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Worksheets

A&P 1 Review

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many bones make up the phalanges of the hand?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

14

d)

16

2.

How many bones make up the carpal region?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

14

3.

What is the total number of bones that make up the hand and wrist?

a)

21

b)

26

c)

27

d)

32

4.

Which carpal contains a “hooklike” process?

a)

Hamate

b)

Pisiform

c)

Scaphoid

d)

Trapezium

5.

Which carpal articulates with the thumb?

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Trapezium

d)

Trapezoid

6.

Which carpal is most commonly fractured?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Capitate

c)

Trapezium

d)

Triquetrum

7.

Where are the coronoid and radial fossae located?

a)

Anterior aspect of distal humerus

b)

Posterior aspect of distal humerus

c)

Proximal radius and ulna

d)

Distal end of radius

8.

Which two bony landmarks are palpated to assist with positioning of the upper limb?

a)

Radial and ulnar styloid processes

b)

Lateral and medial epicondyle

c)

Pisiform and hamate

d)

Coronoid and olecranon processes

9.

In an erect anatomic position, which one of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal?

a)

Head of radius

b)

Head of ulna

c)

Olecranon process

d)

Radial Tuberosity

10.

Which carpal bone has only one name?

a)

Hamate

b)

Capitate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Scaphoid

11.

Fat pads of the elbow are normally seen on correctly positioned and correctly exposed anteroposterior (AP) elbow projections

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Why should a forearm never be taken as a PA projection?

a)

Too painful for the patient

b)

Causes the distal radius to cross over the ulna

c)

Causes the proximal radius to cross over the ulna

d)

Increases the object-image distance (OID) of the distal radius

13.

In what position should the hand be for an AP elbow projection?

a)

True lateral position

b)

Supinated

c)

Pronated

d)

Rotated 20° from supinated position

14.

In what position should the hand be for an AP medial rotation oblique elbow position?

a)

True lateral position

b)

Supinated

c)

Pronated

d)

Rotated 20° from supinated position

15.

The long axis of the anatomic part being imaged should be placed:

a)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the IR

b)

Parallel to the long axis of the IR

c)

30° angle to the long axis of the IR

d)

Any way that will accommodate multiple images being place on a single film

16.

Arthrography is a radiographic study of:

a)

Medullary aspect of long bones

b)

Fat pads and stripes

c)

Soft tissues structures within certain synovial joints

d)

Epiphyses of long bones

17.

Which wrist projection requires that the IR be inclined toward the elbow at an angle of 20° from horizontal?

a)

PA

b)

PA oblique

c)

PA with ulnar deviation

d)

PA axial (Stecher method)

18.

With reference to the plan of the IR, how should the humeral epicondylar plane be positioned for the lateral projection of the elbow?

a)

Parallel

b)

Perpendicular

c)

45° lateral rotation

d)

45° medial rotation

19.

Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection

c)

AP lateral oblique projection

d)

AP medial oblique projection

20.

Which of the following pathologic indication requires a decrease in manual exposure factors?

a)

Achondroplasia (dwarfism)

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Gout

d)

Joint effusion

21.

Where is the central ray centered for a PA projection of the second digit?

a)

Affected CM joint

b)

Affected MP joint

c)

Affected middle phalanx

d)

Affected PIP joint

22.

Why is it important to keep the long axis of the digit parallel to the film?

a)

To reduce distortion of the phalanges

b)

To preparedly visualize joints

c)

To demonstrate small fractures

d)

All of the above

23.

Where is the central ray placed for a PA projection of the hand?

a)

Middle phalanx of 3rd digit

b)

2nd MP joint

c)

3rd MP joint

d)

3rd PIP

24.

What is the major disadvantage of performing a PA projection of the thumb rather than an AP?

a)

Awkward position for patient

b)

More painful for the patient

c)

Increased OID

d)

Increased in patient dose

25.

Choose the best set of exposure factors for upper limb radiography:

a)

75 kVp, 200 mA, 1/20 second, small focal spot 72-inch SID

b)

75 kVp, 600 mA, 1/60 second, large focal spot, 40-inch SID

c)

64 kVp, 100 mA, 1/10 second, small focal spot, 40-inch SID

d)

64 kVp, 200 mA, 1/20 second, small focal spot, 40-inch SID

26.

A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the mid aspect of the 3rd, 4th, and 5th metacarpals are slightly superimposed. What must be done to correct this positioning problem on the repeat exposure.

a)

Spread fingers out further

b)

Form a tight fist with fingers.

c)

Increase obliquity of hand

d)

Decrease obliquity of hand

27.

A radiograph of an AP elbow projection demonstrates total separation between the proximal radius and ulna. What must be done to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure.

a)

Angle central ray 5° to 10° caudad

b)

Rotate upper limb laterally

c)

Rotate upper limb medially

d)

Fully extend elbow

28.

A radiograph of the carpal canal (inferiorsuperior) projection reveals that the pisiform and hamulus are superimposed. What can be done to correct this problem on the repeat exposure?

a)

Rotate wrist medially 5° to 10°

b)

Rotate wrist laterally 5° to 10°

c)

Extend wrist slightly

d)

Flex wrist slightly

29.

A radiograph of an elbow, AP oblique with medial rotation reveals that the coronoid process is not in profile and the radial head is only partially superimposed over the ulna. What specific positioning error was involved?

a)

Excessive extension of elbow

b)

Excessive flexion of elbow

c)

Excessive medial rotation

d)

Insufficient medial rotation

30.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the elbow reveals that the epicondyles are not superimposed and the trochlear notch is not clearly seen. What must be done to correct this positioning error during the repeat exposure?

a)

Angle central ray 45° away from shoulder

b)

Angle central ray 45° toward shoulder

c)

Place humerus/forearm in same horizontal plane

d)

Extend elbow to form an 80° horizontal plane angle

31.

From the prone position, how many degrees should a hand be rotated for the PA oblique projection of the hand?

a)

15°

b)

25°

c)

35°

d)

45°

32.

Which positioning characteristic best indicates that the humerus is properly positioned for the AP projection of the humerus:

a)

The hand is pronated on the table

b)

The hand is true lateral on the table

c)

The humeral epicondyles are parallel with the IR

d)

The humeral epicondyles are perpendicular to the IR

33.

Which evaluation criterion indicates that the humerus was properly positioned for the lateral projection?

a)

The lesser tubercle is seen in profile

b)

Beam divergence opens the elbow joint

c)

The humeral head and greater tubercle are both seen in profile

d)

Maximum visualization of the epicondyles without rotation is seen

34.

Situation: A patient with a possible Barton’s fracture enters the emergency room. Which positioning routine should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Elbow

b)

Wrist

c)

Hand

d)

Thumb

35.

A patient with a possible Smith’s fracture enters the ED. Which positioning routine should be performed to confirm this diagnosis?

a)

Thumb

b)

Hand

c)

Wrist/forearm

d)

Elbow

36.

Select the term(s) that correctly describes the shoulder joint:

a)

A. Humeroscapular

b)

B. Scapulohumeral

c)

C. Glenohumeral

d)

B and C

37.

Which specific joint is found on the lateral end of the clavicle?

a)

Acromioclavicular

b)

Glenohumeral

c)

Scapulohumeral

d)

Sternoclavicular

38.

Which of the following is not an angle found on the scapula?

a)

Inferior angle

b)

Superior angle

c)

Medial angle

d)

Lateral angle

39.

Which one of the following structures of the scapula extends most anteriorly?

a)

Acromion

b)

Coracoid process

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Scapular spine

40.

The male clavicle is shorter and less curved than the female clavicle.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which bone structure separates the supraspinous and the infraspionous fossae?

a)

Superior border of scapula

b)

Scapular spine

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Acromion

42.

Which on of the following structures is considered to be the most posterior?

a)

Acromion

b)

Coracoid process

c)

Glenoid process

d)

Scapular notch

43.

Even though the amount of radiation exposure is minimal for most shoulder projections, gonadal shielding should be used for children and adults of child-bearing age.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which one of the following pathologic conditions may require a reduction in manual exposure factors?

a)

Bursitis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Rotator cuff tear

d)

Bankart lesion

45.

Which basic projection of the shoulder requires that the humeral epicondyles be parallel to the cassette?

a)

Grashey method

b)

Internal rotation

c)

External rotation

d)

Neutral rotation

46.

Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the shoulder?

a)

Acromion

b)

1 inch inferior to coracoid process

c)

1 inch superior to coracoid process

d)

2 inches inferior to AC joint

47.

Which position of the shoulder and proximal humerus projects the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

a)

External rotation

b)

Neutral rotation

c)

Internal rotation

d)

Exaggerated rotation

48.

For the erect version of the tangential projection for the intertubercular groove, the patient leans forward __________ from vertical.

a)

5° to 7°

b)

10° to 15°

c)

20° to 25°

d)

35° to 45°

49.

With which one of the following projections is a breathing technique preferred?

a)

Garth method

b)

Grashey method

c)

Scapular Y

d)

Transthoracic lateral

50.

A PA axial projection of the clavicle requires a 15° to 30° caudal central ray angle.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A 72-inch SID is recommended for acromioclavicular joint studies.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which projection of the upper limb should be performed to demonstrate a fracture of the proximal humerus when that arm cannot be abducted?

a)

Tangential projection, Fisk

b)

AP projection of the shoulder with internal rotation

c)

AP projection of the shoulder with external rotation

d)

Transthoracic lateral projection

53.

Which projection of the shoulder requires that a horizontal central ray be directed 15 to 30° medially and enter the axilla of the affected arm?

a)

AP projection

b)

PA oblique (scapularY) projection

c)

Inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method)

d)

Transthoracic lateral projection (Lawrence method)

54.

The kV range for adult shoulder projections is between 80 and 90 kV for analog and 100 and 110 kV for digital imaging systems.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In which body position should the patient be placed to demonstrate the left shoulder with the PA oblique projection (scapularY)?

a)

LAO

b)

LPO

c)

RAO

d)

RPO

56.

If the patient’s condition permits, which joint should be demonstrated with the patient in an upright position?

a)

Glenohumeral

b)

Scapulohumeral

c)

Sternoclavicular

d)

Acromioclavicular

57.

When performing the AP projection of the scapula, the central ray should be directed toward a point 2 inches ________ to the coracoid process.

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Inferior

d)

Superior

58.

A radiograph of the Grashey method reveals that the anterior and posterior glenoid rims are not superimposed. The following positioning factors were used: erect position, body rotated 35° toward the affected side, central ray perpendicular to scapulohumeral joint space, and affected arm slightly abducted in neutral rotation. Which one of the following modifications will superimpose the glenoid rims during the repeat exposure?

a)

Rotate body less toward affected side

b)

Rotate body more toward affected side

c)

Angle central ray 10° to 15° caudad

d)

Place affected arm in external rotation position

59.

A patient with a possible shoulder dislocation enters the ED. A neutral, AP projection of the shoulder has been taken, confirming a dislocation. Which additional projection should be taken?

a)

Garth method

b)

Grashey method

c)

Inferosuperior axial projection – Lawrence method

d)

AP, external rotation

60.

A radiograph of an AP axial clavicle is projected in the lung field below the top of the shoulder. The following factors were used: erect position, central ray angled 15° cephalad, 40-inch SID, and respiration suspended at the end of expiration. Which one of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure?

a)

Increase central ray angulation

b)

Reverse central ray angulation

c)

Decrease central ray angulation

d)

Use 72-inch SID

61.

A patient with a possible acromioclavicular separation enters the ED. Which one of the following routines should be used?

a)

AP internal and external projections

b)

AP neutral and transthoracic lateral projections

c)

AP neutral projection and Garth method

d)

Acromioclavicular joint series: non-weight-bearing projections

62.

Which of the following is not an aspect of the metatarsal?

a)

Head

b)

Tail

c)

Body

d)

Base

63.

The distal portion of the 5th metatarsal is a common fracture site.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot most commonly located?

a)

Plantar surface near cuboid bone

b)

Plantar surface near head of 1st metatarsal

c)

Plantar surface at 1st tarsometatarsal joint

d)

Dorsum aspect near base of 1st metatarsal

65.

What is the name of the tarsal bone found on the medial side of the foot between the talus and 3 cuneiforms?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Navicular

d)

Lateral malleolus

66.

Which tarsal bone is considered to be the smallest?

a)

Lateral cuneiform

b)

Intermediate cuneiform

c)

Medial cuneiform

d)

Navicular

67.

What is another term for the talocalcaneal joint?

a)

Mortise joint

b)

Subtalar joint

c)

Tibiocalcaneal joint

d)

Tarsometatarsal joint

68.

The distal tibial joint surface is called the:

a)

Tibial plafond

b)

Anterior tubercle

c)

Medial malleolus

d)

Lateral malleolus

69.

The mortise of the ankle should be totally open and visible on a correctly positioned anteroposterior (AP) projection of the ankle.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the correct centering of the central ray for an AP projection of the toes?

a)

Head of affected metatarsal

b)

Affected MTP joint

c)

Affected DIP joint

d)

Affected PIP joint

71.

Which type of central ray angle is required for an AP projection of the toes?

a)

0 to 5°

b)

5°

c)

10° to 15° posterior

d)

20° to 25° posterior

72.

Which of the following projections is used for the sesamoid bones of the foot?

a)

AP mortise

b)

Tangential

c)

Camp-Coventry

d)

AP and lateral weight bearing

73.

How much foot rotation is required for the AP oblique, medial rotation projection of the foot?

a)

3° to 5°

b)

15° to 20°

c)

30° to 40°

d)

45°

74.

What is another name for the AP projection of the foot?

a)

Plantodorsal projection

b)

Dorsoplantar projection

c)

Mortise projection

d)

Weight-bearing study

75.

Which central ray angle and direction are generally required for the AP projection of the foot?

a)

10° anterior

b)

10° posterior

c)

15° posterior

d)

Central ray is perpendicular

76.

Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the cuboid?

a)

AP oblique – medial rotation

b)

AP oblique – lateral rotation

c)

Lateromedial

d)

AP

77.

What is another term or the intercondyloid eminence?

a)

Intercondylar fossa

b)

Tibial spine

c)

Tibial plateaus

d)

Tibial tuberosity

78.

What is the name of the deep depression found on the posterior aspect of the distal femur?

a)

Intercondylar sulcus

b)

Intercondylar fossa

c)

Articular facets

d)

Patellar surface

79.

A line drawn across the most distal aspect of the medial and lateral femoral condyles would be _____ from being at a right angle, or 90°, to the long axis of the femur.

a)

0°

b)

3° to 5°

c)

5° to 7°

d)

10° to 20°

80.

The angle referred to in question 79 would be less on a tall, slender person.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The upper, or superior, portion of the patella is called the:

a)

Patellar head

b)

Apex

c)

Base

d)

Styloid process

82.

Which two ligaments of the knee joint help stabilize the knee from the anterior and posterior perspective?

a)

Cruciate

b)

Collaterals

c)

Quadriceps femoris

d)

Patellar

83.

Which structures serve as shock absorbers within the knee joint?

a)

Infrapatellar and suprapatellar bursae

b)

Infrapatellar fat pads

c)

Articular facets

d)

Menisci

84.

Which of the following conditions may cause the tibial tuberosity to be pulled away from the tibial shaft?

a)

Gout

b)

Reiter’s syndrome

c)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

d)

Osteomalacia

85.

Where is the central ray placed for a plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus?

a)

Sustentaculum tali

b)

Base of third metatarsal

c)

Calcaneal tuberosity

d)

1 inch inferior to medial malleolus

86.

Which ankle projection is best for demonstrating the mortise of the ankle?

a)

Mediolateral

b)

AP

c)

AP oblique - 15° to 20° medial rotation

d)

AP oblique - 15° to 20° lateral rotation

87.

Which imaginary plane should be placed parallel to the IR for an AP projection of the knee?

a)

Interepicondylar

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Midcoronal

d)

Intermalleolar

88.

Which joint space should be open or almost open for a well-positioned AP oblique knee projection with medial rotation?

a)

Patellofemoral

b)

Both sides of knee joint

c)

Proximal tibiofibular

d)

Distal tibiofibular

89.

A 5° to 7°cephalad angle of the central ray for a lateral projection of the knee helps superimpose the distal borders of the medial and lateral condyles of the femur.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Why is a PA projection of the patella preferred to an AP projection?

a)

Less magnification of patella

b)

Less distortion of patella

c)

Less object-image distance (OID)

d)

All of the above

91.

A projection is performed for the patellofemoral joint with the patient supine and the knee flexed 40°. The central ray is angled 30° caudad from horizontal. The cassette is resting on the lower legs supported by a special cassette-holding device. Which one of the following methods has been described?

a)

Merchant

b)

Camp-Coventry

c)

Settegast

d)

Hughston

92.

What is the major disadvantage of the Settegast method?

a)

Requires AP positioning

b)

Requires overflexion of knee

c)

Requires the use of a long OID

d)

Requires use of specialized equipment

93.

A radiograph of an AP knee reveals that the joint spaces are not equally open and the proximal fibula is superimposed over the tibia. Which specific positioning error lead to this radiographic outcome?

a)

Lateral rotation of lower limb

b)

Over angulation of central ray

c)

Medial rotation of lower limb

d)

Under angulation of central ray

94.

Where should the central ray be directed for the AP oblique projections of the foot?

a)

To the base of the 3rd metatarsal

b)

To the head of the 3rd metatarsal

c)

To the metatarsophalangeal joint of the 3rd digit

d)

To the proximal interphalangeal joint of the 3rd digit

95.

Where should the central ray be directed for the lateral projection of the calcaneus?

a)

Toward the midpoint of the foot

b)

Toward the midpoint of the calcaneus

c)

Toward the base of the 3rd metatarsal

d)

Toward the head of the 3rd metatarsal

96.

For the lateral projection of the knee, how many degrees should the knee be flexed?

a)

10 to 20°

b)

20 to 30°

c)

30 to 40°

d)

40 to 50°

97.

How many degrees and in what direction should the central ray be directed for the lateral projection of the knee?

a)

Perpendicular

b)

5 to 7° caudad

c)

5 to 7° cephalad

d)

10° cephalad

98.

Which positioning factor determines the number of degrees the central ray should be angled for the tangential projection (Settegast method) to demonstrate the patella?

a)

Part thickness

b)

Degree of knee flexion

c)

Object-to-image distance

d)

Source-to-image distance

99.

How should the central ray be directed for the AP projection of the femur?

a)

Perpendicularly

b)

Caudally 3 to 5°

c)

Cephalically 3 to 5°

d)

Cephalically 15°

100.

For which lower limb projection should the lower limb be rotated medially 10 to 15°?

a)

AP projection of the femur

b)

Lateral projection of the femur

c)

AP medial oblique projection of the foot

d)

AP medial oblique projection of the knee

101.

A radiograph of the Camp-Coventry method was produced, but the intercondylar fossa is not open and is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: prone position, lower leg flexed 45°, and central ray angles 30°caudad and centered to the popliteal crease. Which of the following factors should be changed during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?

a)

Decrease lower leg flexion to 30°

b)

Increase CR angle to 45°

c)

Increase flexion of lower limb to 50° to 60°

d)

Rotate lower limb 5° internally

102.

A radiograph of a plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus reveals that the calcaneus is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: supine position, foot dorsiflexed perpendicular to image receptor, and central ray angled 30° cephalad and centered to base of 3rd metatarsal. Which of the following factors should be changed during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?

a)

Reduce dorsiflexion of foot

b)

Increase central ray angulation to 40°

c)

Center central ray to sustentaculum tali

d)

Reverse direction of central ray angulation

103.

A patient with a possible fracture of the middle and distal femur enters the emergency room. The patient cannot be turned from the supine position. The physician orders a portable study because the patient is in a splint and in great pain. What specific positioning routine would be used with this patient?

a)

AP positioning only

b)

AP and horizontal beam lateral position

c)

AP and lateral recumbent femur

d)

Lateral position only

104.

If a radiograph were made of an average-size knee using automatic exposure control (AEC) and all three photocells were selected, the resulting radiograph would demonstrate:

a)

Excessive density

b)

Insufficient density

c)

Poor detail

d)

Adequate exposure

105.

Which bones form the pelvis?

a)

Two hip bones only

b)

Two hip bones and sacrum only

c)

Two hip bones, sacrum and coccyx only

d)

Two hip bones, sacrum, coccyx and femurs

106.

Which three names refer to the major bone that makes up the right or left half of the pelvis?

a)

Ilium, hip bone, and ischium

b)

Ilium, pubis, and innominate

c)

Os coxae, pubis, and ischium

d)

Os coxae, hip bone, and innominate

107.

Which bones of the pelvis compose the acetabulum?

a)

Ilium and pubis only

b)

Ilium and ischium only

c)

Pubis and ischium only

d)

Pubis, ischium, and ilium

108.

Which parts of the hip bones support the weight of the body when a person is in the seated position?

a)

Ischial spines

b)

Ischial tuberosities

c)

Inferior rami of the pubes

d)

Posterior inferior iliac spines

109.

Where on the midline of the patient should the central ray enter for the AP projection of the pelvis?

a)

2 inches above the iliac crest

b)

2 inches above the pubic symphysis

c)

At the level of the ASIS

d)

2 inches above the level of the ASIS

110.

Which positioning maneuver should be performed to place the femoral necks parallel with the IR for an AP projection of the pelvis?

a)

Rotate the lower limbs laterally 15 to 20°

b)

Rotate the lower limbs medially 15 to 20°

c)

Flex the hips 15 to 20° and extend the lower limbs

d)

Flex the hips and abduct the femurs laterally 15 to 20°

111.

How should the central ray be directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves method) to demonstrate bilateral hips?

a)

Perpendicularly

b)

Cephalically 20°

c)

Cephalically 40°

d)

Parallel with the long axis of the femurs

112.

Where on the midline of the patient should the central ray be directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleave method)?

a)

To the level of the iliac crests

b)

1 inch above the symphysis pubis

c)

To the level of the ASIS

d)

2 inches below the ASIS

113.

For which projection of an individual hip should the unaffected hip be flexed and the thigh be raised out of the way of the central ray?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection (Lauenstein method)

c)

AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves method)

d)

Axiolateral projection (Danelius-Miller)

114.

For which projection of the hip should the central ray be directed horizontally into the medial aspect of the affected thigh?

a)

AP projection

b)

Lateral projection (Lauenstein method)

c)

AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves method)

d)

Axiolateral projection (Danelius-Miller)

115.

Innominate bone is another name for:

a)

Ossa coxae

b)

Hip bone

c)

One half of the pelvic girdle

d)

All of the above

116.

Which one of the following structures is considered to be the most posterior?

a)

ASIS

b)

Symphysis pubis

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Ischial spine

117.

A geriatric patient with an externally rotated lower limb may have:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Fractured proximal femur

c)

Slipped capital femoral epiphyses (SCFE)

d)

A normal hip joint

118.

Which one of the following radiographic signs indicates whether the proximal femurs are in position for a true AP projection?

a)

Limited view of fovea capitis

b)

Limited view of lesser trochanter in profile

c)

Symmetric appearance of iliac wings

d)

Limited view of the greater trochanter in profile

119.

Which one of the following projections/methods is often used to evaluate a pediatric patient for congenital hip dislocation?

a)

Judet

b)

Taylor method

c)

Bilateral frog-leg

d)

Clements- Nakayama

120.

Which one of the following projections is used to evaluate the pelvic inlet for possible fracture?

a)

AP axial projection

b)

Taylor method

c)

Clements-Nakayama

d)

Danelius-Miller

121.

Which type of pathology is best demonstrated with the posterior oblique (Judet method)?

a)

Anterior pelvic bone fractures

b)

Proximal femur fractures

c)

Femoral neck fractures

d)

Acetabular fractures

122.

What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial oblique (Teufel method) for acetabulum?

a)

12° cephalad

b)

15° cephalad

c)

20° caudad

d)

25° cephalad

123.

What is the optimal amount of hip abduction applied for the unilateral “frog-leg” projection to demonstrate the femoral neck without distortion?

a)

10° from vertical

b)

20 to 30° from vertical

c)

45° from vertical

d)

90° from vertical

124.

Which one of the following types of body habitus may cause the costophrenic angles to be cut off if careful vertical collimation is not used?

a)

Hypersthenic

b)

Hyposthenic

c)

Sthenic

d)

Hyposthenic and asthenic

125.

Optimal technical factor selection ensures proper penetration of the:

a)

Heart

b)

Great vessels

c)

Lung regions

d)

Hilar region

e)

All of the above

126.

What is a common radiographic sign seen on a chest radiograph for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

a)

Enlargement of heart

b)

Fluid in apices

c)

Elevated diaphragms

d)

Air bronchogram

127.

Why are the shoulders rolled forward for a PA projection of the chest?

a)

To remove scapulae from lung fields

b)

To prevent hyperemia of pulmonary vessels

c)

To allow the diaphragm to move down farther

d)

To reduce chest rotation

128.

Where is the central ray placed for an AP supine projection of the chest?

a)

1 to 2 inches below jugular notch

b)

3 to 4 inches below jugular notch

c)

3 to 4 inches below thyroid cartilage

d)

7 to 8 inches below vertebra prominens

129.

A condition in which all or a portion of the lung is collapsed is:

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumoconiosis

d)

Atelectasis

130.

Which one of the following terms is defined as “shortness of breath”?

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Pleurisy

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Atelectasis

131.

Manual exposure factors for a patient with a large pneumothorax should:

a)

Remain the same

b)

Be reduced

c)

Be increased

d)

Change from manual technique to AEC

132.

Identify the best kV level for adult chest radiography form the following choices:

a)

85 kV, 40” SID

b)

110 kV, 40” SID

c)

120 kV, 60” SID

d)

125 kV, 72” SID

133.

An ambulatory patient with a clinical history of advanced emphysema enters the emergency room. The patient is having difficulty breathing and is receiving oxygen. The physician has ordered a PA and lateral chest study. Should the technologist alter the typical exposure factors for this patients?

a)

No. Increase the SID instead of changing the exposure factors

b)

No. Use the standard exposure factors

c)

Yes. Increase the exposure factors

d)

Yes. Decrease the exposure factors

134.

A patients enters the ED with an injury to the chest. The ED physician suspects a pleural effusion in the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position or projection can be performed to confirm the presence of the pleural effusion?

a)

Left lateral decubitus

b)

Inspiration and expiration PA

c)

Right lateral decubitus

d)

AP lordotic

135.

Which of the following technical considerations is essential when performing abdomen studies on young pediatric patient?

a)

High-speed image receptor

b)

Reduced kV and mAs

c)

Short exposure time

d)

All of the above

136.

Which one of the following exposure considerations would be most ideal for an AP abdomen of an average-size adult?

a)

60 – 70 kV, grid, 40” SID

b)

75 – 85 kV, grid, 40” SID

c)

85 – 95 kV, grid, 40” SID

d)

110 – 120 kV, grid 40” SID

137.

The xiphoid process corresponds with which vertebral level?

a)

T4-5

b)

T9-10

c)

L2-3

d)

L4-5

138.

To identify the inferior margin of the abdomen, the technologist can palpate the symphysis pubis or:

a)

ASIS

b)

Iliac crest

c)

Greater trochanter

d)

Ischial tuberosity

139.

An important landmark that is commonly used to locate the center of the abdomen is the:

a)

Iliac crest

b)

Greater trochanter

c)

ASIS

d)

Ischial tuberosity

140.

The telescoping of a section of bowel into another loop is called:

a)

Ascites

b)

Volvulus

c)

Intussusception

d)

Ulcerative colitis

141.

If the PA chest projection is not performed for the acute abdomen series, centering for the erect abdomen projection must include the:

a)

Entire kidneys

b)

Inferior liver margin

c)

Bladder

d)

Diaphragm

142.

Which specific decubitus position of the abdomen should be used in an acute abdomen series if the patient cannot stand?

a)

Right lateral decubitus

b)

Left lateral decubitus

c)

Ventral decubitus

d)

Dorsal decubitus

143.

A radiograph of an AP projection of the abdomen reveals that the right iliac wing is wider than the left. What type of positioning error was involved?

a)

Rotation toward the right

b)

Rotation toward the left

c)

Tilt to the right

d)

Tilt to the left

144.

A patient comes into the ED with a history of Crohn’s disease. An acute abdomen series is ordered on this patient. Which of the following is the reason for this order?

a)

Verify diagnosis

b)

Verify current infection

c)

Identify current inflammation

d)

Identify location of gallstones

145.

A KUB on a large hypersthenic patient reveals that the entire abdomen is not included on the 14 x 17 IR. What can be done to correct this on the repeat radiograph?

a)

Expose during inspiration

b)

Use two IRs placed lengthwise

c)

Use two IRs placed crosswise

d)

Perform KUV with patient in the erect position

146.

Within the imaging room, which of the following can reduce patient anxiety and the need for immobilization?

1. Provide age-appropriate videos

2. Perform the procedure in a room with a good view

3. Align the imaging equipment before bringing the patient in the room

a)

1 & 2

b)

1 & 3

c)

2 & 3

d)

1, 2, & 3

147.

Which of the following is one of the most dangerous causes of acute upper airway obstruction in children and is treated as an emergency?

a)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

Omphalocele

c)

Epiglottitis

d)

Hypothermia

148.

Which type of fracture occurs through the epiphysis?

a)

Bucket-handle fractures

b)

Greenstick fractures

c)

Salter-Harris fractures

d)

Torus or buckle fractures

149.

Which of the following is the most reliable method of detecting inspiration on chest radiography for patients from birth to age 3?

a)

Watching the abdomen

b)

Waiting for the end of a cry

c)

Watching the rise and fall of the sternum

d)

Cry at the control panel because you have to xray a 3 year old

150.

A child comes to radiology with a clinical history of talipes equinovarus. Which of the following positioning routines and/or methods is often performed for this condition?

a)

Coyle method Erect

b)

AP knee projection

c)

AP and lateral hip

d)

AP and lateral foot – Kite method

151.

If child abuse is suspected by the technologist, he or she should

a)

Ask he parent when the abuse occurred

b)

Report the abuse immediately to the necessary state officials as required by law

c)

Refuse to do the exam or touch the child until a physician has examined the patient

d)

Do none of the above

152.

One of the ways to obtain a pediatric patient’s cooperation is to:

a)

Make sure you explain everything to the parents

b)

Talk to the child at their eye level

c)

Talk to the child in “baby talk”

d)

Give the child plenty of options to choose from

153.

In communicating with the adolescent patient, it is important to assess their:

a)

Maturity level

b)

Intelligence level

c)

Sensitivity level

d)

Level of independence

154.

All of the following provide optimum radiation protection during surgical procedures for

the radiographer, except:

a)

Standing a minimum of 6 feet from the x-ray source

b)

Standing at a right angle to the patient

c)

Standing at a right angle to the primary beam

d)

Placing the tube side of the C-arm above the patient

155.

In what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography?

a)

Sim’s

b)

Trendelenburg position

c)

Fowler’s position

d)

Modified lithotomy positon

156.

Which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial and humeral shaft fractures?

a)

Cerclage wire

b)

Ilizarov device

c)

Intermedullary nail

d)

Compression screw

157.

Which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning?

a)

Ilizarov device

b)

Kirschner wire

c)

Semitubular plate

d)

Cannulated screw assembly

158.

Which one of the following procedures does not require the use of mobile fluoroscopy?

a)

Hip pinning

b)

Intramedullary rod insertion

c)

Open reduction of tibia

d)

All of the above require fluoroscopic guidance

159.

Which spinal procedure may require the use of Harrington or Luque rods?

a)

Microdisectomy

b)

Spinal fusion

c)

Scoliosis corrective surgery

d)

All of the above

160.

Which one of the following techniques will best reduce dose to the surgical team during a C-arm procedure?

a)

Place tube in vertical position above patient

b)

Use boost functions whenever possible

c)

Lower kV as low as possible

d)

Use intermittent fluoroscopy