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Yellow Book - Miscellaneous

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To comply with the requirement of the Mechanical Engineering Law on the minimum complement of mechanical engineers, a mechanical plant with a combine prime movers rating of 373 KW must have in its employ the following:


Note: the plant is operating 3 shifts

a)

1 PME, 1 RME, and 1 CPM

b)

1 RME, 2 CPM

c)

1 PME, 2 RME

d)

1 RME is charge of every shift

2.

Mechanical Plant Engineer (MPE) may be allowed to take the licensure examination for PME if

a)

He has 4 years practice as MPE

b)

If he graduated with a BSME degree and has a 4 years

c)

If he has BSME degree, passed the examinations for RME and has 4 years practice as RME

d)

None of these

3.

The only country that recognizes the mechanical engineering licensure of Filipinos issued by the Professional Regulation Commission and allowed to used the practice as RME

a)

America

b)

Japan

c)

Canada

d)

None of these

4.

The ratio between the average load and total available capacity

a)

Load factor

b)

Power factor

c)

Demand factor

d)

Capacity factor

5.

In Roman Numerals, the doorframe written with letter indicates that the number equivalent to the letter is to be multiplied by

a)

100

b)

1,000

c)

100,000

d)

1,000,000

6.

In Roman Numerals, the bar written above with letter indicates that the number to the letter is to be multiplied by

a)

100

b)

1,000

c)

10,000

d)

100,000

7.

Indicate the false statement about rules of divisibility.

a)

The number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9

b)

The number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by 4 and 3

c)

The number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by the last 2 digits by the last 2 digits is divisible by 3

d)

The number is divisible by 5 if it ends with 5 and 0

8.

The base number if the number system

a)

Index

b)

Radix

c)

Cologarithm

d)

Logarithm

9.

What is another name of octal number system?

a)

Octonary number system

b)

Octenary number system

c)

Octonumber system

d)

Octonumerals

10.

A number system using a plane value or base of 20

a)

Sexagesimal number system

b)

Duodecimal number system

c)

Bidecimal number system

d)

Vigesimal number system

11.

A number system using a place value (or base) of 60

a)

Sexagesimal number system

b)

Septenary number system

c)

Senary number system

d)

Sexadecimal number system

12.

A number system using a place value (or base) of 10

a)

Decimal number system

b)

Denary number system

c)

Denary number system

d)

All of the above

13.

What is the radix of the binary number system?

a)

10

b)

16

c)

8

d)

2

14.

A number system which needs sixteen symbols, the 10 numerals and the letters A,B,C,D,E and F is called

a)

Octal number system

b)

Duodecimal number system

c)

Vegesimal number system

d)

Hexadecimal number system

15.

The term “dozen” and “gross” used what number system?

a)

Decimal number system

b)

Duodecimal number system

c)

Vegesimal number system

d)

Hexadecimal number system

16.

1 gross is equivalent to

a)

10 dozens

b)

144 pieces

c)

5 dozens

d)

100 pieces

17.

The number 1 followed by 100 zeros or 10100 is called

a)

Centillion

b)

Chiliagon

c)

Milliagon

d)

Google

18.

The speed of 10 exponent google or 10google is called

a)

Miligoogle

b)

Centigoogle

c)

Googleplex

d)

Myriad

19.

The speed of light is nearly

a)

3 x 105 km/s

b)

3 x 106 km/s

c)

3 x 104 km/s

d)

30,000,000 m/s

20.

If deka means 101 and kilo means 103, then 102 is

a)

Deci

b)

Tera

c)

Hector

d)

Atto

21.

1 cubic meter is equal to 1 _____.

a)

Span

b)

Section

c)

Scruple

d)

Stere

22.

The number 1 followed by 15 zeros is known as

a)

One billion

b)

One trillion

c)

One quadrillion

d)

One quintillion

23.

100 kilograms is equivalent to 1

a)

Ton

b)

Quintal

c)

Section

d)

Stere

24.

One section is equal to 1 ______.

a)

Square foot

b)

Square meter

c)

Square nautical mile

d)

Square statute mile

25.

One foot is equivalent to how many hands?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

26.

The radius of the Earth’s orbit around the Sun (the average distance between the Sun and Earth) is known as

a)

Lightyear

b)

Astronomical orbit

c)

Astronomical unit

d)

Steradian

27.

The astronomical unit is approximately equal to

a)

100 million km

b)

125 million km

c)

150 million km

d)

175 million km

28.

Absolute zero is

a)

0oC

b)

0oF

c)

0 R

d)

0 K

29.

The gravitational constant G is equivalent to _____N.m2/kg2

a)

6.67 x 10-9

b)

6.67 x 10-10

c)

6.67 x 10-11

d)

6.67 x 10-12

30.

1 BTU is equivalent to how many Joules

a)

1054

b)

1045

c)

1036

d)

1064

31.

The pressure of 1 torr is equivalent to how many Pascals?

a)

100.0

b)

133.3

c)

166.7

d)

200.0

32.

1 horsepower is equivalent to how many Watts?

a)

764

b)

476

c)

674

d)

746

33.

1 electron volt is equivalent to how many Joules?

a)

1.603 x 10-19

b)

1.602 x 10-16

c)

1.602 x 10-14

d)

1.602 x 10-12

34.

Which is not equivalent to 1 atm?

a)

1.013 x 105 Pa

b)

1.013 bar

c)

14.7 psi

d)

1000 kg/cm2

35.

The value of (33)2 is

a)

54

b)

81

c)

243

d)

729

36.

The number of board feet in a plank 3 inches thick, 1 foot wide and 20 foot length is

a)

60

b)

120

c)

360

d)

720

37.

The following type item, which is common to both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is

a)

Interest

b)

Depreciation

c)

Taxes

d)

Supplies

38.

The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose height H is on the median line

a)

2/3 from the vertex

b)

1/3 H from the vertex

c)

2/3 H from the vertex

d)

¾ H from the vertex

39.

The number of the board feet in a plank 2 inches thick, one foot wide and 20 feet long is

a)

400

b)

20

c)

40

d)

Power

40.

The nearest whole number to the value of 2/3 (700)2/3 is:

a)

312

b)

1,243

c)

12,433

d)

54

41.

Ninety degrees is equal to

a)

1,500 radians

b)

3.142 rad

c)

1.57 rad

d)

1,000 rad

42.

The standard acceleration due to gravity, g is equal to:

a)

64.34 ft/sec2

b)

32.2 ft2/sec

c)

980 ft/sec

d)

35.30 km/hr/sec

43.

Point “A” in an irregular shaped rotating body is 10 ft. From an instantaneous axis. At the same time instant a point “B” in the body is to have twice the velocity

a)

5 ft

b)

240 inches

c)

305 cm

d)

6.2 meters

44.

Circular pitch times diametral pitch equals

a)

π\pi

b)

1π\frac{1}{\pi}

c)

1.0

d)

π2\pi^2

45.

A general principle in the motion of a body can be stated as follows (F = force, M = mass, V = velocity, ∆ = change, T = time)

a)

FT = MV

b)

F∆T = MV2

c)

FT = M∆V

d)

F∆V = M∆T

46.

In mechanics, if mass (M), length (L), and time (T) are selected as primary units, force (F) will have the following equations

a)

F = MLT

b)

F = MT2L-1

c)

F = MLT-2

d)

F = ML-1T-2

47.

For a simple beam supported at each end and which is uniformly loaded

a)

The shear at the center of the beam is zero

b)

The moment diagram is a straight line

c)

The shear at the reaction is a minimum

d)

The maximum moment occurs at the reaction

48.

The use of carbon in steel

a)

Increases the hardness

b)

Increases the ductility

c)

Increases the resistance to shock

d)

Decreases the resistance to fatigue

49.

The loss of the weight of the body submerged in a fluid is

a)

Proportional to the depth of submergence

b)

Equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

c)

Independent of the specific gravity of the liquid

d)

Proportional to the weight of the body

50.

The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is

a)

Sunk cost

b)

Salvage value

c)

Fixed cost

d)

Resale value

51.

It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers prevented:

a)

Inventory

b)

Monopoly

c)

Competition

d)

Profitability

52.

Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side of one are equal respectively to two angles and the include side of the other

a)

Theorem

b)

Corollary

c)

Axiom

d)

postulate

53.

The side opposite the right angle of a right triangle

a)

Median

b)

Apothem

c)

Quadrilateral

d)

Hypotenuse

54.

A instrument for measuring specific density of fluids

a)

Hygrometer

b)

Flowmeter

c)

Clinometer

d)

Hydrometer

55.

Output over input

a)

Annuity

b)

Efficiency

c)

Rate of return

d)

Bond

56.

The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude

a)

Corollary

b)

Postulate

c)

Axiom

d)

Theorem

57.

A statement of equality between two ratios:

a)

Theorem

b)

Proportion

c)

Valuation

d)

Power factor

58.

A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within, called the center is

a)

Radius

b)

Circle

c)

Arc

d)

Chord

59.

Which of the following is the definition of the Joule?

a)

A unit of power

b)

A Newton meter

c)

A kg m/s2

d)

A rate of change of energy

60.

What is the equivalent expression for sin2x?

a)

½ sin x cos x

b)

2sin x cos(½ x)

c)

(2sin x ) / sec x

d)

-2 sin x cos x

61.

The series expansion for cos x contains which powers of x?

a)

0, 2, 4, 6, 8,. . .

b)

1, 3, 5, 9,. . .

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5,. . .

d)

½, 3/2, 5/2, 7/2,. . .

62.

All of the following statements about photons are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Photons are small quanta of electromagnetic energy

b)

Energy of photons varies according to E = hf, where h is Planck’s

c)

Photon energy varies with source intensity, i.e. A bright light source emits photons of lighter energy than a dim source

d)

Velocity of photons in vacuum is c, the speed of light, 3 x 1010 cm/sec

63.

A one-candle power light source radiates luminous flux at the rate of

a)

1 lumen

b)

2 lumens

c)

∏ lumens

d)

4∏ lumens

64.

A principal sum P is invested at a nominal interest rate r, compounded m times a year, for n years. The accumulated amount at the end of this period will be

a)

P(1 + r/m)r

b)

P(1 + r/m)n/m

c)

P(1 + r/m)m

d)

None of these

65.

In the formula P = F(1 + i)-n is called the

a)

Sinking fund factor

b)

Single payment present worth factor

c)

Single payment compound amount factor

d)

Capital recovery factor

66.

A fund established to produced a desired amount at the end or a given period by means of series of payments throughout the period is called a sinking fund, and is represented by the formula:

a)

A=F[i(1+i)n−1]A=F\left[\frac{i}{\left(1+i\right)^n-1}\right]

b)

A=P(1+i)−nA=P\left(1+i\right)^{-n}

c)

A=F{[(1+i)n−1][i(1+i)n]}A=F\left\{\frac{\left[\left(1+i\right)^n-1\right]}{\left[i\left(1+i\right)^n\right]}\right\}

d)

A=F[(1+i)ni]A=F\left[\frac{\left(1+i\right)^n}{i}\right]

67.

Which of the following relationships between compound interest factors is NOT correct?

a)

Single payment compound amount factor and single payment present worth factor are reciprocals

b)

Sinking fund factor and uniform series compound amount factor are reciprocals

c)

Capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor are reciprocals

d)

Capital recovery factor equals sinking fund factor plus the interest rate

68.

In determining the average annual cost of a project, the formula 

 [(P−Sn)]+(P−S)(i2)[(n+1)n]+Si\left[\left(\frac{P-S}{n}\right)\right]+\left(P-S\right)\left(\frac{i}{2}\right)\left[\frac{\left(n+1\right)}{n}\right]+Si  

a)

Sinking fund depreciation plus interest on the first cost

b)

Straight line depreciation plus interest on first cost

c)

Straight line depreciation plus average interest

d)

Capital recovery with a return

69.

An “annuity” is defined as

a)

Earned interest due at the end of each interest period

b)

Cost of producing a product or rendering a service

c)

A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time

d)

Total annual overhead assigned to a unit of production

70.

If the sine of angle A is given as K, what would be the tangent of angle A?

a)

aK/h

b)

hK/a

c)

ha/K

d)

oK/a

71.

In finding the distance, d, between two points, which equation is the appropriate one to use?

a)

d=[(x1−x2)2+(y1−y2)2]d=\sqrt{\left[\left(x_1-x_2\right)^2+\left(y_1-y_2\right)^2\right]}

b)

d=[(x12−x22)+(y12−y22)]d=\sqrt{\left[\left(x_1^2-x_2^2\right)+\left(y_1^2-y_2^2\right)\right]}

c)

d=[(x1−y1)2+(x2−y2)2]d=\sqrt{\left[\left(x_1-y_1\right)^2+\left(x_2-y_2\right)^2\right]}

d)

d=[(x2−x1)2+(y2−y1)2]d=\sqrt{\left[\left(x_2-x_1\right)^2+\left(y_2-y_1\right)^2\right]}

72.

The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic expression for which the following choices?

a)

A cosine expansion series

b)

Projectile motion

c)

Projectile energy

d)

A straight line

73.

What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?

a)

Scalar

b)

Resultant

c)

Tensor

d)

Moment

74.

What type of curve is generator by a point which moves in uniform circular motion about an axis, while travelling with a constant speed, v, parallel to the axis?

a)

A cycloid

b)

An epicycloid

c)

A hypocycloid

d)

A helix

75.

All of the following statements about the electron structure of atom are correct, EXCEPT:

a)

Electrons of highest energy are located in the outer orbitals

b)

Each orbital can contain one electron

c)

K, L, M, etc. Shells are designation representing the principal quantum number n = 1, 2, 3, etc.

d)

Each shell may contain up to n2 orbitals, but not exceeding

76.

All of the following are characteristic of waves, EXCEPT:

a)

Energy of wave varies with the square of its amplitude

b)

Interference is interaction of waves. The observed effect is based on the principle of superposition

c)

Wave frequency changes on entering a medium where the velocity of propagation is changed

d)

Diffraction, or bending of a wave, occurs arround the edges of obstacles.

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