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Immune exam 3 practice qs

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is required for T cell activation?

a)

antigen-specific TCR binding to MHC peptide

b)

expression of CD4+ or CD8+

c)

interaction with CD80, CD86, or ICOS-L

d)

both antigen-specific TCR binding to MHC peptide and expression of CD4+ or CD8+ are correct

e)

both antigen-specific TCR binding to MHC peptide and interaction with CD80, CD86, and ICOS-L are correct

2.

Naive CD4+ and CD8+ T cells leave the _________ and enter circulation

a)

bone marrow

b)

liver

c)

lymph node

d)

spleen

e)

thymus

3.

CD4+ T cells become helper T cells in response to

a)

exposure to antigen

b)

exposure to MHC class II peptide

c)

exposure to any MHC peptide

d)

exposure to MZ B cells

e)

exposure to TNF-β

4.

CTLA-4 is a costimulatory response on T cells that belongs to the same family as the CD28 costimulatory receptor. However, CTLA-4 is antagonistic to CD28. Which of the following would be a functional advantage of CTLA-4 expression within the immune response?

a)

CTLA-4 competes with CD28 for ligand binding so that, if CD28 binds to its ligand, the response will be magnified.

b)

CTLA-4 is often given to immunosuppressed individuals to trigger an immune response.

c)

CTLA-4 limits the immune response of Tc cells and Th cells after an infection has been cleared

d)

CTLA-4 limits TC activity in healthy individuals during a viral infection.

e)

CTLA-4 reduces the lag time between antigen presentation to a TH cell and B-cell activation.

5.

PD-1 is a negative costimulatory signal expressed by tumor cells. What advantage would the expression of PD-1 have in a tumor cell avoiding the immune response?

a)

tumor cells can avoid being killed by activated Tc cells

b)

Tumor cells can avoid apoptosis triggered by TH cells.

c)

Tumor cells avoid phagocytosis by dendritic cells.

d)

Tumor cells are stimulated to reproduce faster than tumor cells that do not express PD-1.

e)

None. Tumor cells are recognized as self and, therefore, do not pose a health threat.

6.

T cells are frequently at fault for causing damage in autoimmune disorders and in transplant rejection. As an immunologist, your dream is to discover a method for decreasing T-cell response to self antigens. Which of the following would be the BEST target for your research?

a)

activated B cells because they make T-cell receptor molecules

b)

antibody mediated apoptosis of dendritic cells

c)

CTLA-4 antagonists that block the action of CTLA-4

d)

ligands that block the binding of one costimulatory molecule

e)

radiation therapy directed at all T cells

7.

Which type of professional antigen presenting cells is a naive T cell most likely to encounter?

a)

B cell

b)

DC

c)

macrophage

d)

either B cell or DC

e)

either DC or macrophage

8.

Which helper T cell subset is MOST likely to be preferentially generated in response to a virus?

a)

TH17

b)

TH1

c)

Treg

d)

TH2

9.

Which type of T helper cell regulates allergic reactions?

a)

TH1

b)

TH2

c)

TH17

d)

Treg

e)

Tfh

10.

Costimulatory signals are required to achieve optimal T cell activation (via exposure to antigen) and are considered part of which of the three steps essential to this process?

a)

signal 1

b)

signal 2

c)

signal 3

d)

both signal 1 and signal 2

e)

both signal 2 and signal 3

11.

Which cells are capable of providing both signal 1 and signal 2 to a naive T cell?

a)

DC

b)

macrophage

c)

B cells

d)

all of the answers are correct

12.

TH17 cells are involved with all of the following EXCEPT

a)

autoimmunity

b)

delayed-type hypersensitivity

c)

inflammatory response

d)

protection against fungal infections

e)

protection against bacterial infections

13.

Follicular helper T cells are a recent discovery in the helper T cell lineage. What is the primary role of TFH cells?

a)

to help B cell development in germinal centers

b)

to regulate Treg cell activity

c)

to stimulate DC production

d)

to suppress B cell activation after pathogen has been cleared

e)

to suppress Tc cells after an infection has been cleared

14.

What is the function of a memory T cell?

a)

to activate Tc and TH cells during an active primary infection

b)

to avoid autoimmune disorders by producing memory for self antigens during T cell development

c)

to maintain an active T cell response (Tc or Th) after an infection is cleared

d)

to provide an almost immediate response upon subsequent exposure to a specific pathogen

e)

to express Tc activity after a pathogen is cleared

15.

With regard to the type of B cell response generated, protein antigens typically provoke which of the following responses?

a)

TI-1

b)

TI-2

c)

TD

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

16.

The B cell receptor CD21 associates with which host molecule?

a)

C3d

b)

CD19

c)

the BCR

d)

Fc receptors

e)

none of the answers are correct

17.

B cells follow which of the following chemotactic signals to migrate to the follicle regions of secondary lymphoid tissue?

a)

CCL19

b)

CXCL13

c)

CCL21

d)

all of the answers are correct

e)

none of the answers are correct

18.

The first immunoglobulin isotope produced during the course of a primary immune response contains which of the following heavy chains?

a)

γ

b)

κ

c)

δ

d)

μ

19.

Which of the following do you expect would be actively functioning in a B cell that had migrated to a germinal center?

a)

RAG1

b)

Artemis

c)

AID

d)

Ku70

20.

Which of the following mechanisms of mutagenesis via AID activity is possible?

a)

the lesion is not repaired prior to replication, resulting is CG to TA transition

b)

base excision repair, followed by error-prone DNA polymerase fill-in of the gap created

c)

mismatch repair, followed by error prone DNA polymerase fill-in of the gap created

d)

all of the options are possible

21.

SHM and CSR are both dependent on the activity of which of the following enzymes?

a)

AID

b)

RAG-1/2

c)

DNA uridine glycosylase

d)

Both AID and RAG-1/2 are required for SHM and CSR

e)

Both AID and DNA uridine glycosylase are required for SHM and CSR

22.

Which of the following is a way in which follicular B cells can acquire antigen entering a lymph node via an afferent lymphatic?

a)

direct capture of whole antigen that directly enters the follicle by passing between subcapsular sinus macrophages

b)

transfer of complement-bound antigen from surface receptors on subcapsular sinus macrophages

c)

passage of antigen from subcapsular sinus macrophages to follicular dendritic cells to B cells

d)

passage of antigen from DCs that reside near HEVs to B cells

e)

all of the answers are possible

23.

Which of the following does NOT occur shortly following oligomerization of the BCR upon antigen binding?

a)

movement of the BCR complex into areas of the membrane called "lipid rafts"

b)

positioning of Igα and Igβ to allow for phosphorylation of its ITAM motifs

c)

positioning of CD3 to allow for phosphorylation of its ITAM motifs

d)

formation of clathrin-coated pits around BCR complex

e)

all of the answers are correct

24.

Which factors on the surfaces of B cells and T cells, through their interaction, are required to allow germinal center formation to occur?

a)

CD40 and CD40L

b)

Fas anad FasL

c)

CD28 and CD80/86

d)

TCR and MHC class II

25.

Which of the following antigen types could be characterized as T1 antigens?

a)

soluble proteins

b)

bacterial cell wall components

c)

capsular polysaccharides

d)

both bacterial cell wall components and capsular polysaccharides

26.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about B-1 B cells?

a)

they can self-renew in the periphery and do not need to be replenished from primary lymphoid tissues

b)

they have identical lymphocyte receptors to one another

c)

they respond to their antigens via high-affinity receptor responses

d)

all of the answers are true

e)

none of the answers are true

27.

What do SHP-1 and IL-10 have in common with regard to B cell function?

a)

both exert negative regulation of B cell activity

b)

both exert positive regulation of B cell activity

c)

both are B cell survival factors

d)

both induce B cell proliferation

28.

Which of the following is a negative regulator of B cells?

a)

CD21

b)

CD22

c)

CD80

d)

CD86

29.

What is the effector molecule of humoral immunity?

a)

antibodies

b)

cytotoxic T cells

c)

DCs

d)

helper T cells

e)

plasma cells

30.

The role of cell mediated immunity is

a)

to find cells infected with intracellular pathogens

b)

to find and eliminate cells infected with intracellular pathogens

c)

to present antigens to TH cells

d)

to produce memory B cells

e)

to secrete antibodies

31.

Cell-mediated immunity includes

a)

antibodies

b)

plasma cells

c)

Tc cells

d)

both antibodies and Tc cells

e)

both plasma cells and Tc cells

32.

NK T cells express

a)

CD4

b)

CD8

c)

CD12

d)

CD33

e)

both CD4 and CD8

33.

__________ describes the action of antibodies whereby antibodies bind to a pathogen and present the pathogen from interacting with cell receptors

a)

antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

b)

antigen presentation

c)

complement fixation

d)

neutralization

e)

opsonization

34.

Which class of antibodies is the FIRST to be produced during the primary immune response?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

e)

IgM

35.

IgA is typically found as a dimer in high levels of secretions such as milk, tears and saliva. What is the primary function of IgA in secretions?

a)

to alert plasma cells of an invading pathogen

b)

to neutralize toxins and pathogens

36.

Which Fc receptor is responsible for triggering the release of histamine, proteases, and other inflammatory signals from IgE?

a)

Fcα receptor

b)

Fcε receptor

c)

Fcγ receptor

d)

neonatal Fc receptor

37.

The Fas ligand (FasL) represents a key signaling pathway among cell-mediated effector cells. What is the function of the Fas-FasL, signaling pathway?

a)

activation of the Fas-FasL signaling pathway triggers apoptosis

b)

binding of Fas to FasL induces phagocytosis by DCs

38.

CTLs mediate a powerful and lethal immune response to infected host cells. Which of the following steps is NOT involved with CTL activation and function?

a)

antigen presented with MHC clam I is recognized by CTLs

b)

APC presentation occurs to both Tc and TH cells

c)

Fas-FasL signaling pathway is activated, triggering apoptosis

d)

histamine is released from cytoplasmic granules, recruiting macrophages to the site of infection

39.

A new pathogenic bacterium has been discovered- it is an intracellular parasite and can prevent mHC molecules from being properly made in infected cells. Which of the following cell types would be MOST effective at fighting this pathogen?

a)

CTL

b)

NK cell

c)

B cell

d)

DC

e)

basophil

40.

Primary immunodeficiencies affecting T cells tend to be MORE severe than those affecting B cells because

a)

T cells control the innate immune response

b)

T cells regulate antigen presentation

c)

T cells coordinate the adaptive immune response

d)

T cells can trigger apoptosis

41.

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

a)

is a result of the absence of macrophages or B cells

b)

affects only part of the adaptive immune response

c)

can be caused by failure of TAP transporters

d)

can be caused by failure of VDJ recombination