Worksheets6 February 1999
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins
Development of the vertebrae nervous system involves progressive neural events which can include the following, except:
a. Retraction of neural projections
b. Formation of complex neural pathways
c. Synaptogenesis
d. Myelinzation
e. Axonal growth
The following statements apply in combined posterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability, except:
a. Adduction and abduction stress test results are positive at 30deg of flexion
b. Results of the anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in neutral position
c. Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back
d. Occurs with tear of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments
e. Results of the anterior drawer test is negative with tibia in internal rotation
Craniosacral therapists asses these aspects of craniosacral motion, except:
a. Symmetry, whether both sides of the skull demonstrate equal amplitude and rate
b. Rate, the number of cycles of flexion per minute
c. Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number
d. Quantity, whether the motion is smooth or uneven
e. Amplitude, the magnitude of excursion of flexion and extension
Digestion of lactose:
a. 2 molecules of fructose
b. 1 molecule glucose + 1 molecule galactose
c. 1 molecule glucose + 1 molecule fructose
d. 2 molecules glucosoe
e. 1 molecule galactose + 1 molecule fructose
A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues, on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing are both closely
associated with it:
a. Collateral Sulcus
b. Central Sulcus
c. Calcarine Sulcus
d. Lateral Sulcus
This gait determinant reduces the vertical rise of the center of gravity as it passes over the same leg and compensated for by increased knee and ankle flexion so the swinging leg can pass under the lowered hemipelvis:
a. Pelvic list
b. Lateral displacement of the pelvis
c. Knee, ankle and foot rotation
d. Pelvic rotation
e. Knee flexion in stance
The largest bone in the proximal carpal row which represents the floor of the anatomic
snuffbox:
a. Navicular
b. Lunate
c. Trapezium
d. Triquetrium
e. Capitate
This vitamin is best absorbed in the ileum:
a. E
b. K
c. B12
d. C
e. A
The following statements are true of the plantarflexors of the foot, EXCEPT:
a. The tibialis posterior lies just posterior to the medial malleolus and is palpable as it comes around the medial malleolus and inserts into the navicular tubercle
b. The flexor digitorum longus tendon lies immediately medial to the flexor hallucis longus tendon and is tested manually by stabilizing the calcaneus and asking the subject to bend or curl his toes
c. The peroneous longus and brevis are the first two tendons posterior to the lateral malleolus
d. To detect existing weakness of the gastrocnemius and soleus by muscle testing, the patient is asked to walk on his toes. If he is unable to perform the task, there is probably at least a minimal weakness in the calf muscle
e. The flexor hallucis longus lies medial to Achilles tendon and to evaluate its function,
simply observe the patient's gait.
This/These statement/s describes the excitability property of the neuron:
a. It is most excitable when the membrane potential is reduced to its firing level
b. It is excitable at all times
c. It can be stimulated again at the spike of the action potential
d. None of these
e. All
The ligament/s which limit hip extension is/are:
a. None of these
b. Pubofemoral ligament
c. Ischiofemoral ligament
d. all of these
e. iliofemoral ligament
Children with spastic cerebral palsy demonstrate pathological gait following, EXCEPT:
a. Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is evident
b. May be accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt during the stance phase
c. Often accompanied by excessive knee flexion or hyperextension
d. Decreased walking speed and stride length
patterns as in the
e. Abnormal joint motions including dynamic equinus or excessive ankle plantar flexion during the stance phase of gait
Injury to the right superior gluteal nerve will result in this gait deviation:
a. Increased pressure in heel strike
b. Decreased stride width
c. Lateral flexion of the trunk to the contralateral side
d. Increased swing phase of reference leg
e. Increased duration of weight bearing as the reference extremity
According to the original Borg scale for rating of Perceived on a rating of 15 is described as:
a. Hard
b. Very, Very hard
c. Very, Very light
d. Fairly light
e. light
Stabilize joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Concentric
b. Isometric
c. Isotonic
d. Isokinetic
e. Eccentric
The following example illustrates a positive feedback mechanism:
a. A decrease in blood sugar levels activates receptors that bring blood pressure below
normal
b. An increase in systemic blood pressure activates receptors in the carotid sinus which send signals to the brain, the final response being to bring blood pressures back to normal
c. An increase in blood sugar levels trigger the release of insulin which in turn acts to bring sugar levels down to normal
d. Platelets activated at the site of vascular injury release chemical messenger which attract more platelets to the same area
e. Stretching the muscle spindle results in signals to the motorneuron such that all muscles of origin contract
When an injured site is immobilized in a cast, the following statements are true in the care of a casted lower extremity, EXCEPT:
a. Flexing and extending the toes is an exercise to test nerve function
b. To check for circulation, briefly press on the large toenail until it turns white. Let go, and observe if the normal pink color returns quickly
c. Excess swelling may be prevented by keeping the casted leg elevated on pillows, above chest level
d. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feels itchy, an object may be inserted to try to relieve the itching.
e. If the toes are cold, cover them. Notify the doctor if that doesn't warm them
The following statements characterize the Atlanto-AxiaI joints, EXCEPT:
a. A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
b. The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
c. The gliding movement occurs on the axis
d. The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired
atlanto-occipital joints
e. When the "no" movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament
The following arteries contribute to a rich anastomosis at the base of the brain known as the
Circle of Willis:
a. The two Vertebral Arteries
b. All of these
c. The two Internal Carotid Arteries
d. None of these
Decreases catecholamine stimulation of the heart; may also cause a general decrease in systemic sympathetic activity:
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Diuretics
c. Beta-adrenergic blockers
d. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
e. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:
a. The patient's responses are different from what is expected for asymptomatic subjects
b. It reproduces the patient's symptoms
c. There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared
with the other
d. The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or symptoms
Motor innervations mainly responsible for phonation:
a. Hypoglossal
b. Vagus
c. Phrenic
d. Trigeminal
e. Accessory
These muscles extend the arm and are the chief lateral rotators.
a. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
b. Infraspinatus and Teres Major
c. Subscapularis and Pectoralis Major
d. Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
e. Teres Major and Latissimus Dorsi
Motions in the foot take place on certain joints. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints
b. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the midtarsal joint
c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortis
d. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia and fibula within the ankle mortis
e. Subtalar inversion and eversion take place primarily at the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints
In closed-packed position:
a. Ligament attachments are farthest apart and under tension
b. All of these
c. The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compressed
d. Maximum surface contact occurs
The following characteristics describe Type 11B muscle fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Associated with mitochondria, myoglobin and sparse capillary density
b. Fatigue rapidly
c. High levels of glycolytic enzyme activity
d. Resistent to fatigue
e. Fast contraction times
Using proper body mechanics, which of the following statements is incorrect when moving
an object?
a. Keeping upper body straight, use the leg and hip muscles to stand upright, holding the object close to the body
b. To move an object from table to floor, keep back straight, flex hips and knees and slowly lower the object to the floor
c. If the object is too heavy, ask a coworker for help
d. For an object placed on a high shelf, slide the object off the shelf and using a smooth coordinated movement, lower the object to a waist-level table
e. When lifting the box at waist level, to change direction to the left, move your left foot so
the toes are pointing left
The following may cause biomechanical or physiological predisposition to microtrauma,
EXCEPT:
a. Foot malalignment that places abnormal stresses on particular tissues
b. Insufficient flexibility
c. Improper technique
d. Proportional relationship between maximum output capacity and rapid expulsion of force
e. Limb length discrepancies
The radial nerve dominant test is designed to place tensile stress on neural tissues of the upper limb along the course of the radial nerve. The following motions are applied to the upper limb with the patient in supine, EXCEPT:
a. Medial rotation of the shoulder
b. Shoulder girdle depression with approximately 10 degrees of shoulder abduction
c. Elbow extension
d. Ulnar deviation
e. Supination of the forearm
The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limb
b. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries organs
c. Can be caused by mobility and an increase in blood cells
d. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
e. Can originated in the deep veins of the legs
Which of the following is true of the coracoclavicular ligament?
a. The coracoclavicular ligament travel altogether in all of coracoclavicular joint movements of any considerable extent
b. Due to the fibers oblique direction, the ligament transmits forces applied to the scapula at the shoulder region, to the medial 2/3 of the clavicle
c. All of these
d. A fibrous joint that allows some independent movement between the clavicle and coracoids process
The following are characteristics of below-knee amputees, EXCEPT:
a. Positioning the body weight more posterior with respect to the knee would increase the external knee flexion moment, thus placing a higher demand on the quadriceps femoris musculature
b. To compensate for decreased tibial mobility, progression is augmented through a backward trunk lean
c. There may be decreased tibial speed, which may be attributed to the lack of normal ankle mechanics because of the cushioned heel keeps body weight on the heel
d. Increasing stride length during fast walking is more dependent on torque of the amputated limb knee extensors
e. There is prolonged hip extensor activity, more than twice the duration and intensity of
normal
The normal neck shaft angle is:
a. 115
b. 130
c. 125
d. 120
e. 110
Following statements describe fibromyalgia, EXCEPT:
a. A nonarticular rheumatic disease of unknown origin characterized by tenderness at 11 or more of the 18 tender points sites
b. Cardiovascular training offers no benefit in reducing the symptoms
c. There may be patient-reported joint swelling without objective findings of swelling
d. The tender points are primarily localized to the musculotendinous junctions
e. Generalized fatigue, chronic headache and sleep disturbance may be present
The following statements characterize the fibula, EXCEPT:
a. The upright triangle at the lower end of its medial aspect
b. Act as a lateral "splint" for the ankle joint
c. Has three joints with the tibia and one with the talus
d. The fibula is the whole security of the ankle joint
e. Act as pulley for tendons passing behind it at the ankle
The following statements describe lesions in lumbosacral levels, EXCEPT:
a. The spinal cord ends at the L-1 to L-2 vertebral level in adults
b. Lesions above the L-1 vertebral level which interrupt the descending spinal cord pathways yet spare the sacral components
c. The sacral components are not spared in lesions above the L-1 vertebral level
d. The vertebral level of injury does not always correlate with the spinal segment level of injury
e. In adults, injuries at or below the L-1 vertebral level that damage the S2 to parenchyma will damage the lower motor neurons and parasympathetic center located in the S-2 to S-4 spinal cord segments.
In this test, the patient is asked to place the thumb inside his closed fist. If passive or active
ulnar deviation of the wrist produces pain over the styloid process of the radius, this
indicates a:
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Positive Finkelstein's test
c. Positive Hoffman sign
d. negative disdiadokokinesia
e. negative Finkelstein's test
The ability to move within a given posture without loss of balance:
a. Harmony
b. Steadiness
c. Dynamic stability
d. Symmetry
e. Order
Foot orthotic devices inserted between the foot and shoe to modify foot biomechanics are
used in clinical settings for conditions aggravated by excessive pronation which include the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Posterior tibial tendinitis
b. Anterior tibial tendinitis
c. Achilles tendinitis
d. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
e. Plantar fasciitis
Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and movements, additionally, muscles also participate in posture and movements according to limb and body position in relation to gravity, applied resistance, and velocity in motion:
a. Both statements are true
b. First statement is true, second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. First statement is false, second statement is true
Following are example of anatomic pulleys, EXCEPT:
a. In the leg, where tendons of the peroneal and long toe flexor descend distally on the posterior aspect of the legs and go behind and around the malleoli to form attachments in the foot and toes
b. In the quadriceps and patellar tendons, where the direction of pull is changed as the knee flexed, and improves the force arm distance due to the interposed patella
c. When the flexor digitorum superficialis contract, their tendons rise from the joint axes, and held down by loops that deflect the tendon with movement
d. The patella raising the line of pull of the quadriceps muscle from the knee joint axis
e. In the palmar side of the phalanges, when the flexor digitorum profundus contract their tendons rise from the joint axes, and held down by seven loops that deflect the tendon with movement
The anterior 1/3 is rostral to the central sulcus and above the lateral fissure on the lateral surface of the hemisphere:
a. Occipital lobe
b. Insular lobe
c. Parietal lobe
d. frontal lobe
e. temporal lobe
Optic radiation lesions could result in the following visual field defects, EXCEPT:
A. The more the posterior the lesion, the more nearly do the visual field defcts in the two eyes resembe each other
B. Temporal lobe lesion results in an ipsilateral homonymous superior quandrantinopsia
C. Parietal lob lesions is a contralateral homonymous, inferior quandrantinopsia
D. Interruption of the entire radiation gives complete loss of vision to the opposite side, homonymous hemianopsia
The center of gravity at its lowest point is raised by:
a. Knee motion during stance
b. Adduction of femur
c. Femoral abduction
d. pelvic tilt
e. pelvic rotation
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome can result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Compression can stem from anterior dislocation of the lunate bone or swelling secondary
to Colles
b. Constriction of the tunnel traps the tendons running through it, and restricts, and may even prevent flexion of the fingers
c. Flexing the subject's wrist to its maximum degree and holding it in that position for at least a minute may reproduce tingling of the fingers (Phalen's Test)
d. Pain is elicited or reproduced by tapping over the volar carpal ligament
e. Compression of the median nerve can restrict motor function and sensation along its distribution in the lower arm.
The following interactions are true, EXCEPT:
a. The muscles are only able to maintain weight and force if they are passively stretched by changing joint angle
b. Physiological extensors that maintain body posture against gravity are activated more frequently than flexors
c. Unloaded muscles lose weight and are less forceful even if they are exercised or stimulated for 20 minutes per day
d. A muscle contracting at a long length would produce a greater load because of the passive length-tension properties of the muscle
e. Shortening contractions in unloaded muscles will induce fatigue more rapidly thanisotonic contractions because more oxygen is consumed.
The state when the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced
a. Terminal velocity
b. Inertia
c. Force Vector
d. Gravity minimized
e. Equilibrium
Fractures, though not usually life threatening, may be caused by:
a. Pathologic muscle contractions and pathologic decay
b. All of these
c. Fatigue or stress
d. Direct force
e. Torsion force
The following are true of the spinal (or dorsal root) ganglia, EXCEPT:
a. Each spinal nerve possesses one, and the ganglia are found each in intervertebral foramen resting on a pedicle
b. A collection of cell bodies whose axons are in the anterior horn of the gray matter of the cord
c. Each spinal ganglion's cell body is part of a unipolar, afferent neuron having a T-shaped axon
d. All of these
The following statements describe power, EXCEPT:
a. Power will be positive when the moment and angular velocity are in the opposite direction
b. A positive power usually indicates that the muscle is generating mechanical energy (concentric contraction)
c. Reflects rate of work performed at a given joint
d. A negative power usually indicates that the muscle is absorbing mechanical energy (eccentric contraction)
e. Calculated by taking the product of the moment and the joint angular velocity
The stretching technique uses a bouncing or quick, jerking movements imposed on the muscles to be stretched and can theoretically exceed thee extensibility limits of the muscle in an uncontrolled manner and cause injury:
a. Compound stretch
b. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
c. Sustained stretch
d. Ballistic stretch
e. Static stretch
The following are examples of deep somatic sensations, except:
a. Deep pain
b. Strong smell
c. Proprioception
d. Vibration sense
e. Deep pressure
The perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action of the weight is the:
a. Mechanical advantage
b. Force arm
c. Lever arm
d. Mechanical disadvantage
e. Weight arm
Fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy presents the following clinical posture, except:
a. Degree involvement ranges from facial weakness to severe generalized weakness
b. Initially affects facial, scapular, upper arm, abdominal and foot dorsiflexor weakness
c.disease may progress to the proximal hip and distal arm and hand musculature
d. Mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant
e. Course is usually progressive but does not progress to wheelchair dependence
With respect to tying a traction knot, the following statements are true, except:
a. To prevent fraying, tape cord around the area you’ll be cutting
b. For safety, all traction knots are are checked every eight hours
c. The most commonly used knot is the slipknot
d. The free end cord of the knot is secured by wrapping it with adhesive tape
e. The wrap must also be wrapped and covered with adhesive tape
Cervical root compression syndromes are illustrated by the following, except:
a. There is localized paraspinal pain and tenderness which may precede extreme pain and which indicates a focus of disease proximal to the shoulder joint
b. Usually involves one of the three lower cervical nerve roots : C6, C7, C8
c. Gentle manipulation of the neck reproduces pain felt below the elbow, and duplicates parethesia in the hand
d. If moderate pressure over the spin enhances pain felt, the extremity impingement may be from other sources
Often, neck movements are restricted
This muscle contract maximally when flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees:
a. Pectineus
b. Rectus femoris
c. Iliopsoas
d. Sartorius
Compression side fractures of the inferior side of the femoral neck are characterized by the following statements, except:
a. With an overt fracture line, bed rest is indicated
b. Usually negative radiograph and positive bone scintigraphy initially
c. If sclerosis is present without an overt fracture, bed rest is indicated
d. Any widening of the fracture line would require stabilization with multiple Kowles pins
e. When hip pain is absent at rest, gradual weight bearing and increase inactivity are begun
Rh factor incompatibility occurs in this setting
a. Rh (-) mother , Rh (+) father , Rh (+) fetus
b. Rh (+) mother , Rh (+) father , Rh (-) fetus
c. Rh (-) mother , Rh (-) father , Rh (+) fetus
d. Rh (+) mother , Rh (+) father , Rh (+) fetus
e. Rh (-) mother , Rh (+) father , Rh (-) fetus
Stimulation of mass movements after ingestion of normal meal is called:
a. Ileal break
b. Gastrocolic reflex
c. Enterogastric reflex
d. Gastrosphincteric reflex
e. Retrosphincteric reflex
The following applies to an open-complicated-complete-oblique fracture:
a. All of these
b. Fracture has injured surrounding nerves and blood vessels causing additional complications
c. The bone breaks and completely snapped
d. Either one or both broken ends protrude through or communicates with the wound site
e. The bone breaks at an angle
The following statements characterize nervous system, except:
a. The speed at which a nerve impulse travels along the length of an axon is related to the diameter of the axon
b. In a peripheral nerve, the average conduction velocity or large motor and sensory fibers is about the same
c. Impulse conduction is faster in axons with myelin sheath
d. Large axons conduct impulses at a slower velocity
Gait in the hemiplegic is described as follows, except:
a. The rectus femoris resist knee flexion in the swing phase
b. Hip hiking is related to ipsilateral trunk leaning and abduction to the contralateral hip
c. Toe-off is delayed on the affected side
d. The hip and knee flexes to clear the foot which the ankle is plantar flexed through the swing phase
e. Forward momentum of the thigh results in backward movement of the pelvis
A powerful medial rotator and abductor of the arm, the clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint and from this position the sternal head extends the shoulder joint:
a. Serratus anterior
b. Teres Major
c. Pectoralis Major
d. Pectoralis Minor
e. Latissimus Dorsi
Muscle group affected in tennis elbow
a. Elbow extensors
b. Elbow flexors
c. Wrist pronator
d. Wrist extensors
e. Wrist flexors
The ability of the stomach to accommodate food and fluid without a significant increase in pressure is known as:
a. Repetitive relaxation
b. Perceptive Relaxation
c. Retropulsion
d. Tone
e. Sieving function
Stimulation of carotid baroreceptors:
a. Occurs when blood pressure is elevated, thus stretching the blood vessel walls
b. All of these
c. Results in decreased heart rate and decreased cardiac contractility
d. None of these
e. Result in reflex vasodilation
Functional map of the motor cortex resembling an image of the body turned upside down and reversed left to right:
a. Homonculus
b. Brodmann's area
c. Premotor cortex
d. None of these
Blood flow velocity is least in:
a. Capillaries
b. Arteries
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Veins
The most effective stimulus for the muscle spindle to elicit the knee jerk is:
a. Touch
b. Needle prick
c. Stretch
d. Pain
e. Stimulation of the proprioceptors
At a comfortable room temperature (24-25 deg. C) the major mechanisms of heat exchange between the skin and environment is:
a. Conduction, convection and evaporation
b. Radiation, conduction and convection
c. Radiation, conduction and evaporation
d. evaporation, convection and conduction
e. radiation, convection and evaporation
This type of traction immobilizes a body part for prolonged periods by attaching weighted equipment directly to the patient's bones, accomplished with pins, screws, wires or tongs:
a. Weight Traction
b. Skin Traction
c. Skeletal Traction
d. Manual Traction
e. Equipment Traction
To prevent both regurgitation and aspiration, the optimal position for patients with neuromuscular conditions but without increased intracranial pressure or gastric dysfunction is:
a. Prone and Trendelenberg
b. Ventral Trendelenberg
c. Medial Trendelenberg
d. lateral Trendelenberg
e. Supine and Trendelenberg
A set of attributes that people have or achieve that relates to the ability to perform physical activity:
a. Exercise
b. Physical fitness
c. Physical activity
d. Work out
e. Aerobics
Gait following stroke is grossly characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Lesser than normal knee flexion moment at mid-stance
b. Sometimes loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle in the swing phase and initial contact
c. Reduction or loss of the knee flexion phase in stance
d. Increased stance on the unaffected side and decreased stance phase on the affected side
e. Reduction of knee flexion in the swing phase
If two forces are pulling from the same point, the resultant force:
a. Decreases as the angle between the two forces increase
b. Is the sum of the two forces
c. Reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction
d. Is the diagonal of the parallelogram
e. Increases as the angle between the two forces decreases
When one shifts to an upright from supine position:
a. The lungs receive a greater portion of the cardiac output
b. More blood shifts to the venous portion of the circulation
c. The heart receives a lesser portion of the cardiac throughout
d. The heart receives a greater portion of the cardiac output
e. More blood shifts to the arterial portion of the circulation
Rupture of this ligament allows excessive backward movement of the tibia on the femur:
a. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
b. Lateral Collateral Ligament
c. Medial Collateral Ligament
d. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
This ligament maintains the forward concavity and forms a bridge deep to which pas the numerous tendons that flex the wrist and fingers:
a. Annular ligament
b. Denticulate ligament
c. Intraarticular ligament
d. Flexor retinaculum
e. Extensor retinaculum
This cranial nerve supplies the muscles of expression, including the Buccinator:
a. Fifth
b. Eight
c. Seventh
d. Third
e. Ninth
In the normal upright adult lung, blood flow is greatest at this part of the lung:
a. Both at the base and apex
b. At the base
c. At the apex
d. equally distributed throughout
e. near the middle
Cerebrospinal fluid fill these cavities within the brain:
a. Cistern
b. Ventricles
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Meninges
e. Sinus
Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSP) are produced with hyperpolarization of the cell membrane. This is due to:
a. Sulfate influx
b. Potassium influx
c. Magnesium influx
d. Chloride ion influx
e. Sodium influx
A movement disorder resulting from pathological changes involving the cortex and basal ganglia and characterized by slow writhing movements of a wormlike character involving the extremities, trunk and neck:
a. Athetosis
b. Chorea
c. NOTA
d. Paralysis Agitans
The following conditions describe lesion of the cerebellum, EXCEPT:
a. An oscillating tremor may appear on attempted movement
b. Lesions of the vermis cause difficulty in maintaining upright posture, ataxia of gait and truncal ataxia
c. Nystagmus is often present
d. Acute cerebellar hemispheric lesion produces a tendency to fall to that side with weakness and hypotonia
e. Intrinsics lesion produce sensory deficits
This lifting or stooping technique reduces the stress on both the back and the knees. The feet are positioned shoulder width part with one foot slightly in front of the other. One hand is placed on the forward thigh or a fixed object as the knees and hips are bent and then lowers him to pick up the item. The lift is completed by pushing off with the supporting hand Ias he stands up:
a. Power lift
b. Tripod lift
c. Partial squat lift with support
d. deep squat lift
e. Diagonal lift
Frowning muscle:
a. Procerus
b. Nasalis
c. Frontalis
d. Corrugator supercilli
The site of most frequent fracture of the upper end of the humeral shaft:
a. Greater tubercle
b. Bicipital groove
c. Surgical neck
d. Anatomical neck
Cell's permeability causes this rapid exchange of positive and negative ions:
a. Action potential
b. Repolarization
c. Membrane potential
d. resting potential
e. depolarization
The following statements describe the prosthesis of an above knee amputee, EXCEPT:
a. When a SACH foot is used, it is set at about 90 degrees with respect to the shank
b. At faster speeds, a knee damper assists in improving control of the calf momentum
c. To improve foot clearance, the unaffected pelvis may be elevated
d. Due to lack of propulsion on the calf, the pelvis drops in late stance on the prosthetic side
e. The prosthetic limb's forward motion must be generated at a site other than the calf
Body parts moving in the same direction with equal velocity:
a. Transfer
b. Parallel
c. Rotary
d. Translatory
e. Angular
The following statements are true of the shoulder joint. EXCEPT:
a. The scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament An implication of the shoulder's structural modification to increase mobility is that it
b. relies on ligaments to provide adequate stability
c. The ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion
d. The joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing 2 to 3 cm. of distraction between articular surfaces
e. The articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity
Principles of prevention of cumulative trauma injury for the hands and wrists include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Eliminate direct pressure on the palm
b. Design tools to keep wrist in the "neutral" position
c. Isolate vibration
d. Increase excessive or unnecessary grasping force where possible
e. Reduce the number of repetitions
The posterior triangle of the neck is bounder by the following structures:
a. The Scalene. Levator Scapulae, and Splenius
b. Trapezius, Sternohyoid and Clavicle
c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle
d. Splenius, Capitis, Sternohyoid, and clavicle
e. Omohyoid, Sternocleidomastoid and Levator Scapulae
Cranial nerve integrity involves several components, Tests and measures are used to localize dysfunction in the brain stem and cranial nerves, and are appropriate in the presence of the following impairments, EXCEPT:
a. Aerobic capacity and endurance
b. Joint integrity and mobility
c. Gait. locomotion. and balance
d. neuromotor development and sensory integratione. muscle performance
e. muscle performance
ConductIon in the nerve axon has:
a. Forward flow that is otherwise called an antidromic conduction
b. Negative charges that is otherwise called orthodromic salutatory conduction
c. Unmyelinated nerve axons called saltatory
d. Positive charges that flow into an area of negativity called the current sink
e. Backward flow that is otherwise called orthodromic conduction
In comparison to motor stimulation, sensory nerve excitation, irrespective of waveform, require less of the following, except:
a. Phase charge
b. Peak voltage
c. Total pulse charge
d. Differential amplitude
e. Peak current
This artery enters the thigh in the midline in front, descends vertically and supplies the lower limb:
a. Left femoral circumflex artery
b. Tibial artery
c. Femoral artery
d. Popliteal artery
Craniosacral therapy is a relatively new evaluation and treatment approach and assumes the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows. EXCEPT:
a. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals different from any other rhythm in the body
b. Restricted craniosacral motion and presence of pathology in the body can guide corrective treatment to produce improvements in pain and dysfunction
c. It is a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
d. It is unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise. emotion and rest
e. It is claimed to changed in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
The immobile but not rigid union of this ligament provides security to the ankle joint:
a. Calcaneocuboid
b. Superior tibiofibular
c. Subtalar
d. Inferior tibiofibular ligament
e. Interosseous tibiofibular ligament
The following statements apply to elbow flexion range of motion, EXCEPT:
a. Normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees
b. Subjects with little soft tissue have a hard end-feel
c. Has hard end-feel on contact of muscle between arm and forearm
d. Contact on the muscle between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
e. Averages 145 degrees
When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a/an:
a. Antagonist
b. Synergist
c. Prime mover
d. Postural muscle
e. Fixators
Which of the following is consideration in wheelchair selection?
a. For a patient with poor sitting balance. recommend a chair with a solid seat
b. All of these
c. If your patient has bilateral leg amputations, recommend a chair with wheels set back a few inches
d. A wheelchair with several types of hand projections on the handrims is indicated for patients with arm or hand weakness e. None of these
The greater sciatic notch immediately below the sacro-iliac joint allows this nerve to pass:
a. Gluteal nerve
b. Femoral nerve
c. Genitofemoral nerve
d. Sciatic nerve
e. Obturator nerve
When using exogenous microcurrents. the type of tissue to be stimulated and the status of the tissue determine the polarity of the treating electrode. What type of stimulation would you use with an indolent ulcer?
a. Either Cathodal or Anodal
b. Cathodal and Anodal
c. Anodal
d. Not indicated
Acute postoperative rehabilitation of lung transplant cases include the following, EXCEPT:
a. ROM exercises progressing to transfer out of bed
b. Adequate pain control, optimal positioning, and modification in coughing techniques
c. Huff coughing with closure of the glottis
d. Postural drainage with shaking or vibration provided the patient is stable
e. Body positioning and mobilization
The following statements describe 02 carrying capacity of the blood, EXCEPT:
a. A shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right facilitates the unloading of 02 from hemoglobin
b. The 02 content of the blood is determined by the amount of hemoglobin in the blood and by the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
c. Decreases concentration of carboxyhemoglobin produces a leftward shift of the curve impairing 02 delivery
d. Acidosis and increased body temperature facilitate the unloading of 02 from hemoglobin and the diffusion of 02 from capillaries to muscle cells
e. A shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left impairs the amount of 02 extracted by muscle
Joint motion kinematic pattern is predictable during walking. The moments that influence these motions may be variable depending on the strategy used to achieve the kinematic result. The following describe these moments during the stance phase of gait, EXCEPT:
a. The moment pattern at the knee is the least consistent lower extremity joint moment because moment at the ankle and hip can control movement at the knee when the foot is fixed on the ground
b. Support moment has a shape similar to the vertical ground reaction force during stance
c. Movement about the ankle has a consistently recognized moment pattern i.e., a small dorsiflexor moment followed by a large plantar-flexor moment
d. The summation of the ankle plantar-flexor. knee extensor and the hip extensor moment remains inconsistent
e. Moment pattern at the hip is less consistent than at the ankle, but usually shows an extensor moment followed by a flexor moment
The following levels of amputation are presently being performed. EXCEPT:
a. Removal of arm from 7" above the elbow
b. Removal of the foot at ankle joint
c. Removal of lower arm about 7" below the elbow at the junction between the middle and lower third of the forearm
d. Removal of leg 5" to 7" below the tibia
e. Removal of patella with quadriceps brought over femur end
This muscle separates the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle and protects the great vascular and nerve trunks:
a. Sternohyoid
b. Scalenus anterior
c. Sternothyroid
d. Sternocleidomastoid
e. Omohyoid
Examples of static load include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Standing upright for long periods of time
b. Holding the arms unsupported out in front to do assembly work
c. Walking for long periods of time
d. Continuously holding a tool in one hand and the product in the other
e. Reaching overhead and looking upward
The following statements describe the principle of all-or-non law, EXCEPT:
a. Physiologic mechanism exist for fine gradation of the force of muscle contraction
b. The law applies only to individual motor units
c. All muscle fibers in a given motor unit contract or relax almost simultaneously
d. Activated muscle fibers contract maximally if the nerve activates the motor fibers of a motor unit sufficiently
e. In the same motor unit, it is possible for some muscle fiber to contract while others are relaxed
In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm, the weight to be moved is at the other end the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two:
a. First
b. Second
c. None of these
d. Third
e. Fourth
The following characterize the Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO), EXCEPT:
a. GTOs discharge nerve impulses that are transmitted over large, rapidly conducting afferent axons to the spinal cord and cerebellum
b. GTO nerve impulses at the spinal cord excites inhibitory interneurons
c. GTO nerve impulses at the spinal cord will not limit the force developed to tolerance by the tissues being stressed resulting in injury.
d. GTO's reside within muscle tendons near the points of attachment of the muscle fiber to the tendon
e. Small bundle of muscle fibers produce tension that stimulate GTOs
In the gate control theory of pain, stimulation of large fibers normally leads to inhibition of:
a. Ventral horn cells
b. Substancia gelatinosa interneurons
c. Large diameter fibers
d. small diameter fibers
e. dorsal horn cells
All carpal bones have four articulating surfaces, EXCEPT:
a. Triquetrium
b. Scaphoid
c. Hamate
d. Pisiform
e. Trapezium
These molecules supply energy to myofilaments to allow movement of the actin filaments toward the center of the A bands:
a. Adenosine Triphosphate
b. Calcium Ions
c. Adenosine Diphosphatase
d. AOTA
Stress fractures of the femoral neck are generally characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Radiographs are often negative
b. Injection with a local anesthetic will provide the complete relief of pain
c. There is sudden onset of pain and a recent change in activity level
d. In the early stages, localized pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest is present
e. Localized tenderness may occur at the greater trochanter
Following are the many uses of electromechanical dynamometers. EXCEPT:
a. To establish the relative efficacy of various treatment and training regimens
b. To collect torque curves that might indicate whether pathology or characteristics specific to subject type were present
c. To evaluate the effects of training or testing mode
d. To quantify exercise so that exercise regimens may be administered
e. To classify muscle performance as normal or abnormal by comparisons with the performance of ipsilateral muscles, with normal data, or with muscle performance in a control group.
Coagulopathies interfere with the normal mechanism of the blood and affect the normal blood clotting factor that can result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Excesses do not contribute to tissue infarction
b. Deficits can contribute to bleeding abnormalities and hemorrhage
c. Excesses can contribute thromboemboli
d. Excesses can contribute to obstruction of blood flow to vital organs
e. Deficits and excesses are pathologic and interfere with oxygen transport
The following are possible mechanisms of action for back belts, EXCEPT:
a. Use of biomechanically safe lifting techniques as a result of proprioceptive input
b. Decreased muscular fatigue and strain during lifting as a result of increased muscle support
c. Decreased ROM as a result limiting spinal ROM
d. Existence of a soothing effect as a result of increased local tissue temperature and a sense of safety
e. Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intraabdominal pressure
This nerve passes between the dense fascia of the forearm and the tendons of the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles. The tendons can press on this nerve in a scissor-like fashion when the forearm is pronated, causing a proximal tethering on the distal segment of the nerve at the wrist, leading to entrapment causing pain patterns that can be mistaken for de Quervain's tenosynovitis:
a. Posterior branch of the musculocutaneous nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Dorsal antebrachial cutaneous nerve
d. Median nerve
e. Superficial radial nerve
Terminal branches of the basilar artery:
a. Vertebral arteries
b. Posterior communicating arteries
c. Superior cerebellar arteries
d. Paired posterior cerebral arteries
The amount of calories required concentrating 1 osmole of substance tenfold?
a. None of these
b. 1200 calories
c. 1600 calories
d. 1400 calories
The following are true of the structural foundation of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. The osseous portions of the knee are the femur, tibia, patella, and fibula
b. The added depth of the tibial plateau is extremely important because the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau are both somewhat convex
c. The proximal end of the tibia flares to create a plateau with anterior and posterior section divided by the tibial spines
d. The menisci deepen the contour of the tibial plateau to provide a good seat for the corresponding femur condyles
e. The shape of the femoral medial and lateral condyle is important in the movement of the tibia on the femur
The line of fusion between the External Oblique is the:
a. Linea alba
b. Aponeurosis
c. Inguinal ligament (of Poupart)
d. falx inguinalis
e. transverses abdominis
The following statements are true of medial collateral ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. To test the ligament, push laterally against the knee and medially against the ankle to attempt a varus stress
b. If there is a medial joint line gapping, the ligament is not supporting the knee properly
c. A tear on this ligament leads to joint instability. whereas similar defect in the lateral collateral ligament may have little effect either way
d. A "chunk" is felt when the tibia and femur close together as a stress on the injured joint is relieved
e. To test the ligament, push medially against the knee and laterally against the ankle to attempt a valgus stress
An involuntary trembling and usually used to describe rhythmic alternating movements of a part. May appear largely at rest or be manifest movement:
a. Chorea
b. Tremor
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Myoclonus
e. Athetosis
Hearing impairment resulting from damage to the inner ear or neural fibers of the eight cranial nerve:
a. Peripheral
b. Conductive
c. Mixed
d. Sensorineural
e. Central
This nerve innervates the masseter and temporal muscles, and supplies sensory innervations to the face:
a. Oculomotor
b. Trigeminal
c. Trochlear
d. Facial
e. Abducens
The following are differences between closed (CKC) and open kinematic (CKC) chain exercises, EXCEPT:
a. OKC are typically non-weight bearing, with movement occurring at a single joint
b. In CKC, movement at several joints is required to complete the movement
c. CKC are typically weight bearing, an example would be a knee extension exercise, performed in a sitting position with resistance applied to the distal segment
d. In CKC, the distal segment is usually fixed to a supporting surface, and the resistance may be applied both proximally and distally.
e. In OKC. the distal segment is free to move. and the resistance is usually applied to the distal segment
Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle contraction is known as:
a. Fast waves
b. Slow waves
c. Spikes
d. action potentials
e. tone
Physiological fatigue is a central concern of ergonomics. To prevent undesirable static overload, the following improvements are recommended, EXCEPT:
a. Improvements in equipment heights
b. Layout changes
c. Holding a single comfortable position
d. Keep the body in a neutral posture and the muscle relaxed
e. Braces, straps and supports to hold the tool to the hand
The most powerful protractor of the scapula, its paralysis results in "winged" scapula:
a. Levator Scapulae
b. Pectoralis Minor
c. Rhomboids
d. Serratus Anterior
e. Middle Trapezius
The following statements describe Trochanteric bursitis, EXCEPT:
a. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat
b. There is immediate relief of pain after peritrochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local anesthetic
c. Results from friction between the bursa and the greater trochanter
d. Pain and tenderness may develop in the medial thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas
e. There is marked tenderness to deep palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater trochanter
Following are most frequently reported musculoskeletal or fibrous connective tissue symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. Swelling and numbness of the extremities
b. Swelling in articular, periarticular and soft tissue
c. Nonrestorative sleep with morning fatigue
d. Aches and pains that are specific, fluctuating through the full range of pain sensations frequently accompanied by marked stiffness
e. Tender points frequently accompanied by muscle spasms or nodules that cluster in regions around the neck and shoulders, upper chest wall and lower back
Mitosis can only take place after this event takes place:
a. Enzyme inhibition
b. negative feedback control
c. none of these
d. replication of all DNA in the chromosomes
The surfaces of this joint are nearly flat and circular. Gliding movement occur, the one that shakes the head "No" movement:
a. Axial-Occipital joints
b. Atlanto-occipital joint
c. Atlanto-Axial joints
d. none of these
Disturbance in the execution of speech and often occurs without a disorder of language:
a. Agnosia
b. Aphonia
c. None of these
d. Dysarthria
While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where does the first thoracic nerve exit?
a. Above the second thoracic vertebra
b. Below the second thoracic vertebra
c. Above the first thoracic vertebra
d. Below the first thoracic vertebra
e. Below the seventh cervical vertebra
The following statements are true of the brachialis, EXCEPT.
a. It is an elbow flexor
b. It is innervated by muscutaneous nerve
c. Its proximal attachment is halfway up the shaft of the humerus
d. When the forearm is supinated, the brachialis flexes the elbow with tittle participation from the biceps
e. Attached distally to the coronoid process of the ulna
Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with spasticity, EXCEPT:
a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnein:us msales are diminished
b. Increased muscle tone in the antigravity muscles
c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers
d. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy
e. Predominance of type I fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle months after stroke, when spasticity of cerebral origin has been established
The following statements are true of the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Adapted through evaluation and with the development of bipedal gait to become an integral part of the knee extensor mechanism with all of the characteristics of a "true joint"
b. Forces transmitted from the patella to the femoral sulcus increase as knee flexion increases
c. The patella femoral compression forces are greater than body weight during walking and further increased to 2.5. times body weight during such activities as stair climbing
d. Normal function depends upon adequate stabilization which is provided by both active and passive elements of the extensor mechanism
e. Acting as a fulcrum, its primary function is to increase the extending moment of the quadriceps femoris muscle
This class of lever is found in most open-chain motion of the extremities, e.g. the deltoid acting on the glenohumeral joint
a. Third
b. Second
c. Fourth
d. See-saw
e. First
Charactarized with hypertonicity associated with involuntary quick muscle contraction, increased muscle tone and muscle stretch reflexes:
a. Chorea
b. Tremors
c. Spasticity
d. Athetosis
e. Dystonia
The following conditions are all associated with spasticity, EXCEPT:
a. Reflex irradiation
b. Abnormal muscular co-contraction during voluntary movement
c. Normal patterns of muscular coordination
d. Reduction at the threshold angle at which the stretch reflex is elicited
e. Hypersensitivity to various sensory input in addition to muscle stretch
The causes of short step length and of low speed in the hemiplegics are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Below normal ipsilateral hip extensor activity during ipsilateral stance
b. Weak hip flexor at toe-off and early swing
c. Weak push-ff prior to swing
d. Extensive deceleration of the leg in the late swing
e. Above normal contralateral hip extensor activity during contralateral stance
The following statements describe the anterior abdominal wall, EXCEPT:
a. In pregnancy, the spatial relationship between the superior and inferior muscle attachments are altered as maternal superior thoracic diameter is decreased
b. Consists primarily of four paired muscles, with fibers directed vertically, horizontally, and obliquely
c. The muscles have skeletal attachments on the thoracic cage and pelvis and via broad aponeurosis to both the thoracolumbar fascia and the rectus sheath
d. Alterations in the spatial relationship of muscle attachment and muscle angle of insertion also alters the muscle's ability to produce torque
e. Rectus abdominis muscles may move laterally during pregnancy and may remain separated in the immediate post-birth period
The proximal carpal row consists of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Lunate
b. Scaphoid
c. trapezium
d. pisiform
e. triquetrium
Characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid:
a. Dystonia
b. Chorea
c. Athetosis
d. ballisimus
e. spasticity
The Lateral Longitudinal Arch consist of the following, bones:
a. Calcaneum, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones
b. Bases of the Metatarsal Bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones
c. Calcaneum, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three Cuneiform Bones and the first Three Metatarsal Bones
d. None of these
This structure tends to prevent the radius from being pulled down out of its socket, and completes a collar in which the radial head revolves:
a. Cord
b. Annular ligament
c. Radial collateral ligament
d. Radial notch of the ulna
e. Ulnar collateral ligament
Continuous discomfort may accompany many orthopedic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis:
a. Acute Pain
b. Phantom Pain
c. Superficial Pain
d. Referred Pain
e. Chronic Pain
During the phase of mitosis, 46 pairs of chromatids are separated, forming 46 daughter chromosomes:
a. Anaphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
The following statements are true of the shoulder joint, EXCEPT:
a. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula
b. The movement occurs between the scapula and the humerus
c. The joint is a poor "fit" and a lax capsule
d. It is multi-axial ball-and-socket joint with a remarkable degree of freedom of movement
e. Its extreme mobility is achieved at the expense of stability and security
In Erb-Duchenne Palsy, which of the following movements are not affected:
a. Elbow flexion
b. Wrist extension
c. Forearm supination
d. Shoulder flexion
e. None of the above
The middle trunk is made up only of one nerve root, which is:
a. C7
b. C6
c. T1
d. C8
e. C5
The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:
a. There was inadequate fracture reduction
b. The fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone deformed, weak, and possibly causing pain
c. If malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments
d. If malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing
e. If the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion
Artery which supplies the skin on the posterior side of the leg and muscles of the thigh and leg:
a. Popliteal
b. Dorsalis pedis
c. femoral
d. tibial
e. common peroneal
In this class of lever, the force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved:
a. Third class lever
b. None of these
c. Second class lever
d. First class lever
If there is tibial torsion in tibial torsion test, to what direction will the malleolar line face in relation to the parallel line?
a. If there is internal tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly anteriorly, close to the parallel line
b. If there is internal tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly anteriorly, close to the parallel line
c. If there is internal tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly posteriorly, close to the parallel line
d. If there is external tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly anteriorly, close to the parallel line
e. If there is external tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly posteriorly, close to the parallel line
An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that has a functional capacity adequate to perform only a few or none of the duties of occupation or self-care is classified as Class:
a. III
b. IV
c. V
d. II
e. I
The following statements are true of the condylar type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:
a. Indicated for deteriorated, but not completely destroyed knee joint
b. Indicated for patients that have no functioning ligaments in the knee
c. Allows some adduction, abduction and rotation
d. Patient must have normal knee ligaments
e. Consists of metal rollers fixed onto the femoral condyles and high-density polyethylene cups located on the tibia
The following statement describe the radius, EXCEPT:
a. The radial shaft's crossing over the ulna is further aided by the shaft of the radius that is bowed a little lateral wards
b. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus
c. The important functions of the radius lie at the elbow
d. The radial shaft crosses in front of the ulna while the radial head revolves to perform the movement of pronation
e. The radius lies on a plane anterior to the ulna
The relationship of vertebral levels to cord segments end to spinal roots are as follows:
a. In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L2-L3 level in maturity
b. There are eight cervical cord segments and root pairs but only 7 vertebrae
c. The C8 root exits below the C7 vertebra, and from there down numbered roots leave below the correspondingly numbered vertebrae
d. In the cervical region, the cord segments approximate the corresponding numbered vertebrae, and the roots leave the cord at nearly a right angle
e. The C1 root has no sensory component
The awareness referred to as Kinesthesia is described as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Impulses are transmitted predominantly over group II afferent fibers
b. Awareness of joint motion
c. Awareness of static motion
d. Impulses are sent to the spinal cord, cerebellum and sensory nuclei
e. Kinesthetic signals are generated in response to movements and tension within the tendons
In MMT, when there is visible palpable or muscle contraction but no joint motion is produced, the muscle is graded as:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 0
d.1
e. 2
Lesions in the primary motor region result in the following statements, EXCEPT
a. A few weeks after the immediate body response, enhanced muscle stretch reflexes and Babinski's sign is observed
b. Immediate paresis of the ipsilateral musculature with increased resistance to passive manipulation
c. Immediate paresis of the contralateral musculature with hypotonia and diminished muscle stretch reflexes
d. A few weeks after the immediate body response, partial recovery of muscle strength and development of spasticity of the affected musculature appears
This test requires the patient to lie supine and raise his uninvolved leg if there is back and sciatic pain on the involved side, there may be evidence of space occupying lesion in the lumbar area:
a. Milgram test
b. Well Leg Straight Leg Raising Test
c. Kernig Test
d. Straight Leg Raising Test
e. Hoover Test
The motion that the scapulothoracic joint provides result in the following statements, EXCEPT:
a. Allow the deltoid to function above 90 degrees of arm elevation
b. Increase the range of arm motion
c. Provides glenohumeral stability for work in overhead position
d. Does not allow elevation of the body, i.e. in sitting push-ups
The following statements describe congestive heart failure, EXCEPT:
a. Some type of injury to the myocardium of ten initiates a progressive decline in myocardial function
b. Characterized by decrease in cardiac pumping ability that leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and accumulation of fluid in the lungs and other organs
c. Prognosis for patients with heart failure is often poor, with 5 year mortality rates
d. Compensatory neurohumoral mechanism changes may actually exacerbate myocardial dysfunction by increasing cardiac work load
e. Decreased sympathetic nervous system activation and increased activation of the rennin angiotensin system occurs as the heart fails
An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that is largely or wholly incapacitated, bedridden or using a wheelchair, permitting little or no self-care is classified as Class:
a. V
b. IV
c. I
d. III
e. II
This hip-repair surgical procedure severs hip muscles and tendons around joint to decrease pressure and pain within the joint. The success rate is low and return to full weight status is a lengthy process:
a. Displacement Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis
c. Double-cup Arthroplasty
d. Femoral Prosthesis
e. Muscle Release
Inhibits synthesis of angiotensin II in the bloodstream and various tissues, and decreases angiotensin II mediated vasoconstriction and vascular structural changes:
a. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
b. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
c. Diuretics
d. Calcium channel blockers
e. Beta-adrenergic blockers
Periarticular connective tissues are designed to withstand tensile stress. If these tissues are deprived of tensile stress by being immobilized in a shortened position, the following changes will occur, EXCEPT:
a. Remodeling is halted
b. An increase in the amount of reducible crosslink
c. There is a decrease in its functional length
d. Becomes shorter, weaker, and more stiff
e. Exhibit decreased amounts of collagen, glycosaminoglycans and water
The greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury, is due to:
a. The anterior cruciate ligament where the "screw-home" movement takes place and prohibits any father movement of either extension or rotation
b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface
c. The tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-fourth movements of the medial cartilage
d. The aponeurotic insertion of the large extensor muscle of the knee that largely provides the fibrous capsule for the front and sides of the joint
e. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery
This is a form of indirect inhibition of a nerve cell:
a. After hyperpolarization
b. Renshaw inhibition
c. IPSP due to interneuron
d. Presynaptic inhibition
e. Refractory period
The following statements characterize Tensor Fasciae Latae, EXCEPT:
a. It nerve supply is by the superior gluteal nerve, a branch of the sacral plexus
b. It is inserted into the iliotibial tract of the fascia latae with Gluteus Medius
c. It can help abduct, medially rotate and flex the hip joint
d. Arises from the outer surface of the ilium just behind the anterior superior spine and runs vertically downwards
e. Its important use is to brace the knee so that in walking, the joint can take the weight without "buckling" while the other foot is off the ground and the body is swinging forwards
This gait determinant reduces the vertical drop of the center of gravity during double-stance phase and by forward movement of the hip joint, increases the length of the step:
a. Pelvic rotation
b. Pelvic list
c. Lateral displacement of the pelvis
d. Hip/knee flexion/extension mechanism
e. Knee flexion in stance
Stimulation of thermoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus results in:
a. Vasodilatation
b. Both of these
c. Sweating
d. None of these
A patient using an end-range splinting device in four sessions per day for 30 minutes each session for five days has a "total end-range time" of:
a. 150
b. 600
c. 120
d. 20
e. 75
The following statements characterize idiopathic Parkinson's Disease, EXCEPT:
a. There is progressive accumulation of dopaminergic neurons in the brainstem nuclei
b. As disease advances, motor fluctuations frequently emerge
c. A chronic neurological condition
d. There is reduction in dopamine receptor sites in the striatum
e. Swings in motor performance associated with changing levels of dopamine uptake can result un akinesia, hypokinesia, rigidity, dyskinesia and dystonia
The following statements are true in Trendelenburg test, EXCEPT:
a. Congenital dislocation of the hip which brings the muscle's origin closer to its insertion may result in positive Trendelenburg sign
b. When the subject is asked to stand on one leg and the stands erect, the muscle on the supported side should contract as soon as the leg leaves the ground and should elevate the pelvis on the unsupported side
c. Designed to evaluate the strength of the gluteus medius muscle
d. The subject may exhibit the characteristics Trendelenburg lurch if there is weakness of the gluteus medius
e. If the pelvis on the supported side remains in position or actually descends, the muscle on the supported side is either weak or nonfunctioning
Ligaments function as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure, usually a nerve
b. When movements in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned at once become tensed as the movements proceeds
c. Prohibits movement in undesired plane
d. When abnormal movements are altogether prohibited the ligaments responsible at once are tensed and often violently
e. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
The mitochondria synthesizes this neurotransmitter at the end-plate of the motor neuron:
a. Acetylcholine
b. Troponin
c. adenosine
d. myosin
e. actin
In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is:
a. Edema or loss of function
b. Heat and redness
c. Pain and disturbance of function
d. Redness and edema
e. Edema or pain
These neural difference provide part of the basis for the differences in motor behavior that are observed following perinatal brain damage as compared with those found after adult-onset brain damage, EXCEPT:
a. Myelinization is not yet complete
b. There is an abundance of neurons projecting from the cerebral cortex to the brain stem and spinal cord
c. Neurons within the brain has not completely differentiated
d. Some corticofugal projections project to inappropriate targets
e. There is an overabundance of neurons in certain areas such as the spinal cord
Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of:
a. Secondary active transport mechanism
b. Opening of ligand-gated channels
c. None of these
d. primary active transport mechanism
e. opening of voltage-gated channels
Galvanic current has gained attention in wound healing due to its predictable electric fields that form around the II electrodes, attracting specific types of ions near the different poles. The following takes place under the anode, EXCEPT:
a. Fibroblast migration
b. Increased migration of epidermal cells, macrophages and leukocytes
c. Protein synthesis
d. Enhanced ion transport
e. Decreased vascular congestion
Both peripheral and central nerve fibers have myelin sheath, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have
a. Synaptic transmitter
b. Electrogenesis
c. None of Ranvier
d. Schwann cell
e. Neurolemma
The angle formed by the tendons of the quadriceps and ligamentum patella with the center of the patella:
a. Patellar angle
b. Q angle
c. Genu valgum
d. Genu recurvatum
e. Genu Varum
Soft tissue palpation of the lumbar spine may present the following observation, EXCEPT:
a. Activity flexing the hip when there is psoas abscess results in increased pain in the inguinal area indicating hip joint pathology
b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low back strains or the avulsion of a tendon from the_anterior iliac.spines.
c. Fibro fatty nodules that may be lodged under the lip of the iliac crest's posterior portion may be tender to palpation and cause localized low back pain
d. With the hip flexed, the sciatic nerve may be palpated midpoint between the ischial tuberosity and the greater tubercle and can be tender to palpation when a herniated disc is present
e. If either the supraspinous or interspinous ligaments are ruptured, the area may be tender and a defeat may be palpable between the spinous processes.
The two mode theory of vision asserts that:
a. The degradation of perceptual and sensory systems are linked to potential postural problems
b. The visual system acts not only via the clarity with which it "sees" but also via the information that is generated by the individual's motion through the environment
c. Spatially distributed information comes via the ambient mode, responsible for orientation and locomotion, and the focal mode, responsible for object recognition and identification
d. The somatosensory and visual systems are primarily sensitive to low frequency stimulation
e. Visual perception is anchored to the optic array and emphasizes the important of optical information retrieved from various sectors of the optic array
The following statements describe cumulative trauma disorders, EXCEPT:
a. May be related to a single episode incident
b. The posture maintained by the worker-including the length of time sustained must be addressed in conjunction with the repetitious motion
c. A relatively minor stress, one which has been imposed and successfully sustained numerous times in the past, can result in a significant breakdown of the system
d. A combination or series of stresses applied over a period of time from which adequate recovery does not occur
The only muscle arising on the dorsum of the foot and has not counterpart in the hand:
a. Extensor Digitorum Brevis
b. Peroneous Brevis
c. Extensor Hallucis Longus
d. Extensor Hallucis Brevis
The injury causes paralysis of the Pronator teres and Quadratus, disabling movement such as holding a glass:
a. Radial nerve injury above the elbow
b. Median nerve injury above the elbow
c. Ulnar nerve injury at wrist level
d. Ulnar nerve injury above the elbow
e. Median nerve injury at wrist level
External fixation is used to stabilize fractures that are difficult or impossible to immobilize with casts, traction pins, or plates. It is indicated in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. An acutely infected open fracture
b. A massive open fracture, with extensive soft tissue injury
c. Intra-articular fracture
d. Arthrodesis
e. A comminuted fracture
Sexual dysfunction in spinal cord injury may occur due to the following, EXCEPT:
a. Failure of sympathetic input
b. A combination of these factors
c. Failure of somatic afferent and efferent neurotransmission
d. Failure of sympathetic outflows
e. Psychological distress stemming from changes in body image and feelings of inadequacy
This is an example of the nicotine acetylcholine receptor on the muscle end plate:
a. Anionic current gated mechanism
b. Active transport mechanism
c. Voltage gated ionic channel
d. Passive transport mechanism
e. Ligand-gated ionic channel
A muscle's optimum angle of pull:
a. Obtuse angle
b. Acute angle
c. 45 degrees
d. Right Angle
e. 180 degrees
