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Advanced Biology Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Energy flows through living systems from:

a)

Autotrophs, to the environment, and then to heterotrophs

b)

The sun, to autotrophs, and then to heterotrophs

c)

The sun, to heterotrophs, and then to autotrophs

2.

Redox reactions are important in living organisms because they:

a)

Allow for the creation and destruction of energy

b)

absorb free energy

c)

allow passage of energy from molecule to molecule

d)

none of the above: oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living things

3.

Four of the five answers below are lipids. Select the exception.

a)

triglyceride

b)

wax

c)

testosterone

d)

cellulose

e)

cholesterol

4.

Which of the following is unsaturated?

a)
b)
5.

Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is correct?

a)

They are more common in plants than animals

b)

They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids

c)

They are solid at room temperature

d)

They contain less hydrogen that unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms

6.

All of the following are lipids except:

a)

saturated fats

b)

cellulose

c)

testosterone

d)

triglycerides

7.

What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking 10 glucose molecules

a)

C10H20O10

b)

C60H120O60

c)

C20H10C20

d)

C120H60C120

8.

A DNA molecule:

a)

is double stranded and contains the sugar ribose

b)

contains the sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogen bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

c)

is single stranded and contains the sugar deoxyribose

d)

contains the sugar ribose and the nitrogen bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

9.

The type of bond being broken in the chemical reaction above is a:

a)

peptide

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

hydrogen

10.

Which of the following terms includes all others in the list?

a)

monosaccharide

b)

disaccharide

c)

starch

d)

carbohydrate

e)

polysaccharide

11.

What would be an expected consequence of changing one amino acid in a particular protein?

a)

The tertiary structure might be changed

b)

The primary structure would be changed

c)

The biological activity of the protein might be altered

d)

a, b, and c are correct

e)

Only a and c are correct

12.

Carbon is different from many other elements in that

a)

it has four valence electrons

b)

it has four valence electrons

c)

it can form single, double, or triple bonds with other atoms

d)

all of the above

13.

The organic macromolecule that participates in the expression of genes through protein synthesis is:

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Testosterone

14.

A fully functional molecule of hemoglobin is a good example of ___________ protein structure.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

e)

none of these

15.

Fructose

a)

is a dissacharide

b)

is a monosaccharide

c)

is found in fruit

d)

both b and c

16.

Which of the following components is not part of a nucleotide?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

sugar

c)

carboxyl group

d)

phosphate group

17.

The enzyme amylase breaks down starches in the mouth, but stops working in the stomach because the _________ changes the shape of the enzyme.

a)

temperature

b)

pH

c)

Light

d)

availability of the enzyme

18.

A change in body temperature or pH may cause enzyme inactivation because

a)

enzymes can only function in alkaline conditions

b)

a change in pH or temperature may cause hydrolysis of the enzyme

c)

a change in temperature or pH may change the shape of the enzyme

d)

pH and temperature have no influence on the activity of an enzyme

19.

The monomer of cellulose is:

a)

a monosaccharide

b)

a fatty acid

c)

an amino acid

d)

a nucleotide

20.

ATP is comparable to a rechargeable battery because{

a)

all molecules of glucose are made of it

b)

it transfers high energy electrons from one chemical reaction to another chemical reaction

c)

it catalyzes all metabolic reactions

d)

most of the energy that drives metabolism is supplied by it

21.

ENergy is released from the ATP molecule when:

a)

A phosphate group is added

b)

Adenine bonds to ribose

c)

ATP is hit by a photon of solar energy

d)

A phosphate group is removed

22.

An example of an important coenzyme that functions in metabolism is:

a)

ATP synthase

b)

chlorophyll

c)

NADP+

d)

ribulose biphosphate

23.

Describe the reaction above

a)

an exergonic reaction

b)

an endergonic reaction

c)

a major explosion

d)

absolutely impossible

24.

What happens when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs a photon of light?

a)

Some of it's electrons are raised to a higher energy level

b)

It disintegrates, giving off huge amounts of heat

c)

It plows, radiating green light and giving the plant a green appearance

d)

Red and blue wavelengths are emitted

25.

A student exposed two plants to only red light and two plants to only green light. Which plants should grow better? Why?

a)

The plants under green light will grow better because chlorophyll absorbs green light

b)

The plants under green light will grow better because chlorophyll reflects green light

c)

The plants under red light will grow better because chlorophyll absorbs red light

d)

The plants under red light will grow better because chlorophyll reflects red light

e)

The plants under red light will grow better because chlorophyll reflects red light

26.

The following statements about the light eractions of photosynthesis are all true except:

a)

Chlorophyll absorbs light energy, which excites electrons

b)

Electrons are transferred from water to NADP+

c)

RUBP carboxylace is activated by photons

d)

ATP is generated by chemiosmosis

e)

The splitting of water molecules provides a source of electrons

27.

Products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are required by the Calvin Cycle are:

a)

oxygen and ATP

b)

Water and oxygen

c)

Oxygen and NADPH

d)

ATP and NADPH

28.

In a plant cell, where is ATP synthase located?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Central vacuole

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoid Membrane

29.

The source of oxygen produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis is:

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Water

c)

glucose

d)

The air

30.

The electrons of photosystem I

a)

Are eventually replaced by electron from photo-system II

b)

Attach to water molecules during the light reactions

c)

Produce molecules of oxygen gas which enter the atmosphere

d)

are absorbed by oxygen molecules to form water

31.

The Hill reaction:

a)

involves the splitting of a water molecule in Photosystem I

b)

involves the splitting of a water molecule in Photosystem II

c)

involves the addition of a phosphate group to ADP

d)

occurs during the Calvin Cycle in the stroma

32.

Which pathway represents the plow of electrons during photosynthesis

a)

H2O --> Photosystem I --> Photosystem II --> NADP+

b)

O2 --> ADP --> Calvin Cycle

c)

Photosystem II --> Photosystem I --> Calvin Cycle --> NADP+

d)

H20 --> Photosystem II --> Photosystem I --> NADP+ --> Calvin Cycle

33.

The lipht reactions of photosynthesis take place in the:

a)

mitochondria

b)

thylakoid membranes

c)

strom

d)

cytoplasm

34.

When deciduous trees drop their leaves in the fall, the leaves turn various shades from red, orange and yellow. The source of these colors is:

a)

chlorophyll

b)

carotenoids

c)

fungal gwowth

d)

natural decay of cell walls

35.

The Calvin Cycle occurs in the ___________ and the starting material is _______________.

a)

Cytoplasm; glucose

b)

Stroma: RuBP carboxylase

c)

Cytoplasm; pyruvic acid

d)

stroma; ribulose biphosphate

e)

mitochondrial matrix; oxaloacetate

36.

The products of the Calvin Cycle include:

a)

ATP, NADPH and glucose

b)

ATP, NADPH, and RUbisco

c)

ADP, NADP+ and glucose

d)

ADP, NADPH, and Rubisco

37.

An enzyme important in the Calvin cycle is:

a)

ATP synthase

b)

H2O splitting Enzyme

c)

NADPH

d)

RUBP carboxylase

38.

What would result if all of the 3 - carbon sugar produced in the Calvin cycle were used to make organic compounds?

a)

The cell would become overloaded with carbohydrates and go into shock

b)

RuBP could not be regenerated and the the Calvin Cycle would stop

c)

Chemiosmosis would be blocked and therefor no ATP would be generated

d)

Too much ADP and NADP+ would be produced and therefore wasted

39.

The steps of the Calvin cycl include:

a)

Fixation, Oxidation, and Regeneration

b)

Fixation, Reduction, and Oxidation

c)

Fixation, Reduction, and Chemiosmosis

d)

Fixation, Reduction, and Regeneration

40.

The major products of plyxolysis are:

a)

Pyruvic avid an Acetyl CoA

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

Pryuvic acid and small amounts of ATP and NADH

d)

Pyruvic acid and large amounts of ATP and NADH

41.

Celluar respiration occurs in:

a)

heterotroghs

b)

autotrophs

c)

neither a or b

d)

both a and b

42.

The reactants of respiration are:

a)

glucose and O2

b)

glucose and CO2

c)

CO2. H2O, and ATP

d)

a Dominos Pizza (Legit this was on the test)

43.

Because fermentation takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is said to be:

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

c)

cyclic

d)

essential to oxygen production

44.

The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the:

a)

primary level

b)

secondary level

c)

tertiary level

d)

quaternary level

e)

all structural levels are equally affected

45.

The storage form of glucose in animals is:

a)

collagen

b)

starch

c)

fructose

d)

glycogen

46.

For a protein to have a quaternary structure, it must have:

a)

four amino acids

b)

two or more polypeptide sub units

c)

four polypeptide units

d)

at least 50 different R-groups

e)

at least one alpha helix and one beta pleated sheet

47.

Variations in the properties of different organic molecules are most closely associated with:

a)

the number of carbon atoms comprising the molecules skeleton

b)

the presence or absence of double bonds

c)

the type of functional groups they contain

d)

the orientation of the carbon skeleton, either as a ring or linear

48.

Organic macromolecules that make up the cell walls of a sunflower are:

a)

glucose

b)

glycogen

c)

fructose

d)

cellulose

49.

The breakdown of polypeptides into amino acids occurs through a process called:

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

condensation

d)

hydrolysis

50.

Which type of lipid is important in the structure of the cell membrane?

a)

cellulose

b)

phospholipid

c)

starch

d)

wax

51.

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are the elements that compose:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

both carbohydrates and lipids

d)

neither carbohydrates of lipids

52.

Lactase breaks down lactose found in dairy products. Some people are lactose intolerant and this can be due to not having enough lactase production. People who are lactose intolerant may not feel well after eating foods containing lactose. Identify the enzyme and the substrate in this scenario.

a)

the enzyme is lactase and the substrate is lactose

b)

the enzyme is lactose and the substrate is lactase

c)

the enzyme is unknown and the substrate is lactase

d)

the enzyme is lactose and the substrate is unknown

53.

The type of lipid that provides a protective layer on the outside of plant leaves and a protective layer in your ear is:

a)

wax

b)

fat

c)

oil

d)

steroid

54.

Proteins are always composed of which elements?

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

c)

carbon, phosphorous, nitrogen, and oxygen

d)

carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen

55.

The twenty different amino acids found in polypeptides exhibit different chemical and physical

properties because of different:

a)

carboxyl groups

b)

amino groups

c)

tertiary structure

d)

side chains (R-groups)

56.

The four main categories of macromolecules in a cell are:

a)

proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids

b)

proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids

c)

monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccharides, and proteins

d)

nucleic acids, carbohydrates, monosaccharides, and proteins

57.

Most of the chemical reactions in cells must have ______ present before they can proceed.

a)

RNA

b)

hormones

c)

carbohydrates

d)

enzymes

58.

An enzyme

a)

is a protein

b)

can participate in multiple types of chemical reactions

c)

is a lipid

d)

both a and b are correct

59.

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

a)

glucose

b)

galactose

c)

lactose

d)

cellulose

60.

Which of the following is not true about organic compounds?

a)

contain functional groups

b)

always contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

c)

are derived from living things

d)

are produced through condensation reactions

e)

both a and b are not true

61.

Biology is the study of:

a)

minerals

b)

energy

c)

Pluto

d)

life

62.

Science is best described as a:

a)

set of facts

b)

way of knowing

c)

collection of beliefs

d)

all of the above

63.

In multicellular organisms, cells are organized into:

a)

organs

b)

organisms

c)

organ systems

d)

tissues

64.

About 12 to 24 hours after the last meal, a person's blood sugar level normally varies from 60 to 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood, although it may rise to 130 mg/100 ml after meals high in carbohydrates. That the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range despite uneven intake of sugar is due to the body's ability to carry out:

a)

adaptation

b)

inheritance

c)

metabolism

d)

homeostasis

e)

all of these

65.

The figure above shows that tree finches and ground finches are descended from a common ancestor. This example represents which theme in biology?

a)

interdependence

b)

homeostasis

c)

unity and diversity

d)

evolution

66.

Organisms that make their own food through photosynthesis are called:

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

homeostasis

d)

bacteria

67.

Ecology:

a)

refers to change in a group of animals over time

b)

refers to the delicate internal balance within organisms

c)

is a study of rocks and minerals

d)

is the study of the relationship between an organism and its environment

68.

A response is an organism’s reaction to

a)

an adaptation

b)

a behavior

c)

a stimulus

d)

homeostasis

69.

The principal point of Charles Darwin's Theory of Evolution was that:

a)

organisms that are the strongest survive

b)

organisms will evolve during their lifetime to better fit their environment

c)

organisms with adaptations that better fit their environment will more likely survive to pass the adaptation on to their offspring

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

70.

The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called:

a)

molecules

b)

organelles

c)

cells

d)

atoms

71.

A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n):

a)

hypothesis

b)

theory

c)

control

d)

observation

72.

Organisms require __________ and __________ to maintain themselves, grow, and reproduce.

a)

DNA: cells

b)

DNA; energy

c)

food; sunlight

d)

nutrients; energy

73.

A butterfly is ______________. Choose all that apply.

a)

an organism

b)

a species

c)

unicellular

d)

multicellular

e)

autotroph

74.

The process in which two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of a new organism is called:

a)

development

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

homeostasis

75.

You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burned etc.). First you should:

a)

visit the school nurse

b)

apply first aid yourself

c)

tell the teacher at once

d)

text your mother

76.

The work of scientists begins with:

a)

testing a hypothesis

b)

careful observation

c)

designing experiments

d)

drawing conclusions

77.

To put out a fire in a person's hair or clothes, use

a)

the fire extinguisher

b)

the safety shower

c)

the fire blanket

d)

a handy chemical

78.

he American researchers Martha Chase and Alfred Hershey wanted to determine whether it was DNA or protein that was the hereditary material for life. Based on their observations and research, they suggested that DNA was the causative agent for heredity.

This suggestion was a:

a)

hypothesis

b)

inference

c)

theory

d)

conclusion

79.

Development occurs by:

a)

mitosis and meiosis

b)

cell division and cell enlargement

c)

organization and reproduction

d)

cell division and cell differentiation

80.

In a controlled experiment, the factor that is observed or measured is:

a)

the control group

b)

the independent variable

c)

the dependent variable

d)

the experimental group

81.

To be useful in science, a hypothesis must be:

a)

observable

b)

testable

c)

measurable

d)

correct

82.

The word theory used in a scientific sense means:

a)

a highly tested, generally accepted principle

b)

an absolute scientific certainty

c)

an educated guess

d)

none of the above

83.

During a controlled experiment, a scientist isolates and tests

a)

a conclusion

b)

a control group

c)

a mass of information

d)

a single variable

84.

Who reviews articles for peer-reviewed journals?

a)

lawmakers

b)

anonymous and independent experts

c)

the scientist that did the experiments

d)

the company that paid for the experiments

85.

What kind of ion forms when an atom loses an electron?

a)

neutral

b)

negative

c)

positive

d)

possibly positive or negative

86.

Compared to 31P, the radioisotope 32P has:

a)

a different atomic number

b)

one more neutron

c)

one more proton

d)

one more electron

e)

a different charge

87.

The way in which elements bond to form compounds depends on which of the following?

a)

The model of the atom

b)

The structural formula of the compound

c)

The dissociation of the ions in the compound

d)

The number and arrangement of electrons in the atoms of the elements

88.

A molecule that has a partial negative charge on one side and a partial positive charge on the other side is called a(n):

a)

polar molecule

b)

nonpolar molecule

c)

ion

d)

bipolar molecule

89.

Acidic solutions have a pH that is:

a)

less than 7

b)

between 0 and 14

c)

more than 7

d)

neutral

90.

A solution with a pH of 8 has how many times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with pH of 6?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

10

d)

100

e)

1000

91.

The property of water that causes water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules is called:

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

capillary action

d)

buffering

92.

The bond that holds the sugars and phosphates together on the outside of the DNA ladder

a)

covalent

b)

hydrogen

c)

ionic

93.

Because fermentation takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is said to be:

a)

aerobic

b)

anarobic

c)

cyclic

d)

essential to oxygen production

94.

Glycolysis takes place in the ________ and the starting material is _____.

a)

Stroma; glucose

b)

Mitochondrial matrix; glucose

c)

Mitochondrial matrix; pyruvic acid

d)

Cytoplasm; pyruvic acid

e)

Cytoplasm; glucose

95.

Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and aerobic respiration?

a)

The Krebs cycle

b)

the electron transport chain

c)

glycolysis

d)

the Calvin Cycle

96.

The primary role of oxygen in respiration is to:

a)

Combine with lactic acid to form pyruvic acid

b)

yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the electron transport chain

c)

act as a final accerptor for electrons and protons

d)

contribute electrons to NAD+

97.

IN cellular respiration the greatest number of ATP is generated by

a)

the Krebs Cycle

b)

the electron transport cahin

c)

fermentation

d)

glycolysis

98.

Where does aerobic respiration occur?

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondrion

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

99.

You have been growng some anial cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then their grown shols down. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the likely explanation for the poor prowth of the cells>

a)

There is too much glucose in the culture fluid

b)

There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid

c)

There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid

d)

There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid

100.

ATP molecules produced during aerobic cellular respiration:

a)

Remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed

b)

are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed

c)

enter the cell's cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed

d)

are distributed by the bloodstream to all cell's in the body

101.

The source of energy that pumps protons across the membrane during aerobic cell respiraton is provided by:

a)

photons of solar energy

b)

The chemical bonds of glucose

c)

ATP, NADH, and FADH2

d)

ADP, NAD+, and FAD

102.

What is produced when there is no oxygen avalible to a plant cell for respiration?

a)

NADH

b)

Ethyl alcohol

c)

lots of ATP

d)

lactic acid

103.

When no oxygen is present in a cell, how many ATP's are produced during respiration?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

36

d)

38

104.

The Krebs Cycle occurs in the ______ and the starting material is _______.

a)

Mitochondrial matrix; ribulose biphosphate

b)

Mitochondrial matrix; oxyacetylene

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane : RuBP

d)

Inner mitochondrial membrane; oxaloacetate

105.

We breathe in oxygen and breathe out carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide comes from:

a)

Plucose in plycolysis

b)

NAD+ redox reactions in the mitochondrion

c)

The oxidation of pyruvic acid and acetyl CoA

d)

The breakdown of glucose during fermentation

106.

During fermentation:

a)

Plucose is split into two 3 carbon pyruvic acid molucules

b)

NAD+ is regenerated, allowing glycolysis to continus

c)

Carbon dioxide is always produced

d)

2 molucules of ATP are produced

107.

Fermentation occurs in what location in the cell>

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

mitochondrion

c)

stroma

d)

both a and b

108.

Binary fission refers to to cell reproduction in:

a)

small unicellular eukaryotic cells

b)

all eukaryotic cells

c)

in all prokaryotic cells

d)

in all fungal and plant cells

109.

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

a)

only during interphase

b)

only when they are being replicated

c)

only during cell division

d)

only during G1 phase

110.

If an intestinal cell in a grashopper contains 24 chromosomes, a grasshopper perm cell would contain _____ chromosomes

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

111.

Chromatids are loined together at the:

a)

centromere

b)

chromatin

c)

kinetochore

d)

centriole

112.

Strands of DNA coiled and wrapped tightly around histones:

a)

are called chromatin

b)

are called chromosomes

c)

appear in dividing cells

d)

both b and c are correct

113.

You would be unlikely to see which of the following human cells dividing?

a)

nerve cell

b)

skin cell

c)

cancer cell

d)

cell from an embryo

114.

Interphase is made up of the following cell cycle stages:

a)

G1, S G2

b)

prophase, anaphase, telophase

c)

G1, M, C

d)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase

115.

Human somatic cells, being diploid, have 2 of each chromosome. A pair of chromosomes which is similar in size and shape is

a)

homologous

b)

a gamete

c)

non-homologous

d)

a somatic cell

116.

The parto of the chromosome where the spindele fibers attach is the

a)

centriole

b)

chromatit

c)

cromatin

d)

kinetochore

117.

Human sex cells have only one chromosome from each homologous pair and are called:

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

non;homologous

d)

sex chromosomes

118.

IN humans, a zygote will develop into a female if the:

a)

sperm and egg both contribute a Y chromosome

b)

sperm and egg both contribute an X chromosome

c)

egg contributes an X chromosome and the sperm contributes a Y chromosome

d)

egg contributes a Y chromosome and the sperm contributes an X chromosome

119.

The longest phase of the cell cycle is:

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

interphase

120.

The condition in which a diploid cell is short one chromosome is called:

a)

monosomy

b)

bisomy

c)

trisomy

d)

quadrosomy

121.

Which phase of mitosis is shown in this picture?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

122.

Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body during respiration and typically have a lifespan of months. What is the role of mitosis during respiration?

a)

Allows cells to absorb oxygen from the air

b)

Helps replace cells that re damaged or destroyed

c)

Causes cells to release carbon dioxide

d)

Produces molecules needed to maintain cell structures

123.

As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the original cell during cytokineses

a)

receives a few chromosomes from the original cell

b)

receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the original copy

c)

donates a chromosome to the original cell

d)

receives exactly half of the chromosomes from the original cell

124.

Which of the following happens during the G1 phase of the cell cycle?

a)

DNA replication

b)

spindle fiber formation

c)

cell growth

d)

nuclear division

125.

A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is:

a)

as somatic cell of a male

b)

a somatic cell of a female

c)

a sperm cell

d)

an egg cell

126.

A human bone marrow cell, in prophase of mitosis, contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromatids dose it contain altogether?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

46 or 92, depending on when in prophase you look

127.

What role do spindle fiber play during mitosis?

a)

they move the chromosomes

b)

they cause the chromatin to condense and form chromosomes

c)

they wrap around the centromere to form the chromosome

d)

they cause the nuclear membrane to disintegrate

128.

Through a microscope you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of the cell and nuclei reforming at opposite poles of the cell. This cell is most likely:

a)

an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis

b)

a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis

c)

an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle

d)

a bacterial cell dividing

129.

Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of the cell cycle?

a)

G1--> G2 --> S --> Mitosis --> Cytokinesis

b)

S --> G1 --> G2 --> Cytokinesis --> Mitosis

c)

Mitosis --> G1 --> G2 --> S --> cytokinesis

d)

G1 --> S --> G2 --> Mitosis --> Cytokinesis

130.

Two identical daughter cells exist at the end of:

a)

mitosis

b)

telophase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

interphase

131.

During meiosis, two successive divisions:

a)

result in the formation of two identical cells

b)

cause the formation of a zygote

c)

are responsible for the formation of four haploid cells

d)

must occur before mitosis can form gametes

132.

separation of homologous chromosomes occurs during:

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis I

c)

meiosis II

d)

fertilization

133.

In humans, somatic cells contain:

a)

22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

b)

1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes

c)

44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

d)

45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

134.

Which stage of meiosis is characterized by the occurrence of crossing over?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

prophase II

135.

If nondisjunciton occurs:

a)

there will be too many gmetes prouduced

b)

a gamete will receive too many or too few homologous of a chromosome

c)

a tristomy or a monosomy could occur

d)

both b and c

e)

botha a and b

136.

What is the number of chromosomes found in a human gamete?

a)

12

b)

23

c)

46

d)

92

137.

What type of chromosomal mutation is often associated with leukemia's?

a)

deletion

b)

inversion

c)

translocation

d)

nondisjunction

138.

IN human sexual reproduction, a male haploid sperm and a female haploid egg unite to form a(n):

a)

egg cell with 46 chromosomes

b)

zygote with 23 schromosomes

c)

zygote with 46 chromosomes

d)

sperm cell with 23 chromosomes

139.

In oogenesis, a diploid reproductive cell divides to produce

a)

one diploid gamete

b)

four diploid gametes

c)

one haploid gamete

d)

four haploid gametes

140.

The X and Y chromosome are called:

a)

autosomes

b)

sex chromosomes

c)

gametes

d)

somatic cells

141.

What event in meiosis provides a great deal of genetic variation in the offspring of a species?

a)

nondisjunction

b)

crossing over

c)

reduction division

d)

cytokineses

142.

During prophase I:

a)

DNA coils into chromosomes

b)

Spindle fibers disappear

c)

homologous chromosomes separate

d)

both a and b

143.

The diploid number of a cell that has on monosomy is:

a)

23

b)

45

c)

46

d)

47

144.

Meiosis II:

a)

is proceed by the copying of DNA

b)

separates homologous chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell

c)

separates chromatids to opposite poles of the cell

d)

produces haploid offspring

145.

The two sets of chromosomes present in the diploid cells of sexually reproducing organisms are derived from:

a)

the doubling of a haploid cell

b)

the contribution of one haploid set from each parent

c)

DNA replication during interphase

d)

all of the above

146.

Select the CORRECT statements:

a)

Mitosis leads to variation in a species.

b)

Meiosis leads to variation in a species.

c)

Mitosis produces haploid cells used in reproduction.

d)

meiosis produces haploid cells used in reproduction.

147.

Cancer is a disorder in which some cell have lost the ability to control their:

a)

size

b)

rate of cell respiration

c)

reproduction

d)

surface area

148.

During early development, all cells in the embryo of a multicellular organism are identical. Later on in development, the cells will become specialized through a process called:

a)

apoptosis

b)

binary fision

c)

cytokinesis

d)

differentiation

149.

Hooke's discovery of cells was made observing:

a)

liking algal cells

b)

living protis cells

c)

living plant cells

d)

dead plant cells

150.

Which of the following is characteristic of eukaryotes?

a)

they have a nucleus

b)

they were found on earth before prokaryotes

c)

they where found on earth after prokaryotes

d)

both a and b

e)

both a and c

151.

A certain cell has a nucleus, mitochondrion, ribosomes, smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, and other parts. Based on this information it could not be:

a)

a cell from a pin tree

b)

a grasshopper cell

c)

a cell from a mushroom

d)

a bacterial cell

152.

What is the general term for a group of tissue that carry out a common function?

a)

organ

b)

organism

c)

system

d)

tissue

153.

Which of the following is part of the cell theory?

a)

all cells have cell walls

b)

cells come only from other living cells

c)

all cells are prokaryotic

d)

all cells are eukaryotic

154.

A cell membrane is composid of:

a)

cellulose and protein

b)

carbohydrate and protein

c)

lipid and protein

d)

amino acids and proteins

155.

A cell membrane is composed of:

a)

cellulose and protein

b)

carbohydrate and protein

c)

lipid and protein

d)

amino acids and proteins

156.

Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because:

a)

the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large

b)

materials cannot enter the cell if the surface is too large

c)

the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove wastes

d)

waste products cannot leave the cell if the cell is too small

157.

the phospholipid molecules of most membranes haev

a)

a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail

b)

a hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail

c)

a hydrophobic head and two hydrophobic tails

d)

a hydrophilic head and 2 hydrophobic tails

158.

the dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

endocytosis

159.

Which of the following occurs in phagocytosis?

a)

fluids move into the cell

b)

solid molecules move into the cell

c)

fluids move out fo the cell

d)

solid particles move out of the cell

160.

Which of the following is not true of facilitated diffusion?

a)

it requires a carries protein

b)

it moves substances against a concentration gradients

c)

it requires no energy output

d)

it moves substances along a concentration gradient

161.

placing a plant cell into a hypertonic environment will

a)

cause turgor pressure to increase

b)

cause the plant cell to take in water

c)

cause cytolysis

d)

cause turgor pressure to decrease

162.

a particularly active cell might contain large numbers of:

a)

chromosomes

b)

vacuoles

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

163.

how are chloroplasts similar to mitochondria?

a)

They are both found in Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells

b)

They are both found in animal cells

c)

They both contain their own DNA

d)

Both a and b

164.

Which type of cell would probably provide the best opportunity to study lysosomes?

a)

muscle cell

b)

nerve cell

c)

bacterial cell

d)

leaf cell of a plant

e)

phagocytic white blood cell

165.

A channel protein that assists with osmosis is a

a)

aquaporin

b)

membrane pump

c)

proton pump

d)

ATP receptor protein

166.

Numerous hairlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and help with movement:

a)

cillia

b)

flagella

c)

microtubules

d)

actin filaments

167.

Diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane:

a)

is called osmosis

b)

always involves a carries molecule

c)

requires energy from the cell

d)

occurs from lesser concentration to greater

168.

Which of the following activities of the cell membrane requires energy from the cell?

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

passive transport

d)

endocytosis

169.

Which of the following processes includes all others on the list?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

passive transport

170.

Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve:

a)

movement up (against) the concentration gradient

b)

movement down (with the concentration gradient

c)

carrier proteins

d)

both a and c

171.

When a biologist takes an egg from a fresh water fish and places it in salt water it will probably

a)

swell

b)

shrink

c)

stay the same

172.

Plasmolysis may occur in a plant cell:

a)

in a hypertonic solution

b)

in a hypotonic solution

c)

in an isotonic solution

d)

both b and c are correct

173.

Use of carrier molecules ( channel proteins) to move particle from a region of greater concentration to ar region of lower concentration is called:

a)

osmosis

b)

plasmolysis

c)

active transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

174.

The process by which a cell in the pancreas would release insulin is:

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

indocytosis

d)

exocytosis

175.

The Theory of Endosymbiosis explains the:

a)

differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

b)

the differences between chloroglasts and mitochondria

c)

the evolution of the prokaryotic cell from the eukaryotic cell

d)

the evolution of the eukaryotic cell from the prokaryotic cell

176.

Which of the cells below is the result of a hypotonic solution?

a)
b)
c)
177.

The percentages in these diagrams show the concentration of salt in four cells and in the water around each cell. In which diagram will water enter the cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
178.

Which cell scientist stated that all plants are made of cells?

a)

Matthias Schleiden

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Theodor Schwann

d)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

179.

A paramecium is place in a dish that contains distilled water. Which statement descries the cell processes that allow the paramecium to achieve homeostasis?

a)

Water leaves the cell by osmosis, and contractile vacuoles obtain water to maintain homeostasis

b)

Water leaves the cell by osmosis, and the central vacuoles obtain water to maintain homeostasis.

c)

Water enters the cell by osmosis and the contractile vacuoles eliminate excess water

d)

Water enters the cell by osmosis and the central vacuoles eliminate excess water

180.

The form of active transport that is important in the functioning of our nervous system is:

a)

proton pumps

b)

sodium - potassium pump

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

endocytosis

181.

The interior portion of the cell membrane forms:

a)

a polar zone that allows molecules to pass throught it

b)

a non polar zone that prevents polar molecules from passing through

c)

a non polar zone that allows polar molecules to pass through

d)

a polar zone that prevents non polar molecules from passing through

182.

Which of the following is incorrect when properly storing a microscope?

a)

put the lower power objective in place

b)

raise the stage all the way up

c)

wrap the cord around the base

d)

put the cover over the microscope

183.

During diffusion, when the concentration of molecules on both sides of a membrane is the same, the molecules will

a)

move across the membrane to the outside of the cell

b)

stop moving across the membrane

c)

continue to move across the membrane in both directions

d)

move across the membrane to the inside of the cell

184.

If a blood cell is placed in pure water:

a)

water diffusing out will dehydrate it

b)

water diffusing in will cause it to burst

c)

carbon dioxide will be unable to diffuse out

d)

cell organelles will diffuse through the cell membrane

185.

Cellulose fibers are present in:

a)

both plant and animal cells

b)

neither plant nor animal cells

c)

animal cells but not plant cells

d)

plant cells but not animal cells

186.

A detailed picture of the inside of a very small can best be obtained from a(n)

a)

light microscope

b)

scanning electron microscope

c)

transmission electron microscope

d)

telescope

187.

Energy for active transport is provided by:

a)

voltage across a cell membrane

b)

an ATP molecule

c)

the sodium-potassium pump

d)

going against the concentration gradient

188.

The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move molecules from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

189.

Of the following organelles, which group is involve in manufacturing substances need by the cell?

a)

lysomes, vacuoles, ribosomes

b)

ribosomes, rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

vauloes, rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

rough endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes, vacuoles

190.

Best football team

a)

Auburn

b)

Alabama

c)

Ole Miss

d)

LSU