Free Printable Fall Final Review

1.

1. Specialized cells in the human body are uniquely different in their function, but they have a common make up. Immature bone cells, or osteoblasts, manufacture a protein called osteoid as well as several hormones. Because of this, we would expect osteoblasts to contain numerous –

a)

Nuclei

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Vacuoles

2.

1. A cell has a defect that results in the loss of its ability to regulate the movement of water, food, and wastes into and out of the cell. In which of the following cell structures is this defect most likely to be located?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

3.

1. The cell membrane is selectively permeable. Depending on its electric charge, shape, and chemical properties, a substance may or may not be allowed to pass through the cell membrane. This function of the cell membrane is important because it –

a)

prevents cell division.

b)

prevents destruction of the cell.

c)

allows the cell to maintain homeostasis.

d)

allows genetic information to move around the cell

4.

Resistance to antibiotics results from variations in the genetic code of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which type of molecule transmits genetic information for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Fatty Acid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

5.

Cells often store materials like water, salts, proteins, and carbohydrates in sac-like structures called:

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Mitochondria

6.

In pure water, a red blood cell from an animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell from a plant will not. Which structure in the leaf cell is responsible for this difference?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Nucleus

7.

Spartina, a cord grass, grows in salt marshes and stores salt in its roots. This makes the salt concentration in its roots greater than that of the surrounding water. What most likely occurs in response to this salt concentration in the roots?

a)

Salt moves into the roots.

b)

Water moves into the roots.

c)

Nutrients move out of the leaves.

d)

Water moves out of the leaves.

8.

There are many different enzymes located in the cytoplasm of a single cell. How is a specific enzyme able to catalyze a specific reaction?

a)

Different enzymes are synthesized in specific areas of the cytoplasm.

b)

Most enzymes can catalyze many different reactions.

c)

An enzyme binds to a specific substrate (reactant) for the reaction catalyzed

d)

Enzymes are transported to specific substrates (reactants) by ribosomes.

9.

What is the function of a catalyst?

a)

speed up a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy

b)

slow down a chemical reaction by raising the temperature of a cell

c)

store ATP allowing energy to be used for the chemical reaction

d)

assembling materials for the chemical reaction

10.

Which of the following is the main reason that humans need to include carbohydrates in their diet?

a)

Carbohydrates are broken down in cells for energy.

b)

Carbohydrates combine to form many different proteins.

c)

Carbohydrates act as catalysts to speed up chemical reactions.

d)

Carbohydrates are the building blocks for cell growth and repair.

11.

Many plants have waxy coatings on some surfaces. This coating reduces water loss because it is not water-permeable. This waxy coating is which of the following types of organic molecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

12.

Which macromolecule’s functions include fighting diseases, repairing tissues, building muscles, and transporting materials?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

13.

What is the term for the diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane?

a)

isotonic

b)

phagocytosis

c)

equilibrium

d)

osmosis

14.

What can be concluded about the enzyme?

a)

The enzyme works best at a pH of 8 and a temperature of 25^oC.

b)

The enzyme increases its activity at a pH of 6 and a temperature of 30^oC.

c)

The enzyme is used up at a pH of 11 and a temperature of 35^oC.

d)

The enzyme activity decreases at a pH of 9 and a temperature of 20^oC.

15.

Which two transport mechanisms are considered to be passive?

a)

diffusion and osmosis

b)

diffusion and exocytosis

c)

endocytosis and osmosis

d)

exocytosis and endocytosis

16.

Which chemical equation best represents the chemical reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

6CO2+6O2+sunlight\rightarrow C6H12O6+6O2

b)

$6CO2+C6H12O6\rightarrow6H2O+6CO2+sunlight$

c)

$6CO2+6H2O+sunlight\rightarrow C6H12O6+6O2$

d)

$C6H12O6+6H2O\rightarrow C6H12O6+6O2$

17.

Which of the following types of organisms uses cellular respiration for their cellular energy needs?

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Plants only

c)

Animals only

d)

Prokaryotes

18.

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis,

a)

CO2 enters the Calvin Cycle and sugars are made.

b)

H2O is broken down and oxygen is released.

c)

NADPH is produced.

d)

Electrons are energized and used to pump H- ions.

19.

Which choice finishes the formula for cellular respiration? C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ = ?

a)

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6H₂O + ATP

b)

6O₂ + 6H₂O + ATP

c)

6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ATP

d)

6CO₂ + 6O₂ +ATP

20.

When ATP is converted into ADP, energy is:

a)

Required

b)

Borrowed

c)

Released

d)

Processed

21.

Genetic information usually flows in one specific direction. Which of the following best represents this flow?

a)

$DNA\rightarrow\Pr otein\rightarrow RNA$

b)

$\Pr otein\rightarrow RNA\rightarrow DNA$

c)

$RNA\rightarrow\Pr otein\rightarrow DNA$

d)

$DNA\rightarrow RNA\rightarrow\Pr otein$

22.

DNA contains the code for constructing which molecules?

a)

proteins

b)

fats

c)

starches

d)

sugars

23.

In DNA molecules, which of the following bases is complementary to Adenine?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Uracil

d)

Thymine

24.

The process that makes an exact copy of a cell’s DNA is called

a)

conservation.

b)

preservation.

c)

replication.

d)

synthesis.

25.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with the ones shown in the partial strand below?

ATG TGA CAG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

GTA AGT GAC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

26.

Which of the following describes a nucleotide found in

DNA?

a)

Ribose + phosphate group + guanine

b)

Ribose + phosphate group + uracil

c)

Deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil

d)

Deoxyribose + phosphate group + thymine

27.

What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence on mRNA that codes for an amino acid?

a)

base

b)

codon

c)

anticodon

d)

DNA

28.

Which of the following best describes a difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Mitosis produces body cells through 2 total divisions and meiosis produces sex cells through 1 total division.

b)

Mitosis produces body cells through 1 total division and meiosis produces sex cells through 2 total divisions.

c)

Meiosis produces body cells through 2 total divisions and mitosis produces sex cells through 1 total division.

d)

Meiosis produces body cells through 1 total division and mitosis produces sex cells through 2 total divisions.

29.

Which best describes meiosis?

a)

The production of 2 genetically identical haploid gametes from 1 parent cell

b)

The production of 4 genetically identical haploid gametes from 1 parent cell

c)

The production of 2 genetically different haploid gametes from 1 parent cell

d)

The production of 4 genetically different haploid gametes from 1 parent cell

30.

Which of the following is the organelle where transcription takes place?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplast

d)

mitochondria

31.

A strand of DNA has the bases TTA GCC ATC. What would the resulting strand of bases from transcription be?

a)

AAT CGG TAG

b)

AAU CGG UAG

c)

UUT CGG TUG

d)

UUA GCC AUC

32.

The main function of tRNA is to

a)

carry a message, that when translated, forms proteins.

b)

string together complementary RNA and DNA strands.

c)

form a portion of ribosomes, a cell’s protein factory.

d)

bring amino acids to the ribosomes.

33.

Which of the following is the site of translation?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplast

d)

mitochondria

34.

Which best describes the process of translation?

a)

Sequences of 3 RNA nucleotides make up codons which code for amino acids that make up proteins.

b)

Sequences of 3 DNA nucleotides make up codons which code for amino acids that make up proteins.

c)

Sequences of 4 RNA nucleotides make up codons which code for amino acids that make up proteins.

d)

Sequences of 4 DNA nucleotides make up codons which code for amino acids that make up proteins.

35.

Which amino acid sequence will be produced by the translation of the mRNA sequence AUG UCU ACC?

a)

Asn – Pro – Thr

b)

Met – Ser – Thr

c)

Thr – Pro – Asn

d)

Met – Ser – Tyr

36.

A strand of DNA containing the sequence AAG TCA GCC could code for which of the following amino acid sequences?

a)

lysine – arginine – glutamine

b)

phenylalanine – serine – arginine

c)

lysine – serine – alanine

d)

glutamic acid – threonine – proline

37.

Which of the following best describes a mutation?

a)

A change in DNA coding, caused by radiation or chemicals which changes glucose sequence of a protein.

b)

A change in RNA coding, caused by radiation or chemicals which changes glucose sequence of a sugar.

c)

A change in DNA coding, caused by radiation or chemicals which changes amino acid sequence of a protein.

d)

A change in RNA coding, caused by radiation or chemicals which changes amino acid sequence of a sugar.

38.

Which of the following best illustrates a point mutation of the DNA strand below?

ACCTGAAGG

a)

ACCTGATAGG

b)

ACTGAAGG

c)

ACCTGAACG

d)

ACCTGAAGG

39.

A frameshift mutation has more serious consequences than a point mutation because a frame shift mutation

a)

cannot ever be transcribed onto an mRNA molecule.

b)

prevents uracil from being used in the mRNA molecule.

c)

only affects a single codon.

d)

causes all of the codons after it to be different.

40.

X rays, ultraviolet light, and radioactive substances that can change the chemical nature of DNA are classified as _____.

a)

growth regulators

b)

hydrolytic enzymes

c)

metamorphic molecules

d)

mutagens

41.

Which process has most directly led to advances in the identification of suspects in criminal investigations and in the identification of genetic diseases?

a)

Gene therapy

b)

Recombinant DNA

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

Mutations

42.

According to the image shown on the right, which suspect most likely committed the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Suspect 3

d)

None of the above

43.

The karyotype pictured to the right best illustrates which of the following?

a)

A normal male

b)

A normal female

c)

A male affected by nondisjunction

d)

A female affected by nondisjunction

44.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

a mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

b)

segregation of sister chromatids

c)

condensation and segregation of alleles

d)

crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged

45.

A normal human diploid zygote contains

a)

23 chromosomes

b)

46 chromosomes

c)

only sex chromosomes

d)

only autosomes

46.

A multicellular organism has 38 chromosomes in its body cells. How many chromosomes are in its gametes?

a)

78

b)

76

c)

18

d)

19

47.

Which of the following is best described as the genetic makeup of an individual?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

48.

Which of the following is best described as the physical appearance of an individual?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

49.

Which of the following is best described an organism with two non-identical alleles for a trait?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

50.

Which of the following best describes an organism with two identical alleles for a trait?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

51.

Which term is best defined as an alternative form of a gene?

a)

Allele

b)

Gene

c)

Chromosome

d)

Pedigree

52.

One parent of a child has attached earlobes, caused by recessive alleles. The other parent carries the recessive allele but doesn't express it. What is the chance that they would have a child with attached earlobes?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

53.

Katrina has freckles (dominant allele, F). Her father also has freckles, but his father (Katrina’s grandfather) did not. Katrina's mother does not have freckles. Which are most likely the genotypes of the family?

a)

Katrina: Ff Father:Ff Mother: ff

b)

Katrina: Ff Father: FF Mother: ff

c)

Katrina: FF Father: Ff Mother: Ff

d)

Katrina: FF Father: ff Mother: Ff

54.

When crossing a homozygous recessive parent with a heterozygous parent, what is the probability of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

55.

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene D. Plants with the dominant allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of this cross is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 2

c)

2 and 3

d)

4 only

e)

1, 2, and 3

56.

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene D. Plants with the dominant allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of this cross is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?

a)

1

b)

1 and 2

c)

1, 2, and 3

d)

2 and 3

e)

2, 3, and 4

Fall Final Review

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 56mins

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