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immune exam 2 practice Q's

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following types of bonds would be LEAST likely in a receptor-ligand interaction?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

hydrophobic interaction

e)

all of the answers are equally likely

2.

Receptors that are multivalent tend to bind to their ligands more strongly than receptors with a single binding site. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

a)

avidity

b)

valency

c)

affinity

d)

magnetism

e)

none of the answers are correct

3.

Antibodies consist of

a)

two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains

b)

an alpha chain, a beta chain, a gamma chain, and a lambda chain

4.

Which of the following isotypes of antibodies is the largest?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

5.

An antibody's idiotype refers to

a)

the kind of Fc region it contains

b)

the sequence of its CDR

c)

Ii's allelic form

d)

whether it is membrane bound or secreted

e)

which accessory molecules associate with it

6.

CD4 binds to

a)

TCR alpha

b)

TCR beta

c)

MHC class I

d)

MHC class II

e)

CD8

7.

Which of the following types of bonds would be LEAST likely in a receptor-ligand interaction?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

hydrophobic interaction

8.

Which of the provided disassociation constants is MOST likely to be observed from an antibody binding an antigen during an immune response involving memory B cells?

a)

10-3M

b)

10-5M

c)

10-2M

d)

10-10M

9.

Which transcription factor becomes translocated to the nucleus downstream of calmodulin activation?

a)

NF-κ B

b)

NFAT

c)

STAT1

d)

STAT2

e)

STAT3

10.

Immunoglobulin domains consist of

a)

a series of alpha helices bound together by hydrophobic interactions in their side chains

b)

alpha helices alternating with parallel beta pleated sheets

c)

antiparallel beta-pleated sheets folded and stabilized by hydrophobic interactions

d)

compact, parallel beta sheets forming a barrel structure

11.

Receptors that bind the constant regions of antibodies are known as

a)

BCR

b)

TCR

c)

idiotype receptors

d)

toll-like receptors

e)

Fc receptors

12.

CD4 binds to

a)

TCRα

b)

TCRβ

c)

MHC class I

d)

MHC class II

e)

CD8

13.

In the research laboratory, you observe that B cells, cytotoxic T cells and mast cells begin to proliferate when exposed to IL-4. In this case, this effect of IL-4 may be described as

a)

synergy

b)

antagonism

c)

redundancy

d)

pleiotropy

14.

Il-17 family cytokines are typically involved in _________.

a)

inflammation

b)

T cell receptor interaction

c)

B cell receptor interaction

d)

immunosuppression

15.

MHC molecules

a)

are secreted by T cells and bind and neutralize antigen in the serum

b)

are membrane-bound molecules found exclusively on T cells

c)

bind repeating patterns found on pathogens

d)

are recognized by T cells

e)

are conserved between individuals

16.

A mutation in which part of a viral protein might allow the virus to evade the adaptive immune response because of its MHC binding?

a)

A TCR contact residue

b)

A residue in the transmembrane domain of an envelope protein

c)

A residue in the DNA-binding domain

d)

An anchor residue

e)

An amino acid on the surface of the virus

17.

Of the classical MHC genes, which, could you argue, are LEAST related to antigen presentation?

a)

MHC I genes

b)

MHC II genes

c)

MHC III genes

d)

Both MHC I and II genes

e)

none of the answers are correct

18.

Of the cells listed below, predict which is LEAST likely to be presenting antigens by MHC II during an immune response to an extracellular pathogen.

a)

dendritic cell

b)

macrophage

c)

B cells

d)

intestinal epithelial cells

19.

Peptide-binding diversity is increased by

a)

multiple MHC alleles in the population, only

b)

multiple homologous MHC genes in the genome only

c)

both multiple MHC alleles in the population and multiple homologous MHC genes in the genome

d)

none of the answers are correct

20.

The human MHC locus is one of the most polymorphic regions of the genome. What does this mean?

a)

it has the most different genes

b)

there are many different alleles of these genes

c)

sequence variability is low in this region

d)

there are many introns in this region

e)

this region is regulated by many different mechanisms

21.

Which of the following BEST represents the relationship of polypeptide units in MHC class II?

a)

alpha and beta chains from any gene can pair with each other

b)

only alpha and beta chains from the same gene can pair with each other

c)

only alpha and beta chains of the same allele can pair with each other

d)

alpha chains can pair with other alpha chains, but beta chains can only pair with beta chains

22.

Tasmanian devils are a largely inbred population with little diversity in the MHC. Which of the following would be a likely outcome of this?

a)

they would compensate for low diversity in the MHC with high diversity in the TCR

b)

they would compensate for low diversity in the MHC with high diversity in the BCR

c)

they would rely only on innate immune responses

d)

they would be at higher risk of infection

23.

Place the class I processing pathway in the correct order:

a)

proteins are digested by the proteasome> peptides are imported into the ER by TAP> peptides are loaded onto MHC class I> class I is exported to the cell surface

b)

peptides exported from the ER by TAP> peptides are digested by the proteasome> peptides are loaded onto class I> class I is exported to the cell surface

24.

Autografts will be rejected only rarely because of all but which of the following?

a)

they are from the same individual

b)

they are MHC matched

c)

they do not trigger an immune response

d)

they have TH17 cells

25.

Kidney transplant infiltrates show both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells. This suggests that to reduce graft rejection

a)

CD4+ T cells should be depleted

b)

CD8+ T cells should be depleted

c)

Both CD4+ and CD8+ cells should be depleted

d)

inflammatory cells should be depleted

e)

none of the answers are viable treatments

26.

Although MHC matching is important for transplantation, ABO blood group matching is also critical because

a)

ABO antigens are expressed on nervous tissue

b)

ABO antigens are expressed on muscle cells

c)

complement will cause rapid lysis of ABO mismatched cells

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

27.

Allografts can be accepted without use of immunosuppressive drugs if

a)

they lack alloantigens, such as cartilage

b)

cells are grafted to a site that is immunologically privileged

c)

tolerance has been induced previously, such as nonidentical twins

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

28.

Transplantation or organs and tissues is challenging (even between relatives) for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a)

HLA alleles must be completely non overlapping

b)

HLA alleles must be all or nearly matched

c)

ABO blood groups must be matched

d)

Immunosuppression is needed

e)

all of the answers are correct

29.

In transplantation, CsA, rapamycin, and FK506 are all used to

a)

decrease the odds of rejection

b)

inhibit the activation of resting T cells

c)

improve the survival odds for the patient

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

30.

Name that cell. I am a small, nonproliferating cell found within the thymus cortex and contain CD4 and CD8 on my cell surface.

a)

DN thymocyte

b)

DP thymocyte

c)

Thymocyte

d)

DN1 cell

31.

What term BEST describes a selection process against those cells whose T-cell receptors bind too strongly to self-peptide/MHC combinations?

a)

positive selection

b)

negative selection

c)

lineage commitment

d)

hematopoietic commitment to the T cell lineage

e)

none of the above is correct

32.

Which stage of DN selection is characterized by rapid proliferation of thymocytes in the subcapsular cortex of the thymus and suppression of TCR rearrangement?

a)

DN1

b)

DN2

c)

DN3

d)

DN4

33.

Which of the following molecules would double-negative T cells fail to express?

a)

CD3

b)

CD4

c)

MHC class I

d)

TAP

e)

all of the answers are correct

34.

Signaling through the pre-TCR occurs as a result of

a)

binding to MHC class I

b)

binding to MHC class II

c)

binding to either MHC class I or MHC class II

d)

successful assembly of the pre-TCR

e)

expression of CD4

35.

Signaling through the pre-TCR results in

a)

maturation to the DN4 stage

b)

suppression of TCR β-chain rearrangement

c)

cessation of proliferation

d)

TCR α-chain rearrangement

e)

all of the answers are correct

36.

Which of the following represents the earliest stage in T cell development?

a)

DP

b)

DN

c)

SP-CD4

d)

SP-CD8

e)

mature T cell

37.

What happens to auto reactive cells that escape the thymus?

a)

they attack self-tissues

b)

they can be rendered anergic

c)

they negatively regulate other auto reactive cells

d)

they require TCR ligation and co-stimulation to be activated

e)

all of the answers are correct

38.

How do self-antigens that are specific to tissues away from the thymus (like insulin or keratin for example) get in the thymus so that developing T cells that react to them can be deleted?

a)

dendritic cells pick them up in the periphery and carry them to the thymus

b)

specialized macrophages in the thymus filter the bloodstream and present antigens found there to developing T cells

c)

a transcription factor, AIRE, is expressed in thymus medullary epithelial cells, which allows these cells to express proteins normally found in other tissues

d)

they do not get to the thymus, all tissue-specific T cells are deleted in the periphery

e)

there are special chaperone proteins that bind to peripheral proteins and carry them to the thymus

39.

Thymocytes whose TCR preferentially interacts with MHC II generates a continuous signal that initiates which cell type to be generated?

a)

CD8+ T cells

b)

CD4+ T cells

c)

SP thymocytes

d)

DP thymocytes

40.

Which transcription factor is characteristic of TREG cells?

a)

AP-1

b)

NFAT

c)

NF-κ B

d)

OCT-1

e)

FoxP3

41.

Which cell type is found in both B and T cell lineages?

a)

CLP

b)

common pro-B-T cells

c)

immature B cell

d)

naive lymphoid progenitor

e)

pro-B-T cells

42.

This type of cell will leave the bone marrow and complete maturation in the spleen

a)

CLP cell

b)

HSC

c)

immature B cell

d)

Pro-B cell

e)

Pro-T cell

43.

All of the following are true regarding B cell development except

a)

B cells complete maturation in the spleen

b)

B cells are mostly developed when they leave the bone marrow

c)

B cells, like T cells, are MHC class restricted

d)

self-reactive B cells may be eliminated through apoptosis

e)

self-reactive B cells may be rendered unreactive (anergic)

44.

V-DJ recombination occurs during which phase of a B cell's development?

a)

activated B cell

b)

mature B cell

c)

naive B cell

d)

Pro-B cell

e)

immature B cell

45.

Which of the following influence the development of B cells in the bone marrow?

a)

changes in cells surface markers

b)

changes in gene expression

c)

BCR gene rearrangements

d)

all of the answers influence B-cell development

46.

Which molecule is required for a pre-pro-B cell to begin entering the pro-B cell stage?

a)

IL-7

b)

CXCL12

c)

CD117

d)

SCF

47.

Immature B cells in the bone marrow that are found to bear self antigen reactive BCRs undergo which of the following?

a)

Clonal deletion

b)

light chain receptor editing

c)

development of anergy

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

48.

Which molecule listed below appears to play a critical role in trafficking B cells from the bone marrow to the spleen to complete cellular maturation?

a)

SCF

b)

S1P

c)

IL-7

d)

BIM

e)

both SCF and S1P are correct

49.

Individuals of retirement age or older show lower antibody mediated immune responses due to all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a)

increased likelihood of autoimmune disorders

b)

limited HSC production of pro-B cells

c)

poor antibody response to vaccination

d)

reduced memory B cell generation

e)

smaller thymus

50.

The CLP gives rise to all the following cell lines EXCEPT

a)

DC

b)

megakaryocytes

c)

NK

d)

pre-pro B cells

e)

T-cell progenitor

51.

Where can early lymphoid progenitor cells (ELPs) be found in humans?

a)

blood stream

b)

bone marrow

c)

lymphatic tissue

d)

thymus

e)

both bone marrow and lymphatic tissue are correct

52.

At what stage of development does a B cell begin to display an IgM receptor?

a)

pre-pro B cell

b)

pro-B

c)

pre-B cell

d)

immature B cell

53.

Marginal-zone B cells express

a)

IgD

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

both IgM and IgG are correct

54.

Which type of mature B cell is MOST likely to respond to a protein antigen?

a)

B-1 B cells

b)

B-2 B cells

c)

MZ B cells

d)

B-2 B cells and MZ B cells

e)

B-1 B cells, B-2 B cells, and MZ B cells