wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cell Cycle , Cell regulation and Mitosis

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which phrase best describes cancer?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
precesnce of genetic defects
2.
________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle
a)
Metastasis
b)
Checkpoint
c)
Malignant
d)
Benign
3.
In what way is the DNA of a nerve cell different from the DNA of a muscle cell?
a)
The DNA is the same but each cell contains different genes
b)
The DNA is the same but different genes are turned on and turned off in each cell
c)
The DNA is different, but the same genes are turned on and off in each cell
d)
The DNA is different, but each cell contains the same genes
4.
The diagram shows the process of cell specialization from a single stem cell. Which of the following statements is true about the process of specialization.
a)
Specilized cells (blood, skin, nervous etc) cannot be produced from a single stem cell
b)
Specilized cells are produced immediately following fertilization
c)
Even though all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they can specialize into different cell types
d)
Sincce all the cells in an organism come from one single cell, they must all have the same structure and function
5.
What are the proteins called that regulate the progression of the cell cycle?
a)
Cyclin
b)
Chromatin
c)
Actin
d)
Muscle Milk
6.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
7.
In multicellular organisms, the process of differentiation produces cells that are specialized to perform specific functions.  For example, one cell may become a muscle cell whose function is to shorten or lengthen to allow movement.  Another cell may become a nerve cell whose function is to relay signals in response to stimuli.
In what way is the DNA of a nerve cell different from the DNA of a muscle cell?
a)
The DNA is the same, but it contains different genes
b)
The DNA is different, but it contains the same genes
c)
The DNA is different, but the same genes are activated
d)
The DNA is the same, but different genes are activated
8.
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to continue to grow and divide in their non-specialized state for long periods of time.  Although the genes found within the stem cells are the same, stem cells differentiate into unique cell types (e.g., muscle cells, nerve cells, skin cells, etc.) due to 
a)
random segregation and proliferation
b)
meiotic division and fertilization
c)
mutations in their genetic code
d)
different patterns in their gene expression
9.
Which is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
a)
It takes longer than sexual
b)
It is more complicated than sexual
c)
It produces no variety in offspring
d)
It cannot produce as many offspring as sexual
10.
What usually happens when cells come into contact with other cells?
a)
they divide more quickly
b)
they stop growing
c)
they produce cyclins
d)
they produce p53
11.
Programmed cell death is called
a)
apoptosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
interphase
d)
cancer
12.
Non-cancerous tumors are called _____. Cancerous tumors are called _____.
a)
metastatic ; malignant
b)
malignant ; benign
c)
benign ; malignant
d)
benign ; metastatic
13.
Which of these is a risk factor for developing cancer? 
a)
growing older
b)
genetic inheritance
c)
exposure to carcinogens
d)
all of the above
14.
Unspecialized cell that can give rise to one or more types of specialized cells
a)
Dead cell
b)
Embryonic cell
c)
Stem Cell
d)
Plant cell
15.

Which of the following is true of a malignant tumor?

a)

They do not require treatment.

b)

They are easily removed through surgery.

c)

They can cause tumors in other parts of the body.

d)

They contain cells that stay clustered together.

16.

If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its daughter cells have after mitosis?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

16

17.

During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and

a)

divides the nucleus

b)

copies DNA

c)

divides the cytoplasm

d)

produces a new cell

18.

Which organelle is critical for cell division?

a)

centrioles

b)

cilia

c)

vacuoles

d)

vesicles

19.

Why is it important for cells of multicellular organisms to undergo mitosis?

a)

Mitosis allows for reproduction with male and female gametes.

b)

Mitosis increases variation within an organism.

c)

Mitosis produces cells that are different from the original dividing cell.

d)

Mitosis produces cells that are identical to the original dividing cell.

20.

By the end of prophase all of the following has occurring EXCEPT

a)

The nuclear membrane has broken down.

b)

Centrioles and spindle fibers have appeared.

c)

Chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell.

d)

DNA has become more tightly coiled into rod-shaped structures.

21.

One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that

a)

cancer cells divide unconrollably

b)

normal cells divide uncontrollably

c)

cancer cells cannot make copies of DNA

d)

normal cells cannot make copies of DNA

22.

While in the womb, the webbed fingers of the embryo undergo programmed cell death also known as

a)

apoptosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

carcinogen

d)

stem cells

23.

If a cell does not go through the S phase of the cell cycle before mitosis, what might be wrong with the daughter cells?

a)

They may have the wrong number of chromosomes.

b)

They may have no centrioles.

c)

They may change in to cancer cells.

d)

They may encounter cell death.

24.

The two main purposes of the cell cycle are

a)

variation and growth

b)

adaptation and repair

c)

growth and repair

d)

variation and adaptation

25.

Beginning with interphase, list the parts of the cell cycle in order.

a)

interphase - G1 - prophase - metaphase - cytokinesis - G2 - S - anaphase - telophase

b)

interphase - cytokinesis - G1 - prophase - metaphase - G2 - S - anaphase - telophase

c)

interphase - prophase - metaphase - cytokinesis - anaphase - telophase - G1 - S - G2

d)

interphase - G1 - S - G2 - prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase - cytokinesis

26.
On a laboratory exam, a student is asked to determine if the cells under a microscope are plant cells or animal cells. What might the student look for?
a)
chloroplasts and a cell wall
b)
ribosomes and vacuoles
c)
a nucleus and ribosomes
d)
a cell membrane and mitochondria
27.
Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes and event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?
a)
two stages of cell division
b)
replication of cellular genetic material
c)
daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell
d)
four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell
28.
How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?
a)
sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent
b)
asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent
c)
mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction
d)
asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms
29.
Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?
a)
Parthenogenesis
b)
asexual reproduction
c)
Sexual reproduction
d)
Vegetative reproduction
30.
A scientist wants to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism and have the new DNA present in every cell of the organism. In order to do this after fertilization, she would change the DNA in which of the following? 
a)
zygote
b)
placenta
c)
testes of the father
d)
ovaries of the mother
31.
Which of the following best describes meiosis? 
a)
It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of organisms. 
c)
It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis. 
32.

A substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

carcinogen

b)

retrovirus

c)

pathogen

d)

paramecium

33.

Which of these is a tumor that is noncancerous and does not spread?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

34.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A protein

c)

Programmed cell death

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

35.
Which is true about Embryonic Stem Cells.
a)
They no longer do mitosis, their cell type is set and can not change
b)
They are limited to the type of cell they can become
c)
They can become any cell type in the body
d)
They are found in adults
36.
Embryonic stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
37.
Which of the following cells has the ability to form any tissue in the body?
a)
blastoycst 
b)
pluripotent
c)
multipotent
d)
totipotent
38.
Adult stem cells are?
a)
mutlipotent
b)
pluripotent
c)
totipotent
d)
isopotent 
39.
What is one goal of cellular differentiation/specialization?
a)
To create specialized cells to help organism maintain homeostasis.
b)
To many cells.
c)
To make stem cells
d)
to make single celled organisms
40.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
41.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
42.
In what phase of mitosis does DNA condense into visible chromosomes?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
43.
What are the phases of mitosis IN ORDER?
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase
d)
Telophase, Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase
44.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
Gap 1 
b)
Synthesis
c)
Gap 2
d)
Gap 0
45.
A chromosome that has been duplicated means that...
a)
there will be 1 copy and 1 original. 
b)
there will only be 1 original.
46.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
47.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
48.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
49.
Structure (c) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
50.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
51.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
52.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
53.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
54.

During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

55.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
56.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
57.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
58.

How many chromosomes do humans have?

a)

46

b)

21

c)

10

d)

23

59.
Why don't cells just stretch when you grow, instead of making copies of themselves?
a)
The muscles in the cells can't stretch that far.
b)
The cell won't be able to bring in food fast enough or get waste out fast enough.
c)
The cell membrane doesn't like the feeling of stretching.
d)
The lysosomes don't want to work so hard.
60.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
it changes the chromatin to chromosome
b)
duplicate the DNA
c)
breaks down the membrane
d)
separates the chromatids.
61.
What type of organisms do binary fission?
a)
Prokaryotes
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Animal Cells
d)
Plant Cells
62.
What type of organisms do binary fission?
a)
Prokaryotes
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Animal Cells
d)
Plant Cells
63.
What form is DNA is in during Interphase?
a)
Chromatin
b)
Replicated Chromosome
c)
Unreplicated Chromosome
d)
Chromatids
64.
How is animal cell cytokinesis different than a plant cell's?
a)
Animal cells have a cleavage furrow
b)
Plant cells have a cleavage furrow
c)
Animal cells have a metaphase plate
d)
Animal cells must stay stuck together
65.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
66.
If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
67.

The diploid chromosome compliment of human somatic cell consists of how many chromosomes?

a)

14

b)

23

c)

46

d)

58

68.

If the S-phase was eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cell would

a)

have half the genetic material found in the parental cell

b)

be genetically identical

c)

be genetically identical to the parent cell

d)

synthesize the missing genetic material on their own

69.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane located equidistant from the two spindle poles?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

70.

Which of the following is a feature of a plant cell division that distinguishes it from an animal cell dividing?

a)

a cell plate forms

b)

a cleavage furrow forms

c)

cytokinesis does not occur

d)

four new cells are present

71.

Mature human muscle cells and nerve cells

a)

remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs

b)

become cancerous more easily

c)

continue to divide throughout their life

d)

are permanently in a state of non-division

72.

The cell cycle control system

a)

receives messages from the outside of the cell that influence cell division

b)

triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle

c)

is influenced by growth factors that bind to cell receptors

d)

all of the above

73.

A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor

a)

is cancerous

b)

spreads from the original site

c)

does not metastisize

d)

never causes health problems

74.
Why does the S phase always occur before the M phase in the cell cycle?
a)
The cell must have 2 sets of chromosomes in order to complete M phase
b)
The cell must grow to a certain size before beginning M phase
c)
The cell must complete all the necessary checkpoints in order to enter M phase
d)
The cell must begin the process of cytokinesis before beginning the M phase
75.
What are the steps of the cell cycle in order?
a)
Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis
c)
Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase
d)
Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
76.
Why does chemotherapy cause nausea and a person's hair to fall out?
a)
The dying tumor cells cause these effects on the body
b)
Chemotherapy kills all rapidly dividing cells in the body
c)
These are effects of the cancer and not from the chemotherapy
d)
The chemotherapy stops all cell division within a cell
77.
What do HIV, HPV, and the Epstein Barr virus all have in common?
a)
They can be treated with antibiotics
b)
They can lead to cancer in humans
c)
They are always fatal in humans
d)
They cause mitosis and meiosis in humans
78.
Chromosome movement in mitosis and meiosis is regulated by
a)
microtubules
b)
microfilaments
c)
intermediate filaments
d)
All of thiese
79.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
80.
The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is 
a)
to produce growth signals
b)
to code for proteins that inhibit, or slow, cell division
c)
to cause the cell to move faster through the cell cycle
d)
to attack cancer cells in the body
81.

What are cyclins and cyclin dependent kinases?

a)

regulatory proteins

b)

carcinogens

c)

mitotic proteins

d)

mutagens

82.

What type of gene prevents the cells with damage from continuing through the cell cycle?

a)

tumor supressor

b)

proto-oncongene

c)

stem cell suppressor

d)

stem cell initiator

83.

Halts cell division if it detects damaged DNA; can either fix, force G0 , or apoptosis.

a)

RAS

b)

MPF

c)

PDGF

d)

p53

84.

Compared to most prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells typically have

a)

more DNA molecules and larger genomes.

b)

the same number of DNA molecules but larger genomes.

c)

the same number of DNA molecules and similarly sized genomes.

d)

fewer DNA molecules but larger genomes.

85.

A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

prophase

e)

metaphase

86.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

replication of the DNA

b)

condensation of the chromosomes

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

separation of the spindle poles

87.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
2 gametes
b)
2 identical somatic cells
c)
4 gametes
d)
2 different somatic cells
88.
Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly because they
a)
are smaller than normal cells
b)
skip interphase
c)
undergo mitosis more slowly
d)
spend less time in interphase
89.

At a point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have aligned near the middle of a cell. Which sequence of events will the cell need to complete to produce two identical daughter cells?

a)

Anaphase --> Telophase --> Cytokinesis

b)

Anaphase II --> Telophase II --> Cytokinesis II

c)

Prophase --> Metaphase --> Anaphase

d)

Metaphase II --> Anaphase II --> Telophase II

90.

In mitosis, if the parent cell is 2n, what are the daughter cells going to be?

a)

2n

b)

4n

c)

1n

d)

6n

91.

If a Diploid cell has 20 chromosomes, how many will a haploid have?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

15

d)

40

92.
Which of the following is an example of internal regulation during the cell cycle?
a)
A gap outside of the cell (caused by a skateboarding accident) triggers cell division.
b)
A cell receives a signal from the cell’s own nucleus to divide.
c)
Tumor cells continue to divide without receiving a signal.
d)
Hormones in the blood cause cell growth in a growing teenager.
93.
Mitosis involves which type of cells?
a)
Sex Cells
b)
Bacteria
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Body or Somatic Cells
94.

As a cell’s volume increases, what happens to the proportional amount of surface area?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

reaches its limit

95.

What would happen if cyclins did not function properly in the cell cycle?

a)

cell cycle would not start

b)

rapid cell division would occur

c)

cyclin-dependent kinases would start cell cycle

d)

rapid mutation would occur

96.

The cancer drug vinblastine interferes with synthesis of microtubules. In mitosis, this would interfere with what?

a)

spindle formation

b)

DNA replication

c)

carbohydrate synthesis

d)

disappearance of the nuclear envelope

97.

What substances form the cyclin-cyclin dependent kinase combinations that control the stages in the cell cycle?

a)

fats and proteins

b)

carbohydrates and proteins

c)

proteins and enzymes

d)

fats and enzymes

98.

Starting with one cell that underwent six divisions, how many cells would result?

a)

13

b)

32

c)

48

d)

64

99.

TRUE OR FALSE: In the G1 stage of interphase, the combination of cyclin with CDK signals the start of the cell cycle.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

100.

TRUE OR FALSE: an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, usually in a 1:2:1 ratio is known as a chromatin.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

Similar Resources on Wayground

Evolution Pre-Test

100 questions

Evolution Pre-Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

CA 5 BIOLOGY EOC

104 questions

CA 5 BIOLOGY EOC

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Spring 2024 Final Review

100 questions

Spring 2024 Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Spring Mid-Term Review Med Term

103 questions

Spring Mid-Term Review Med Term

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Microscopes, Cell theory, Mitosis and cell cycle

104 questions

Microscopes, Cell theory, Mitosis and cell cycle

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 11th Grade

Cell Theory/Organelle Review

100 questions

Cell Theory/Organelle Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

CBA 2 Review

99 questions

CBA 2 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Biology 2nd Semester Final

100 questions

Biology 2nd Semester Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade