer is

a)

energy

b)

heat

c)

work

d)

none of these

55.

A _____ is used in aircraft engines and some automotive engine. In this method, a turbine driven by the exhaust gases is used to provide power to compressor or blower at the inlet.

a)

discharging

b)

turbocharging

c)

supercharging

d)

scavenging

56.

The only device where the changes in kinetic energy are significant are the

a)

compressor

b)

pumps

c)

nozzles and diffusers

d)

none of these

57.

The distance between TDC and BDC in which the piston can travel is the

a)

right extreme position

b)

displacement stroke

c)

stroke of the engine

d)

swept stroke

58.

In compression-engine the combustion of air-fuel mixture is self-ignited as a result of compressing the mixture above its

a)

self developed temperature

b)

mixing temperature

c)

self feed temperature

d)

self ignition temperature

59.

The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle depends _______ of the working fluid.

a)

the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio

b)

the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio

c)

the moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio

d)

the compression ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio

60.

Using monoatomic gas, the thermal efficiency of Otto cycle

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains constant

d)

none of these

61.

In diesel engine, combustion process during combustion occurs during

a)

isothermal process

b)

constant pressure process

c)

isentropic process

d)

adiabatic

62.

If the cutoff ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel cycle

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains constant

d)

none of these

63.

If Erickson cycle , the regeneration process occur during ______ process.

a)

constant volume

b)

constant temperature

c)

constant pressure

d)

none of these

64.

In Brayton cycle, the ____ during constant pressure process.

a)

work is added

b)

heat is transferred

c)

pressure is rejected

d)

energy is added

65.

The two major application areas of gas turbine engines are

a)

driving automotive engine and locomotives

b)

heating and generation

c)

aircraft propulsion and electric power generation

d)

none of these

66.

The use of regenerator in is recommended only when the turbine exhaust temperature is higher than the compressor.

a)

exit temperature

b)

inlet temperature

c)

mean temperature

d)

absolute temperature

67.

As the number of stages is increased, the expansion process becomes

a)

isentropic

b)

isothermal

c)

isometric

d)

polytropic

68.

Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio typically between

a)

6 to 8

b)

12 to 24

c)

10 to 18

d)

10 to 25

69.

The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass ratio of

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

70.

The single-stage expansion process of an ideal brayton cycle without regeneration is replace by a multistage expansion process with reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of modification, thermal efficiency will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain constant

d)

none of these

71.

Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton cycle

a)

Propulsion system

b)

Automotive Turbine Engines

c)

Aircraft Turbine engines

d)

all of these

72.

It used as working fluid in high-temperature application of vapor cycle?

a)

Helium

b)

Deuterium

c)

Mercury

d)

Water

73.

The superheat vapor enters the turbine and expands isentropically and produces work by the rating shaft. The _________ may drop, during the process.

a)

density

b)

Viscosity of fuel

c)

Temperature and pressure

d)

none of these

74.

Only________ of the turbine work output is required to operate the pump

a)

0.01%

b)

0.02%

c)

0.03%

d)

0.04%

75.

After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the density of air will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains the same

d)

None of these

76.

After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the mach number of air will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains the same

d)

None of these