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1063 CRJU Study Guide

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Negative blood types can DONATE to what types of blood?

a)

Negative, only

b)

Positive, only

c)

Both Negative and Positive

2.

Proteins produced by the immune system that destroy foreign substances...

a)

antigens

b)

agglutinates

c)

platelets

d)

antibodies

3.

The process between a blood sample and the antiserum that causes the blood to clumping is called

a)

agglutination

b)

non-gluten

c)

coagulation

d)

clotting

4.

This determines whether a person's blood type is positive or negative...

a)

Rh Factor

b)

platelets

c)

D antibodies

d)

plasma

5.

This is the colorless liquid in which the components of blood are suspended...

a)

red blood cells

b)

platelets

c)

plasma

d)

white blood cells

6.

Class or Individual Evidence: Blood Typing

a)

Class

b)

Individual

7.

Class or Individual Evidence: Car Paint Transfer

a)

Class

b)

Individual

8.

Class or Individual Evidence: Fingerprint

a)

Class

b)

Individual

9.

Class or Individual Evidence: Handwriting

a)

Class

b)

Individual

10.

Direct or Circumstantial Evidence: DNA Sample

a)

Direct

b)

Circumstantial

11.

Direct or Circumstantial Evidence: Eyewitness Testimony

a)

Direct

b)

Circumstantial

12.

Direct or Circumstantial Evidence: Fingerprints

a)

Direct

b)

Circumstantial

13.

Direct or Circumstantial Evidence: Video of Crime

a)

Direct

b)

Circumstantial

14.

Physical or Biological Evidence: Soil

a)

Biological

b)

Physical

15.

Physical or Biological Evidence: Synthetic Fibers

a)

Biological

b)

Physical

16.

Physical or Biological Evidence: Wood

a)

Biological

b)

Physical

17.

1st Degree murder?

a)

A form of homicide that includes pre-medication and preplanning.

b)

An abduction related to a domestic or custody dispute.

c)

A visible fingerprint.

d)

A form of homicide where the suspect intended to kill his or her victim but was unsuccessful.

18.

2nd Degree murder?

a)

A form of homicide that includes pre-medication and preplanning.

b)

An abduction related to a domestic or custody dispute.

c)

A visible fingerprint.

d)

A form of homicide where the suspect intended to kill his or her victim but was unsuccessful.

19.

Manslaughter?

a)

The deliberate killing of another person, characterized by either voluntary or involuntary classification.

b)

When a juvenile auto thief steals a car for enjoyment.

c)

A type of willful killing that is reported as justifiable or excusable.

d)

Tiny frequency modulations in the human voice.

20.

A serial murder

a)

A sequence of murders in which there is a time break of two days to several months between murders.

b)

A face to face robbery.

c)

A form of homicide where the suspect intended to kill his or her victim but was unsuccessful.

d)

Numerous acts occurring in a short span of time.

21.

A spree murder

a)

A sequence of murders in which there is a time break of two days to several months between murders.

b)

A face to face robbery.

c)

A form of homicide where the suspect intended to kill his or her victim but was unsuccessful.

d)

Numerous acts occurring in a short span of time.

22.

A mass murder

a)

A sequence of murders in which there is a time break of two days to several months between murders.

b)

The burning of property that does not result in a loss of human life.

c)

A form of homicide where the suspect intended to kill his or her victim but was unsuccessful.

d)

The commission of four or more murders in a single incident within a short span of time.

23.

A crime of passion?

a)

A defendant's excuse for committing a crime due to sudden anger or heartbreak

b)

To protect oneself from harm

c)

A series of group murders

d)

A medical term for murder of infants who are violently shaken

24.

Trace evidence?

a)

A minute or even microscopic fragment of matter such as hair or fiber that is not immediately detectable by the naked eye.

b)

The process of finding ones position on a given plane when two objects meet.

c)

Scientific analysis of blood

d)

Evidence based on statements provided by suspects, witnesses, or victims of a crime.

25.

Physical evidence

a)

Any type of evidence having shape, size, or dimension.

b)

Evidence that is directly experienced. Usually the experience is by sight or hearing, though it may come through any sense, including touch or pain.

c)

A group of objects or persons with characteristic physical evidence common to it.

d)

The available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

26.

Class evidence

a)

Any type of evidence having shape, size, or dimension.

b)

Evidence that is directly experienced. Usually the experience is by sight or hearing, though it may come through any sense, including touch or pain.

c)

Evidence that can be linked to a group of people

d)

The available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

27.

Direct Evidence

a)

Any type of evidence having shape, size, or dimension.

b)

Evidence that is directly experienced. Usually the experience is by sight or hearing, though it may come through any sense, including touch or pain.

c)

Evidence that can be linked to a group of people

d)

The available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

28.

What are the two major methods of fingerprint preservation?

a)

Photographing and Lifting

b)

Touching and Lifting

c)

Heat and Concealing

d)

Graphing and Photographing

29.

What does the acronym “AFIS” stand for?

a)

Automated Fingerprint Identification System

b)

Automated Fingerprint Intensity System

c)

Automated Fingerprint Identification Software

d)

Automated Fingerprint Intensity Software

30.

What are the major patterns of fingerprint?

a)

Arch

b)

Loop

c)

Whirl

d)

Delta

31.

What are the main groups of fingerprints?

a)

Latent

b)

Defined

c)

Plastic

d)

Visible/Dust

32.

What is the role for the crime lab?

a)

A scientific laboratory, using primarily forensic science for the purpose of examining evidence from criminal cases.

b)

Compares cases to cases.

c)

Conducts teachings to others

d)

A place in the police department where evidence is kept.

33.

What is true of photo lineups?

a)

A commonly used investigative technique to identify suspects.

b)

Pictures taken of evidence that will be presented in court.

c)

Pictures of dust prints.

d)

Photographs of alleged victims.

34.

What all is true of photo lineups.

a)

Includes six or more photographs.

b)

Use five or six people.

c)

The photographs are published to the public

d)

Evidence is destroyed.

35.

What is true about the right to counsel at eyewitness identifications?

a)

There is no right no council at photo identification sessions.

b)

There is a right to council at photo Identification sessions.

c)

Right to counsel has nothing to do with this.

d)

None of the above

36.

Does a suspect have a right to counsel at a post-indictment line-up?

a)

Yes

b)

No

37.

What is true about "show-ups" ?

a)

A type of line-up where only one suspect is shown to the victim or witness.

b)

No suggestive statement should be made.

c)

You may use force to get to the truth.

d)

No officers will be present.

38.

Which two standards have been used to govern the admission of scientific evidence?

a)

Relevancy Test

b)

Frye Test

c)

DNA Test

d)

Blood Test

39.

Which type of fingerprint is transferred to an object?

a)

Visible

b)

Latent

c)

Plastic

40.

What is the difference between An interrogation and a Interview?

a)

The interview is a process of judging someone’s ability and accuracy in a non-threatening environment for a specific post or a job. Interrogation is investigation process of obtaining true and accurate information in a situation where an interrogator investigates the situation to obtain true information.

b)

The interview is a process of judging someone’s ability and accuracy in a threatening environment for a specific post or a job. Interrogation is investigation process of interviewing witnesses.

c)

The interview is a process of judging someone’s ability and accuracy in a threatening environment for a specific post or a job. Interrogation is investigation process of interviewing victims.

d)

The interview is a process of judging someone’s ability and accuracy in a non-threatening environment for a specific post or a job. Interrogation is investigation process of interviewing witnesses and/or suspects to get them eligible for no sentence.

41.

How should an Interrogations be handled by a team of four officers.

a)

Only one officer handing the interrogation and everyone else listening in a different room.

b)

Interrogations should be handled by a team of four officers, one who conducts the questioning procedure, and three others who act as witnesses and encourage the suspect to speak.

c)

Officers don't hold interrogations.

d)

They should only be held with 5 or more officers

42.

Do the courts accept polygraph exam as absolute evidence?

a)

Yes, if the court allows it.

b)

No.

43.

Paul Harrington’s confession was ruled inadmissible by a court of law because he had been deprived of food and water for many hours before confessing. Which best describes his treatment?

a)

Abuse

b)

Duress

c)

Murder

d)

Unruly Conduct

44.

What is duress?

a)

Depriving suspects of food, water, or sleep in order to force a confession.

b)

Cheating on spouse.

c)

Definition of illegal conduct.

d)

A form of murder.

45.

Can Officers use Physical and mental stress during police interrogations?

a)

No, If so, it is inadmissible in court.

b)

Yes, It helps to get better info.

46.

Does the Miranda warning apply only to custodial interrogations?

a)

Yes

b)

No

47.

What should the interviewer be doing during the interview?

a)

Take only brief notes during the interview itself, such as names, addresses, and key phrases.

b)

Getting to know the interviewee.

c)

Asking for confessions

48.

When conducting an interview, an officer should rely on which type of questions?

a)

Open-ended questions

b)

Harsh questions

c)

Calm Questions

d)

Direct Questions

49.

Which is true regarding police interviews?

a)

The tone of a police interview should be formal but somewhat relaxed

b)

The most successful interviews are conducted in a special room at the police department

c)

When a husband and a wife are both subjects of the interview, they should be interviewed together

d)

Friendly conversation should be held to a minimum during a police interview or avoided all together

50.

While conducting an interview, officers should listen extensively rather than do all the talking.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

An autoerotic death most likely results from ________.

a)

Murder

b)

Asphyxia

c)

Suicide

d)

Old age

52.

What is the first officer’s principle concern at a crime scene?

a)

Apprehend Suspects.

b)

Secure Exit Points.

c)

Render Aid and determine if anyone is dead.

d)

All of the above.

53.

In which of the stages of decomposition does marbelization occur?

a)

The fresh stage

b)

The butyric fermentation stage

c)

The dry decay stage

d)

The putrefaction stage

54.

What are tiny pinpoint hemorrhages resulting from the discharge of unburned powder being deposited into the skin called?

a)

Wadding

b)

Tattooing

c)

Gunshot residue

d)

Algor mortis

55.

Which aspect of homicide investigations is most prone to error?

a)

Preserving the crime scene

b)

Not Getting injured

c)

Photographing

56.

Which category of death is associated with drowning, falling, automobile wrecks, and drug overdose?

a)

Murder

b)

Manslaughter

c)

Accidental Death

d)

Arson

57.

Which of the following is the earliest indicator of the process of lividity in a deceased person?

a)

A dark purplish color forming on the skin.

b)

A milky substance forming in the eyes.

c)

The rapid fall in body temperature.

d)

The extreme stiffness of the body.

58.

A substance on the surface of red blood cells that can trigger the production of antibodies.

a)

Agglutinates

b)

Antigens

c)

Anemia

d)

Rh Factor

59.

If someone died in a room that was 50F, would their body cool faster than someone who died in a room that was 80F?

a)

Yes, the lower the ambient temperatures the faster the body cools

b)

No, the lower the ambient temperatures the slower the body cools.

c)

The body would cool at the same rate because the temp is similar

d)

Ambient temperatures do not affect how fast someone's body cools.

60.

A medical examiner took the temperature of a decedent at 11am. The temperature read 60.4. How long has the body been dead for?

a)

20

b)

25

c)

30

d)

35

61.

What is the temperature loss for a body that has been deceased for 5.6 hours?

a)

6.63 degrees

b)

7.84 degrees

c)

8.35 degrees

d)

5.60 degrees

62.

The rectal temperature of a body was taken at 2:00 pm and found to be 68F. How many hours ago did they die?

a)

15.5

b)

16.5

c)

20.3

d)

24

63.

The body temperature of a decedent was 92.4 at 12pm. What is approximate time of death?

a)

8am

b)

9am

c)

10am

d)

11am

64.

What is the approximate time of death if the body temperature was 75 oF?

a)

8 hours 20 min

b)

19 hours 15 min

c)

20 hours 17min

d)

21 hours 43 min

65.

Approximately how long has a victim been dead if his body temperature was 85.2 oF?

a)

9 hours 34 min

b)

8 hours 20 min

c)

10 hours 15 min

d)

21 hours 40 min

66.

What is the approximate time of death if the body temperature was 70.6 oF?

a)

8 hours 20 min

b)

19 hours 15 min

c)

20 hours 17min

d)

21 hours 40 min

67.

What Type of Print is this?

a)

Arch

b)

Whorl

c)

Loop

68.

What Type of Print is this?

a)

Arch

b)

Whorl

c)

Loop

69.

What Type of Print is this?

a)

Arch

b)

Whorl

c)

Loop