Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsTATA Quizz
Total questions: 140
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
LASER stands for
a)
Light Analysis by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b)
Light Amplification by Scattering Emission of Radiation
c)
Light Analysis by Stimulated Emission of Ratio
d)
Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
2.
Most Hazardous form of LASER
a)
Class - 1
b)
Class - 4
c)
Class - 2
d)
Class - 3
3.
Workplace Safety
a)
OSHAS- 45001
b)
OSHAS- 46002
c)
OSHAS- 48003
d)
OSHAS- 49004
4.
The Best and Most commonly used Shielding gas for LASER WELDING is
a)
Carbon di-oxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Flourine
d)
Helium
5.
LASER welding is an example of
a)
Liquid state Welding
b)
Solid state Welding
c)
Fusion Welding
d)
Both A & C
6.
The Main reason for using Inert gases as shielding gases is
a)
Very Low Cost
b)
Forms Oxidation reaction
c)
Non-Reactive
d)
Forms Plasma
7.
Blanketing in LASER is done with the help of
a)
Shielding Gases
b)
Infra Red rays
c)
Paints
d)
Varnishes
8.
G present in the Weld symbol represents
a)
Grooving Finish
b)
Grinding Finish
c)
Chipping Finish
d)
Greased Finish
9.
which of the following is / are the Defects of Laser Welding?
a)
Overlap
b)
Porosity
c)
Both A & B
d)
Good Surface Finish
10.
MPE stands for
a)
Maximum Permissible Exposure
b)
Minimum Permissible Exposure
c)
Minimum Permissible Expression
d)
Minimum Prioritised Expression
11.
Which class laser is used for the machining, welding & cutting operation?
a)
Class - 2
b)
Class - 1
c)
Class - 4
d)
Class - 3
12.
Brinell`s test, Vicker`s Test & Rockwell Test are examples of
a)
Hardness Test
b)
Impact Test
c)
Tensile Test
d)
Compression Test
13.
NDT stands for
a)
Non-Development Treatment
b)
Non-Destructive Testing
c)
New Development Test
d)
No-one Done Test
14.
Which of the following is the example of NDT?
a)
Radiography Testing
b)
Ultra-Sonic Tesing
c)
Tensile Test
d)
Both A & C
15.
OSHAS stands for
a)
Occupational Safe and Hazard Assessment System
b)
Occupational Safety and Health Assessment System
c)
Ocular Safety and Hazardous Assessment System
d)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration Standards
16.
The process of applying an adhesive is:
a)
Speedy
b)
Costly
c)
slow
d)
Cumbersome
17.
Which of the below glue can be made plastic again by re-heating?
a)
Thermo-setting
b)
Rubber glue
c)
Animal protein glue
d)
Thermo-plastic
18.
The substances which are capable of uniting two other materials together by adhering strongly to the surface of both are called ____________
a)
Organic conducting polymers
b)
Biodegradable polymers
c)
Adhesives
d)
Composites
19.
Adhesives joints are leak-proof for ____________
a)
Solids only
b)
Liquids only
c)
Gases only
d)
Both liquids and gases
20.
The strength of adhesive joint is _____________ than mechanical joint obtained by welding or riveting.
a)
More
b)
Less
c)
Equals to
d)
Very less
21.
On increasing the temperature, the strength of adhesive ____________
a)
Remain same
b)
Increases
c)
Decreases
d)
First increases than decreases
22.
I can learn about the hazards of specific chemicals by
a)
Asking a co-worker
b)
Reading the Material Safety Data Sheet
c)
Reading science magazines
d)
Talking to friends about it
23.
Material Safety Data Sheets provide information about
a)
Hazards about a specific chemical
b)
Emergency information
c)
Information on chemical reactions
d)
All of the above
24.
Nylon threads are made of
a)
polyester polymer
b)
polyamide polymer
c)
polyethylene polymer
d)
polyvinyl polymer
25.
The thing that does the dissolving
a)
Solute
b)
Solvent
c)
Colloid
d)
Solution
26.
Polymers are dissolved in common solvent to give ____________
a)
Mechanical blends
b)
Solution-cast blends
c)
Latex blends
d)
Chemical blends
27.
The property of adhesives to with stand its strenght till certain temperature is known as
a)
Chemical resistance
b)
Curing
c)
Thermal Resistance
d)
Absorbtion
28.
The process of joining similar or identical particles/surfaces to cling to one another is known as
a)
Cohesion
b)
Adhesion
c)
Wetting
d)
None of the above
29.
Which of the following order is followed for adhesive bonding procedure
a)
i. Surface preparation ii. Application of adhesive iii. Curing
b)
i. Surface preparation ii. Curing iii. Application of adhesive
c)
i. Curing ii. Surface preparation iii. Application of adhesive
d)
i. Application of adhesive ii. Surface preparation iii. Curing
30.
Which of the following action can be taken, If solvent has been swallowed by the person and he/she is conscious
a)
Check the product label and SDS for further instructions
b)
Wash the contaminated skin thoroughly with soap and water
c)
Wash with clean, running water for a minimum of 15 minutes
d)
Give them a lot of water to drink
31.
Identify the device through which data and instructions are entered into a computer
a)
Software
b)
Output device
c)
Input device
d)
Memory
32.
The brain of any computer system is
a)
MONITOR
b)
CPU
c)
KEYBOARD
d)
RAM
33.
Which one is the secondary memory device ?
a)
ALU
b)
RAM
c)
CPU
d)
CD
34.
A ________________ is an electronic device that processes data, converting it into information.
a)
COMPUTER
b)
PROCESSOR
c)
CASE
d)
PRINTER
35.
Which of the following is not an input device?
a)
KEYBOARD
b)
MOUSE
c)
SCANNER
d)
VDU
36.
Which of the following is not a hardware:
a)
Microprocessor
b)
MICROSOFT WORD
c)
HARDDISK
d)
RAM
37.
Hard disk drives are considered ________ storage
a)
non-volatile
b)
flash
c)
temporary
d)
nonpermanent
38.
If a memory chip is volatile, it will ________________.
a)
Explode if exposed to high temperatures
b)
Be used for data storage only
c)
Lose it contents if current is turned off
d)
Be used to both read and write data
39.
The CPU and memory are located on the
a)
expansion board
b)
motherboard
c)
storage device
d)
output device
40.
It is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
a)
An application
b)
A peripheral
c)
A device
d)
Hardware
41.
Everything computer does is controlled by its
a)
CPU
b)
RAM
c)
ALU
d)
MONITOR
42.
The main system board of a computer is called the ____________
a)
Integrated Circuit
b)
Motherboard
c)
Processor
d)
Microchip
43.
How many megabytes make gigabyte ?
a)
532
b)
128
c)
1024
d)
256
44.
What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?
a)
Universal Security Block
b)
Ultra Serial Block
c)
United Service Block
d)
Universal Serial Bus
45.
Information travels between components on the motherboard through _________.
a)
BUSES
b)
CMOS
c)
RAM
d)
Flash memory
46.
Engineering drawing is a _______________ representation of a three dimensional object
a)
one dimensional
b)
two dimensional
c)
three dimensional
d)
none
47.
If you assume the Object is placed in second Quadrant and draw the views is called________
a)
First angle projection
b)
second angle projection
c)
third angle projection
d)
fourth angle projection
48.
A1 Drawing sheet size is __________ X __________ mm
a)
210x297mm
b)
841 X 1189 mm
c)
297x420mm
d)
594x841mm
49.
Engineering Drawing is a _____________ language of engineers.
a)
Universal
b)
Graphical
c)
Hypothetical
d)
none
50.
If the drawing size is greater than the object size, then it is called______________scale drawing.
a)
Full scale
b)
Reduced scale
c)
Enlarged scale
d)
none
51.
___________ type of lines is used for Hidden outlines
a)
Dashed
b)
Thick continuous
c)
Thin continuous
d)
none
52.
Lines parallel to the projection axes are known as _______ lines.
a)
Orthographic
b)
Isometric
c)
non isometric
d)
none
53.
In _____ _____ projection, any view is so placed that it represents the side of the object nearer to it.
a)
First angle projection
b)
Third angle
c)
fourth angle
d)
Both A & B
54.
Isometric projection is preferred for _______ size objects.
a)
Large
b)
Medium
c)
Small
d)
Any size
55.
Shop drawing is supplied in the form of ______
a)
Isometric Projection
b)
Perspective Projection
c)
Orthographic views
d)
oblique view
56.
A sphere in isometric projection appears as _____
a)
Parabola
b)
Ellipse
c)
Hyperbola
d)
circle
57.
Right side margin recommended for A3 sheet is _______mm
a)
10mm
b)
20mm
c)
30mm
d)
40mm
58.
H pencil is _____
a)
very hard
b)
hard
c)
very soft
d)
soft
59.
Isometric Projection or isometric view of a square will be a _____
a)
Rectangle
b)
Rhombus
c)
Square
d)
Parallogram
60.
A1 sheet is ______ of A2 sheet.
a)
1/2
b)
2 times that
c)
4 times that
d)
1 by 4
61.
A2 Drawing sheet size is ________ X ________ mm
a)
841 X 1189 mm
b)
594 X 841 mm
c)
420 X 594 mm
d)
210 X 297 mm
62.
Title block size recommended is ____ X _____ mm
a)
150X50
b)
150X150
c)
150X40
d)
150X60
63.
Plan view is otherwise known as
a)
Top view
b)
Front view
c)
Side view
d)
none
64.
Sectioning line is represented as
a)
thick at end
b)
chain line
c)
Double dashed line
d)
thin line
65.
_____ is fixed on the machine table Fixture jig vice None Fixture
a)
Fixture
b)
Cutter
c)
Jig
d)
None
66.
________chucks jaws close<br /> concentrically upon the rotation
a)
Self centering chuck
b)
Independent chuck
c)
Combination chuck
d)
None
67.
Fixture are used to ___________
a)
To hold the work & guide
b)
To guide the too
c)
To holds the work
d)
To guide the work
68.
For easy loading and unloading of work piece________ must
a)
Location system
b)
Holding system
c)
Clamping system
d)
Design system
69.
To locate the work piece __________ must be considered
a)
Clamping
b)
Degres of freedom
c)
Holding
d)
None
70.
_______ is the best shape for location
a)
Square
b)
Cylindrical
c)
Hollow
d)
Renctangular
71.
The work piece can be positively arrested by means of ____________ pins
a)
6
b)
4
c)
9
d)
7
72.
Location of cylindrical work piece<br /> _________ is used
a)
Vice
b)
Clamps
c)
V-block
d)
None of these
73.
__________are used for process and final inspection of components.
a)
Pneumatic milling fixture
b)
inspection milling fixture
c)
Assembly milling fixture
d)
Duplex milling fixture
74.
___________are used to check, inspect the total assembly of a unit
a)
Turning fixture
b)
Inspection fixture
c)
Welding fixture
d)
Assembly milling fixture
75.
Plain milling is also called as ___________.
a)
form Milling
b)
Slab Milling
c)
Face Milling
d)
Down Milling
76.
The chip space between the back of one tooth and face of next tooth is called____________.
a)
Gash
b)
Land
c)
Fillet
d)
Lead
77.
Combination of peripheral and face milling operation is ___________.
a)
End milling
b)
Face milling
c)
Plain milling
d)
Straddle milling
78.
Shank type milling cutters are normally held in ___________
a)
Collet adaptor
b)
arbor
c)
chuck
d)
None of these
79.
Climb milling is also called as ____________
a)
Down Milling
b)
End milling
c)
Up Milling
d)
Plain milling
80.
Wear __________ while working on machines.
a)
safety googles
b)
Magnet
c)
Glasses
d)
none of these
81.
To hold a straight shank bit in machine spindle _________ is used.
a)
chuck
b)
Sleeve
c)
Taper
d)
Magnet
82.
Taper shank drill is fixed to the spindle with the help of__________.
a)
Magnet
b)
Tang
c)
Press fit
d)
Taper
83.
_________ are the spiral grooves which helps the flow of coolant.
a)
Shank
b)
Lip
c)
Flute
d)
Margin
84.
___________ is an operation of a enlarging hole to agiven depth,to house headsof cap screws
a)
Counter sinking
b)
Counter boring
c)
Tapping
d)
Reaming
85.
Taps are used for making_________.
a)
External thread
b)
H7 Holes
c)
Internal thread
d)
Counter bore
86.
Counter sinking is the operation of modifying the end of a drilled hole by___________
a)
Parallel enlargement
b)
cone shaped enlargement
c)
Facing
d)
Deepening
87.
In _________ milling, two side milling cutters are mounted in the same arbor.
a)
form Milling
b)
Slab Milling
c)
Face Milling
d)
Straddle Milling
88.
Reammer are used for making_________.
a)
External thread
b)
H7 Holes
c)
Tapping
d)
Counter sinking
89.
Formula for cutting speed V= ___________.
a)
ПDN/1000 m/min
b)
ПD2 N/1000 m/min
c)
ПDN2 /1000 m/min
d)
П2DN/1000 m/min
90.
No of axes CNC Machine _________ .
a)
3axis
b)
2axis
c)
4axis
d)
1axis
91.
CNC machine Uses _________ to feed the Program
a)
Pendrive
b)
Through MCU (manual)
c)
Both A & B
d)
NONE OF THE ABOVE
92.
The axis of the spindle _____
a)
Z
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
None of the above
93.
Expand MCU __________.
a)
Machine Circuit Unit
b)
Machine Control Unit
c)
Motion Control Unit
d)
Memory Control Unit
94.
Tachogenerator is _________ measuring device.
a)
Position Measuring Device
b)
Velocity Measuring Device
c)
Both A & B
d)
None of the above
95.
A Group of command at each step of the sequence is called _________.
a)
Word
b)
Block
c)
Address
d)
None
96.
MDI Stands for _________.
a)
Manual Data Input
b)
Machine Data Input
c)
Machine Drive Input
d)
Manual Data Interpolation
97.
GO1 used for________.
a)
rapid movement
b)
linear interpolation
c)
Both A & B
d)
None
98.
GO0 used for________.
a)
rapid movement
b)
linear interpolation
c)
Both A & B
d)
None
99.
G 21 Code is used for _____.
a)
Input in Metric
b)
Input in Inch
c)
Polar Co ordinate command on
d)
Polar Co ordinate command off
100.
G 17 Command is for ______.
a)
XY Plane Selection
b)
YZ Plane Selection
c)
ZX Plane Selection
d)
XYZ Plane Selection
101.
MPG stands for ________.
a)
Manual Power Generator
b)
Manual Pulse Generator
c)
Machine Pulse Generator
d)
Manual Program Generator
102.
JOG mode in control panel is used for _________.
a)
To start the cycle
b)
To edit the part program
c)
To check the part program
d)
To move the axis manually
103.
The command G 41 is used for _________
a)
CRC Left
b)
CRC Right
c)
Tool length Compensation +ve Direction
d)
Tool Length Compensation -ve Direction
104.
M 07 code denotes ______
a)
Coolant through tool ON
b)
Coolant ON
c)
Coolant Off
d)
Axis Clamp
105.
The term D denotes ________ offset number.
a)
CRC
b)
Tool length offset number
c)
Wear parameter
d)
none
106.
In this block G00 X 100.0 Y 20.0, G represents ________.
a)
Block
b)
Word
c)
Address
d)
Data
107.
In this block G00 X 100.0 , 100 represents ________.
a)
Block
b)
Word
c)
Address
d)
Data
108.
In this block G00 X 100.0 Y 20.0, G00 represents ________.
a)
Block
b)
Word
c)
Address
d)
Data
109.
Which of the following code is sub program call _______?
a)
M 98
b)
M 99
c)
G 98
d)
G 99
110.
Cutting speed is usually expressed in ___________.
a)
m /min
b)
r.p.m
c)
rev / min
d)
none
111.
Feed rate is expressed in _________.
a)
mm / tooth
b)
mm / revolution
c)
mm / min
d)
all the above
112.
To unclamp the tool from spindle manually, _______ mode is used .
a)
Edit
b)
Auto
c)
MDI mode
d)
Both B & C
113.
Sinumeric control system belongs to ________.
a)
Makino
b)
Hinumeric
c)
Siemens
d)
Mistubshi
114.
M03 S 2000, in this block S indicates________.
a)
Cutting Speed
b)
Spindle Speed
c)
Feed rate
d)
None
115.
Which of the following is a control system___________?
a)
Fanuc
b)
Siemens
c)
Hass
d)
All the above
116.
QMS stands for ________________________ .
a)
Quality manufacturing system
b)
Quality Management System
c)
both A & B
d)
None of the above
117.
In ISO 9001 :2015 , 9001 indicates
a)
QMS
b)
EMS
c)
OHSAS
d)
EOMS
118.
Kaizen Improves __________
a)
Productivity
b)
Quality
c)
Lower costs
d)
All the above
119.
Kaizen indicates ________
a)
Muda
b)
Mura
c)
Muri
d)
All the above
120.
Muda means ________
a)
Waste
b)
Imbalance
c)
Overload
d)
None of the above
121.
Mura means ___________
a)
Waste
b)
Imbalance
c)
Overload
d)
None of the above
122.
Muri means _________
a)
Waste
b)
Imbalance
c)
Overload
d)
None of the above
123.
A place for everything and everything in its place is __________ of 5s concept.
a)
Sort
b)
Shine
c)
Sustain
d)
Set in order
124.
Red tag strategy has _______ Classification
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
125.
In ISO 9001 :2015 , 2015 indicates
a)
Year of revision
b)
Series Number
c)
both A & B
d)
None of the above
126.
______ are the basic protective devices used to avoid injuries.
a)
PPE
b)
KAIZEN
c)
Training
d)
None of the above
127.
________ of 5s has Red tag strategy approach.
a)
Sort
b)
Set in order
c)
shine
d)
sustain
128.
Safety Goggles are used to protect ____________ from injury.
a)
Face
b)
Eyes
c)
Body
d)
All the above
129.
Extinguishers are used to _________________ fire.
a)
engulf
b)
cut off
c)
reduce
d)
None of the above
130.
The most common classification of fire extinguishers are ____________.
a)
K
b)
D
c)
E
d)
ABC
131.
Class A fire constitutes ______________________.
a)
Solids
b)
Liquids/Gases
c)
Elecrtical related
d)
None of the above
132.
Class B fire constitutes ______________________.
a)
Wood
b)
Liquids/Gases
c)
Chemical
d)
None of the above
133.
Class C fire constitutes ______________________.
a)
Paper
b)
Petrol
c)
Elecrtical related
d)
None of the above
134.
Class D fire constitutes ______________________.
a)
Metal related
b)
Kerosene
c)
Elecrtical related
d)
None of the above
135.
Fire Triangle has ________________ major components.
a)
6
b)
5
c)
3
d)
2
136.
A place for everything and everything in its place is __________ of 5s concept.
a)
Sort
b)
Shine
c)
Sustain
d)
Set in order
137.
Reduse Reuse and Recycle are to support ____________ management initiative.
a)
Waste
b)
safety
c)
both A & B
d)
None of the above
138.
In Red tag strategy there are __________ classifications available.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
139.
In machineries the moving/rolling parts are covered with __________ to avoid accidents.
a)
Guards
b)
wire
c)
oil
d)
None of the above
140.
Safety is responsibility of ______________________.
a)
Employee
b)
Manager
c)
Management
d)
All the above
Reset
