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Worksheets

Micro 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following mycobacteria produces pigmented colonies in the dark (is a scotochromogen)?

a)

M. szulgai

b)

M. kansasii

c)

M. tuberculosis

d)

AOTA

2.

All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide except:

a)

M. kansasii

b)

M. tuberculosis

c)

M. avium

d)

AOTA

3.

Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium sp. is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater bacillus”?

a)

M. kansasii

b)

M. avium

c)

M. leprae

d)

M. gordonae

4.

Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on MacConkey agar plate?

a)

M. chelonei-fortuitum complex

b)

M. ulcerans

c)

M. marinum

d)

M. avium-intracellulare complex

5.

For which clinical specimens is the potassium hydroxide direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements used?

a)

Skin

b)

CSF

c)

Blood

d)

Bone marrow

6.

The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?

a)

Aspergillus niger in blood

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF

d)

Candida albicans in blood/body fluids

7.

Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar?

a)

Phenol oxidase

b)

Catalase

c)

Urease

d)

Nitrate reductase

8.

Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?

a)

Candida tropicalis

b)

Candida pseudotropicalis

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

Candida albicans

9.

Dimorphic molds are found in the infected tissue in which form?

a)

Mold phase

b)

Yeast phase

c)

Encapsulated

d)

Latent

10.

The mycelial form of which dimorphic mold produces thick-walled, rectangular, or barrel-shaped alternate arthroconidia?

a)

Coccidioides immitis

b)

Sporothrix schenckii

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum

d)

Blastomyces dermatitidis

11.

The yeast form of which dimorphic fungus appears as oval or elongated cigar shaped, some with multiple buds?

a)

Coccidioides immitis

b)

Sporothrix schenckii

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum

d)

Blastomyces dermatitidis

12.

The yeast form of which dimorphic mold shows a large parent yeast cell surrounded by smaller budding yeast cells?

a)

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

b)

Sporothrix schenckii

c)

Coccidioides immitis

d)

Histoplasma capsulatum

13.

Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:

a)

Malassezia furfur

b)

Trichophyton rubrum

c)

Trichophyton schoenleinii

d)

Microsporum gypseum

14.

Which Trichophyton sp. causes the favus type of tinea capitis seen in Scandinavian countries and in the Appalachian region of the United States?

a)

T. verrucosum

b)

T. violaceum

c)

T. tonsurans

d)

T. schoenleinii

15.

The hair baiting test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on

Sabouraud’s agar plates?

a)

T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum

b)

T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii

c)

T. tonsurans and T. violaceum

d)

T. verrucosum and T. rubrum

16.

Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?

a)

Respiratory syncytial virus

b)

Measles virus

c)

Coxsackie A virus

d)

Coxsackie B virus

17.

Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroeneteritis in infants and young children but asymptomatic infection in adults?

a)

Coxsackie B virus

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Respiratory syncytial virus

d)

Rhabdovirus

18.

A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella and roseola is:

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Adenovirus type 40

c)

Coxsackie A virus

d)

Parvovirus B19

19.

Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of the skin and mucous membranes?

a)

Polyomavirus

b)

Poxvirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Papillomavirus

20.

Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

a)

Western blot assay

b)

ELISA

c)

Complement fixation

d)

Polymerase chain reaction

21.

The infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva:

a)

Ancylostoma duodenale

b)

Strongyloides stercoralis

c)

Both

d)

Neither

22.

All of the following larva migrate through the lungs except one:

a)

Ascaris

b)

Hookworm

c)

Pinworm

d)

Strongyloides

23.

Habitat of the adult Trichinella spiralis:

a)

Small intestines

b)

Skeletal muscles

c)

Blood

d)

CSF

24.

The adult female is characterized by having a barber’s pole appearance due to the looping of the whitish uterus around the reddish digestive tract:

a)

Dracunculus medinensis

b)

Strongyloides stercoralis

c)

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

d)

Necator americanus

25.

Visceral larva migrans is associated with this organism:

a)

Ancylostoma duodenale

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Dracunculus medinensis

d)

Onchocerca volvulus

26.

Nematode parasite thought to have been the “fiery serpent” of the ancient Israelites. This parasite, which has various species of Cyclops as its intermediate host, is:

a)

Dicrocoelium dendrticum

b)

Dipetalonema perstans

c)

Diphyllobothrium latum

d)

Dracunculus medinensis

27.

A dog parasite that almost never develops to an adult in humans has been found in some persons as a cause of a subcutaneous nodule or a solitary peripheral nodule in the lung. This nematode is:

a)

Ancylostoma braziliense

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Echinococcus granulosus

28.

Microcytic anemia is associated with this parasite:

a)

Trichinella spiralis

b)

Diphyllobothrium latum

c)

Ancylostoma duodenale

d)

Heterophyes heterophyes

29.

Suitable specimen for the identification of microfilaria:

a)

Urine

b)

Feces

c)

Blood

d)

Sputum

30.

Which of the following microfilariae is unsheathed?

a)

Wuchereria bancrofti

b)

Loa loa

c)

Onchocerca volvulus

d)

Brugia malayi

31.

Eye worm producing fugitive swelling or Calabar swelling:

a)

Loa loa

b)

Onchocerca volvulus

c)

Dipetalonema perstan

d)

Mansonella ozzardi

32.

Rhabditiform larva with purposeless motion and short buccal cavity:

a)

Hookworm

b)

Strongyloides

c)

Both

d)

NOTA

33.

Operculated ovum containing a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot Leyden crysrtals:

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Paragonimus westermani

c)

Schistosoma mansoni

d)

Dipylidium caninum

34.

Eggs of this fluke are small and shaped like an old-fashioned electric light bulb:

a)

Clonorchis sinensis

b)

Fasciola lanceolata

c)

Fasciolopsis buski

d)

Echinostoma ilocanum

35.

A soil and water amoeba isolated from cases of meningoencephalitis:

a)

Naegleria fowleri

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Isospora belli

d)

AOTA

36.

This is diagnostic of Entamoeba histolytica if present in the amoebic trophozoite:

a)

Pus cells

b)

Nuclei

c)

Red cells

d)

Macrophage

37.

The string test (Entero-Test) for obtaining a small specimen of duodenal contents for parasitic infection would be most appropriate for:

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Chilomastix mesnili

c)

Endolimax nana

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

38.

Largest and the most robust Trichomonas sp.:

a)

Trichomonas hominis

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Trichomonas tenax

d)

NOTA

39.

Mature and gravid proglottids are typically shaped like melon seeds:

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Hymenolepis diminuta

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Dipylidium caninum

40.

Cysticercosis is caused by the disseminated larva of:

a)

Hymenolepis nana

b)

Necator americanus

c)

Echinococcus granulosus

d)

Taenia solium

41.

Almond-shaped scolex with two lateral grooves:

a)

Taenia saginata

b)

Taenia solium

c)

Hymenolepis diminuta

d)

Diphyllobothrium latum

42.

Chagas’ disease is caused by:

a)

Leishmania braziliensis

b)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

c)

Trypanosoma cruzi

d)

Leishmania tropica

43.

Xenodiagnosis is usually performed for the diagnosis of:

a)

Trypanosoma cruzi

b)

Schistosoma japonicum

c)

Leishmania donovani

d)

Leishmania gambiense

44.

Asexual development and multiplication of malarial parasites:

a)

Sporogony

b)

Schizogony

c)

Both

d)

Neither

45.

Asexual life cycle of malaria parasite occur in:

a)

Man

b)

Anopheles mosquito

c)

Flies

d)

Ticks

46.

Stage predominantly seen in the smear is the band form of the developing trophozoite:

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium ovale

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium vivax

47.

Causes blackwater fever:

a)

P. vivax

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. ovale

d)

P. falciparum

48.

Plasmodium sp which has an affinity for mature or older red blood cells:

a)

P. vivax

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. ovale

d)

P. falciparum

49.

Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat packer produced short gram-positive bacilli on a blood agar plate with no hemolysis. Given the following test results at 48 hours, what is the most likely identification?


Catalase 0

Motility (wet prep) 0

H2S (TSI) +

Gelatin stab Bottle brush growth

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Listeria monocytogenes

c)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

d)

Bacillus subtilis

50.

The bile solubility test causes lysis of:

a)

Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate

c)

Group A streptococci in broth culture

d)

Group B streptococci in broth culture