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WorksheetsFE
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
1. Which of the following is not a regulatory functions of the kidney?
A. Eliminate muscle waste
B. Maintain blood pressure
C. Conversion of vitamin D to its active form
D. Produce red blood cell
1. What is the main function of renin to the urinary system?
A. Stimulate production of blood
B. Maintain blood pressure
C. Develop diuretic hormone
D. Eliminate waste product
1. Which of the following is not an organ of urinary system?
A. Ureters
B. Scrotum
C. Urinary bladder
D. Urethra
1. What is the length and width of an adult kidney ?
A. 6 cm (2.5 inches) long and 3 cm (1.25 inches) wide
B. 12 cm (5 inches) long and 6 cm (2.5 inches) wide
C. 18 cm (7.5 inches) long and 9 cm (3.75 inches) wide
D. 24 cm (10 inches) long and 12 cm (5 inches) wide
1. In kidney structure, what is the most superficial layer that anchors the kidney and adrenal gland?
A. Renal fascia
B. Peri-renal fat capsule
C. Fibrous capsule
D. Renal hilum
1. What are the two main structures of nephrons?
A. Renal column and renal pelvis
B. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule
C. Renal cortex and renal medullary
D. Renal pelvis and renal column
1. Which of the following is not a protective layers of the kidney?
A. Renal hilum
B. Renal fascia
C. Peri- renal fat capsule
D. Fibrous capsule
1. What is the outer region of kidney?
A. Renal medulla
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal column
D. Renal cortex
1. Which of the following is not a subdivision of renal tubule?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Nephron
C. Distal tubule
D. Proximal tubule
1. are the regions of the kidney in a longitudinal section, except:
A. Renal medulla
B. Renal fascia
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal pelvis
1. Function of Sinuses includes all except one.
a. Lighten the skull
b. Act as resonance chambers for speech
c. Produce mucus
d. Increases surface area
1. Esophagus measures approximately
a. 5 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 7 inches
d. 10 inches
1. It is located in the oropharynx at the end of the soft palate
a. Palatine tonsils
b. Paryngeal tonsils
c. Lingual tonsils
d. Tonsillitis
1. Spoon-shaped flap of elastic cartilage is what you call?
a. Pharynx
b. Larynx
c. Glottis
d. Epiglottis
1. The right lung has how many lobes
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
1. In inspiration intrapulmonary volume
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
1. The pressure within the pleural space is always
a. negative
b. Positive
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
1. In tidal volume ____ ml of air is moved in/out of lungs with each breath
a. 400
b. 500
c. 600
d. 700
1. Air that actually reaches the respiratory zone is what you call
a. Tidal volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Functional volume
1. Respiratory disorder wherein the Mucosa of the lower respiratory passages becomes severely inflamed
a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Lung cancer
1. It is known as the scientific study of hormones and endocrine organs.
A. Sociology
B. Chemistry
C. Biology
D. Endocrinology
1. It is the changing blood levels of certain ions and nutrients stimulate hormone release
A. Humoral Stimuli
B. Neural Stimuli
C. Hormonal Stimuli
D. None of the above
. It is often called as “Master Endocrine Gland”
A. Pineal Gland
B. Thyroid Gland
C. Pituitary Gland
D. Adrenal Gland
It produces releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones that are usually released into portal circulation.
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary Gland
C. Thyroid Gland
D. Adrenal Gland
5. Hormones that inhibit diuresis by promoting water reabsorption by the kidneys.
A. Oxytocin
B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Gonadotropic hormones
6. It is a gland that secretes Melatonin that triggers the body’s sleep and wake cycle.
A. Pituitary Gland
B. Pineal Gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Parathyroid Gland
7. As a first year nursing student, you have knowledge in Anatomy & Physiology. Which statement is not correct regarding Adrenal Gland?
A. Mineralocorticoids hormone regulates water and electrolytes.
B. Glucocorticoids are known as Hyperglycemic Hormones.
C. Aldosterone production is inhibited by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D. Adrenal Glands are found below the kidneys.
8. It is the mixed gland, with both endocrine and exocrine functions.
A. Kidneys
B. Heart
C. Pancreas
D. Lungs
9. This hormone acts with Estrogen to promote breast development.
A. Testosterone
B. Progesterone
C. Androgens
D. All of the above.
10. Fertile women produce this hormone that relaxes pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis for childbirth.
A. Relaxin
B. Human Gonadotropin
C. Human Placental Lactogen
D. Progesterone
Name the structure that produces a thin milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and contributes to about 60% of overall semen volume.
testis
seminal vesicle
epididymis
bulbourethral gland
How many chromosomes are inside the nucleus of a sperm?
46
23
Protects and regulates the temperature of the testis
urethra
scrotum
semen
Reproductive organs that produce eggs, progesterone and estrogen
cervix
vagina
ovaries
The muscular organ the size of a fist where fertilized eggs develop
uterus
ovaries
vagina
Opening of uterus that dilates during delivery
cervix
vagina
Fallopian tube
Pathway for eggs - connect the ovaries to the uterus
ovaries
cervix
Fallopian tube
1. Provides additional enzymes(pancreatic juice) to help nutrients get absorbed by the small intestine.
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Duodenum
1. The tube after the small intestine where the liquid is absorbed.
a. Large intestines
b. Small intestines
c. Rectum
d. Anus
1. A substance such as a fat, a protein, or a carbohydrate that a living thing needs to survive
a. Saliva
b. Nutrients
c. Anti-oxidants
d. Minerals
1. An organ of the digestive system that makes chemicals to help the body break down fats and rid itself of harmful substances.
a. Gallbladder
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Stomach
1. A series of wave-like muscle contractions that moves food to different processing stations in the digestive tract.
a. Adduction
b. Abduction
c. Peristalsis
d. Primary wave
1. The place where waste is stored before it leaves the body.
a. Rectum
b. Anus
c. Duodenum
d. Jejunum
1. The process by which the body breaks down food so that it can be used for energy.
a. Composition
b. Peristalsis
c. Absorption
d. Digestion
1. The muscular organ in the body where chemical and mechanical digestion take place.
a. Pancreas
b. Spleen
c. Stomach
d. Gallbladder
1. Long folded tube inside the body attached to the stomach where nutrients in the food are absorbed.
a. Small intestines
b. Large intestines
c. Stomach
1. To take in matter or energy
a. Collection
b. Absorption
c. Composition
d. Density
1. What is the purpose of antibodies?
a. To pump lymph through the vessels
b. To fight infection
c. To create lymph
d. To remove old red blood cell
1. The lymphatic structure that closely parallell veins are called?
a. Capillaries
b. Lymph
c. Arteries
d. Lymph vessels
1. A lymphatic structure located in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen is called ?
a. Spleen
b. Pancreas
c. Bone marrow
d. Gallbladder
1. The tiny oval shaped lymph structure located throughout the body are known as?
a. Lymph nodes
b. Lymph vessels
c. Spleen
1. The largest lymphatic structure is?
a. Lymph nodes
b. Lymph vessels
c. Spleen
1. What part of the lymphatic system filters foreign material from blood and destroys old RBCs?
a. Spleen
b. Lymph nodes
c. Tonsils
1. The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)
a. Artery
b. Vein
c. Capillaries
1. The _____ lymph nodes are in your neck
a. Axillary
b. Inguinal
c. Neck
d. Thoracic cavity
1. The ______ lymph nodes are in your groin
a. Axillary
b. Inguinal
c. Neck
d. Thoracic cavity
1. How is lymph moved through lymphatic vessels?
a. Contraction of small intestines
b. Contractions of the heart
c. Blood cells carry lymph through blood vessels
d. Contraction of the skeletal muscle around the vessels
61. A terminal branch of the internal carotid artery:
A. None of these
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Ophthalmic artery
D. Lenticulostriate arteries
61. A terminal branch of the internal carotid artery:
A. None of these
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Ophthalmic artery
D. Lenticulostriate arteries
1. The following statements are true of the right atrium, EXCEPT:
A. It receives the venous blood returning from all parts of the body except the lungs
B. The superior vena cava enters its vertically from above
C. The inferior vena cava enters it vertically from below
D. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
1. Reflex response mediated by more than two neurons:
A. None of these
B. Polysynaptic nerve response
C. Both of these
D. Monosynaptic reflex response
1. Pulmonary edema may be caused by:
A. None of these
B. Both of these
C. Damage to the pulmonary capillary membrane due to infection
D. Mitral valve disease or left heart failure
1. he following statements are true, EXCEPT:
A. Abnormal range for acid-base balance is + or – 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4
B. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal
C. Titanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below ½ the normal due to spontaneous generation of nerve impulses in the peripheral nerve
D. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells
1. These junction points are where the terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding neuron:
A. Receptor
B. Synapse
C. End-organ
D. Effector
1. In thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery, the following happens, EXCEPT:
A. Damage to spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense
B. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain
C. Involvement of bilateral corticospinal tract results in flacced paraplegic
D. Produces bilateral atrophy and flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion
1. Nerve supply to the intrinsic muscle of the larynx are branches from:
A. Accessory nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
1. The 10th cranial nerve; its postganglionic fibers innervate cardiac and smooth muscles:
A. Accessory nerve
B. Vestibulocochlear nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
1. The mechanism by which the curvature of the lens surface is increased to bring images of near objects to a focus on the retina:
A. Dispersion
B. Myopia
C. Accommodation
D. Emmetropia
1. Occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery produces the following, EXCEPT:
A. Aphasia if occlusion is in the dominant hemisphere
B. Decreased sensation in the same regions
C. Paralysis of the opposite side of the body
D. Paralysis of the same side of the body
1. These regions of the brain appear to be directly responsible for the regularly function of maintaining body temperature at 34°C:
A. Corticomedial amygdale
B. Preventricular zone of the hypothalamus
C. Preoptic and anterior hypothalamus area
1. Dentrate gyrus and hippocampus Secondary neuron, located in and outlying ganglion and innervates the end organ:
A. Postganglionic neuron
B. Preganglionic neuron
C. Gamma motoneuron
D. None of these
1. Following statements apply to venous pump, EXCEPT:
A. Tightening of the muscles result to vein compression, squeezing the blood out of the veins
B. Efficient enough to maintain less than 25 mmHg venous pressure in the feet of a walking adult
C. If the subjects stands motionless, venous pump does not work, and could increase lower extremity venous pressure to 90 mm Hg in about 30 seconds
D. Valves in veins allow bi-directional flow to and from the heart
1. Blood clotting mechanism include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Prothrombin is catalyzed into thrombin
B. Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin threads to form the clot itself
C. Prothrombin acts as enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin threads
D. Prothrombin activator is formed in response to a ruptured vessel
1. In Romberg’s sign, the patient stands with feet together and eyes open; the sign is positive if the patient sways or falls when the eyes are closed:
A. First statement is false, second statement is true
B. Both statements are false
C. Both statements are true
D. First statement is true, second statement is false
1. These fibers crosses the midline from one hemisphere to the other, a pathway of communication between the two hemispheres:
A. Association fibres
B. Projection fibres
C. Commissural fibres
D. None of these
1. A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain:
A. Cerebral Aqueduct of Sylvius
B. Lateral Ventricle
C. Subarachnoid Space
D. Cistern
1. This lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parietooccipital is caudal to the preoccipital notch, and occupies and extensive area on the medial aspect of the hemisphere:
A. Occipital lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Insular lobe
D. Frontal lobe
1. Deep tendon reflexes, i.e knee jerk are:
A. Polysynaptic nerve response
B. Monosynaptic reflex response
C. Both of these
D. None of these
1. Sixth cranial nerve of the pons and medulla:
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
1. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Vagus nerve
1. The following statements are true of the facial nerve, EXCEPT:
A. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscle of the middle ear
B. It emerges from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and medulla oblongata
C. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata
D. It controls taste sensation from the anterior part of the tongue and the floor of the mouth and from the palate
1. The sensory nerve supply of the eyeball is:
A. Ophthalmic division of the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve
B. Third (oculomotor) cranial nerve
C. Fourth (trochlear) cranial nerve
D. Sixth (abducent) cranial nerve
1. The pressure at the height of each pulse, which is about 120 mm Hg in young adults:
A. Stroke volume output
B. Diastolic pressure
C. Pulse pressure
D. Systolic pressure
1. The aorta is the great artery leaving this chamber of the heart:
A. Left auricle
B. Right auricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
1. The sinu-atrial node, which regulates the strength and rate of the heart beat is located in the wall of:
A. Right auricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left auricle
1. Brain development begins with the differentiation of three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube:
A. Telencephalon, diencephalon and mesencephalon
B. Mesecephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon
C. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon
D. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombecenphalon
1. Normal spread of excitation in the heart is:
A. SAN, AVN, bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles
B. AVN, bundle of His, Atrium, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles
C. SAN, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, Bundle of His, Ventricles
D. SAN, Bundle of His, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles
AVN, SAN, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles
1. The most important substance regulating blood pressure that is produced by the kidney is:
A. Vasopressin
B. Renin
C. Atrial natriuretic hormone
D. Prostaglandin
1. Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if:
A. Stroke volume increases
B. There is maintained exertion
C. Calcium channel blockers are administered
D. Cardiac output decreases
1. Normal cardiac rhythm is:
A. 40-70 bpm
B. 30-60 bpm
C. 120-150 bpm
D. 60-100 bpm
1. A 35-year-old woman suffered brain injury in a motor vehicle accident and presents with the following symptoms: an intention tremor, nystagmus, hypotonia, and dysdiadochokinesia. What is the most likely location of the lesion?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Dorsal columns
C. Frontal lobe
D. Cerebellum
1. Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during:
A. Rapid ejection period
B. First 1/3 of diastole
C. Isovolumic contraction period
D. Vasodilation
1. A recent physician entry indicates that the patient is currently taking immunosuppressive medication. Which laboratory test should be the most frequently monitored based on the patient’s medication?
A. Hematocrit
B. Hemoglobin
C. Platelet count
D. White blood cell count
1. The following statements describe O2 carrying capacity of the blood, EXCEPT:
A. A shift of the Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right facilitates the unloading of O2 from hemoglobin
B. The O2 content of the blood is determined by the amount of hemoglobin in the blood and by the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
C. Decreased concentration of carboxyhemoglobin produces a leftward shift if the curve impairing O2 delivery
D. Acidosis and increased body temperature facilitate the unloading of O2 from hemoglobin and the diffusion of O2 from capillaries to muscle cells
1. A solution in water crystalloids and colloids:
A. Plasma
B. Phagocytes
C. Blood platelets
D. Macrophages
39. All of the following statements, characterize salutatory conduction of nerve impulse, EXCEPT:
A. None of these
B. It is slow process
C. Conduction is continuous
D. Conduction takes place at the nodes of ranvier
Venous return to the heart may be sided by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tight elastic shockings
B. Massage
C. A sedentary job
D. Venous valves
