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Worksheets

Biology EOC- All

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentration in cells

b)

It maintains water balance

c)

It maintains sugar balance in cells

d)

It regulates body temperature

2.

A sea turtle has washed up on a remote section of a beach. This is known as "stranding". Stranding occurs when a dead, sick, or injured sea turtle washes up on the shoreline. Which statement best explains why "stranding" should be reported immediately to local authorities?

a)

The information can be useful to protect sea turtles from predators

b)

The information can be useful to biologists who are trying to protect the species

c)

The information can be useful to local fishermen trying to catch the turtles

d)

The information can be useful to tourists that want a sea turtle as a pet

3.

What is the basis for the earliest classification system of organisms?

a)

Physical characteristics

b)

evolutionary relationships

c)

differences in habitats

d)

reproductive patterns

4.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane-bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

5.

Which adaptation do ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms have that mosses do not have?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

vascular tissue

c)

stomata

d)

flowers

6.

In the drawing of the Paramecium, which part would be affected if a chemical is added to make the Paramecium stop moving?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cilia

d)

Vacuole

7.

What is the difference between the full classification system of an organism and its scientific name?

a)

The full classification system includes more categories of organisms than the scientific name

b)

The scientific names include the order and family, but the full classification includes only the species name.

c)

The scientific name includes a single nomenclature, but the full classification includes several nomenclatures

d)

The full classification system and their scientific names vary in different countries

8.

At night, moths travel toward light. Which type of behavior does this describe?

a)

Habituation

b)

Imprinting

c)

Innate behavior

d)

Learned behavior

9.

The male birds of a species do a "dance" and "sing a song" each spring. What is the meaning of these behaviors?

a)

To scare off young birds

b)

To imprint young birds

c)

To attract female birds

d)

To imprint young birds

10.

Multicellular eukaryotic autotrophs belong to which Kingdom?

a)

Animalia

b)

Plantae

c)

Fungi

d)

Protista

11.

In nature, which type of behavior causes animals to produce aggressive displays and sounds?

a)

Territoriality

b)

Imprinting

c)

Conditioning

d)

Habituation

12.

Look at the cladogram. The organisms are arranged based on amino acid similarities. Which two organisms are most closely related?

a)

Turtle and Kangaroo

b)

Shark and Tuna

c)

Frog and Salamander

d)

Human and Turtle

13.

What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?

a)

All organisms struggle for existence and become extinct

b)

All organisms compete to be at the top of the food chain

c)

Technological advances have allowed scientists to better compare organisms

d)

More species have been discovered, but scientists have not analyzed all the data

14.

Use the dichotomous key to identify Organism C.

a)

Ladybug

b)

Bee

c)

Firefly

d)

Dragonfly

15.

A horse working in a big city must learn to deal with sights, sounds, and smell in the environment around them. This would be an example of?

a)

Habituation

b)

Imprinting

c)

Conditioning

d)

Territoriality

16.

Which kingdom does not have organisms with cell walls?

a)

Protista

b)

Fungi

c)

Plantae

d)

Animalia

17.

What will most likely occur if the population of the world continues to 

      increase at predicted rates?

a)

 There will be an increase in biodiversity as a result of 

           improvements in technology.

b)

 There will be more rapid depletion of natural resources. 

c)

 The human race will rapidly become extinct.

d)

 All human diseases will be eliminated.

18.

What will most likely happen if a nonnative species is introduced into a stable ecosystem?

a)

The native species will change their diet, and the ecosystem will remain stable.

b)

The native species will move to another area, and the ecosystem will remain stable.

c)

The native species will have to compete for resources with the nonnative species, and the ecosystem will become unbalanced. 

d)

The native species will share their food with the introduced species, and the ecosystem will become unbalanced.

19.

  Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products.

20.

  In some ecosystems, wolves have been eliminated due to their threats to humans. How can the 

      reintroduction of wolves benefit the ecosystem? 

a)

 It can eliminate weak animals from a prey population, thereby decreasing competition for natural resources.

b)

It can eliminate the most fit animals among the prey population, which will cause an increase in birthrates of the prey. 

c)

It can cause the prey population to migrate to other areas, resulting in more fit prey.

d)

It can cause the prey population to better blend in with their environment.

21.

What activity most contributes to the depletion of the ozone layer? 

a)

 burning fossil fuels 

b)

 release of CFCs

c)

deforestation

d)

overuse of fertilizers

22.

Which graph best shows the growth of a population introduced into an environment with limited resources?

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

Two different populations of birds live in the same area and eat the same types of food. Which most likely  

      describes the relationship between these two populations of birds?

a)

competition

b)

  mutualism

c)

  parasitism

d)

  predator-prey

24.

The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the 

      greatest effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations? 

a)

Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed. 

b)

The rate of selection is increased because the pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it. 

c)

The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects.

d)

The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate. 

25.

The yucca plant releases a strong scent at night when the yucca moth is active. The yucca moth, attracted 

       by the scent, gathers pollen from the yucca flower. The yucca moth then deposits her eggs and the pollen 

       on another plant. This ensures that the plant will be cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth larvae have a 

       steady food supply. Which relationship does this best illustrate? 

a)

commensalism

b)

  mutualism

c)

  parasitism

d)

predation

26.

Which environmental concern is most associated with burning fossil fuels? 

a)

global climate change

b)

 pollution of ocean waters

c)

   ozone layer destruction

d)

   ozone layer destruction

27.

A field ecologist wants to determine the interactions of various populations of organisms living in a large grassland field. Which method is best for conducting this study? 

a)

consulting with local farmers about the diversity of organisms in the field 

b)

dividing the field in half, walking over it, counting organisms, and then doubling the numbers 

c)

 walking over the entire field, collecting the organisms, and then compiling a total

d)

observing the behaviors of different types of organisms several times during the year 

28.

If worldwide deforestation is not regulated, what could most likely result? 

a)

Acid rain could lower the pH of rivers and lakes to dangerous levels for aquatic life.

b)

CO2 levels in the atmosphere could increase and contribute to global warming problems. 

c)

Plants and animals could become better adapted to living in desert conditions.

d)

Future generations of humans could have an excess of wood and paper products. 

29.

Which substance do biochemists often search for in fossils to help better understand the evolutionary relationships of the organism that formed the fossil? 

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

iron

d)

oxygen

30.

 Scientists believe that the polar bear in Alaska and the brown bear in Russia evolved from a common  

     ancestor. Which would be responsible for this evolutionary change? 

a)

 artificial selection

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

  sexual competition

d)

geographic isolation

31.

An antibiotic which was effective 20 years ago against a specific type of bacterial infection no longer works 

   against the same kind of infection today. Which best explains why the antibiotic is no longer as effective as it   

   was 20 years ago? 

a)

Bacteria resistant to the antibiotic have killed off nonresistant bacteria. 

b)

Viruses have changed the structure of the bacteria that causes the infection. 

c)

Resistant bacteria have survived and reproduced at a greater rate than nonresistant bacteria.

d)

The human body has developed an immunity to the antibiotics.

32.

Some marine worms and mollusks go through similar larval stages during development. Which can be 

      inferred about their relationship? 

a)

They share a common ancestor.

b)

They mate with each other. 

c)

They compete for a habitat.

d)

They share the same food source. 

33.

Which statement best describes natural selection? 

a)

As the weather changes, organisms that are able to find shelter need less energy to live. 

b)

Organisms that eat only plants need less food than organisms that eat animals. 

c)

Organisms better adapted to their environment are more likely to reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring. 

d)

Small organisms are more likely to survive than larger organisms.

34.

Some scientists claim recent evidence suggests birds should be reclassified to share more taxonomic 

    groups with dinosaurs. What type of evidence would provide the best support for this claim? 

a)

evidence showing birds shared similar habitats with dinosaurs 

b)

evidence showing birds shared similar nutritional requirements as dinosaurs

c)

evidence showing birds shared similar behaviors with dinosaurs 

d)

evidence showing birds shared a common genetic history with dinosaurs

35.

Which will most likely cause variations to occur within a species?

a)

 competition

b)

mutation

c)

mutualism

d)

predation

36.

 A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and 

    produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can be inferred from this ex?

a)

A species will adapt no matter what the environment. 

b)

The environment has no effect on the survival of an organism.

c)

Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation.

d)

Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce. 

37.

This diagram shows a cladogram of six species based on amino acid similarities. Which two species are the most closely related? 

a)

 I and II 

b)

 II and IV 

c)

 I and V

d)

V and VI

38.

In which populations does genetic drift most often occur?

a)

in small populations

b)

in large populations

c)

 in marine populations

d)

in terrestrial populations

39.

Plants can make their own food. In which organelle does this take place?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuole

40.

A contractile vacuole helps eliminate wastes in a protist by pumping out wastes. This pumping reduces pressure and keeps the cell from bursting. The energy needed for this "pumping" most likely comes from?

a)

DNA

b)

Lipids

c)

ATP

d)

Ribosomes

41.

What is the primary function of a vacuole?

a)

Enzyme production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Storage

d)

Reproduction

42.

Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells.

a)

A mutation happens in muscle cells but not in blood

b)

Different genes are activated in muscles cells and blood cells

c)

Muscle cells experience different environmental conditions than blood cells.

d)

Muscle cells are produced by the brain while blood cells are produced by the heart

43.

A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the plant?

a)

They will swell bc water moves in

b)

They will swell because salt moves in

c)

They will shrink bc water moves out

d)

They will shrink bc sald will move out

44.

Which is the best evidence that a cell is using active transport to move a substance across its membrane?

a)

Substances are moving rapidly across the membrane

b)

ATP is being rapidly consumed near the cellular membrane

c)

Substances are moving from high to low

d)

Substances are moving through channels in the membrane

45.

If energy is need to move materials into or out of a cell, what is most likely occuring?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

46.

A beaker contains a solution with a higher salt content than the red blood cells it contains. What will happen to the red blood cells over time?

a)

The size of the red blood cells will remain constant

b)

Thre red blood cells will swell at first and then shrink.

c)

The red blood cells will swell from absorbing the salt molecules

d)

The red blood cells will shrink from losing water molecules.

47.

 A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in light. What can you conclude?

a)

 Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis. 

b)

 Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis. 

c)

 Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration. 

d)

 Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of cellular respiration 

48.

 Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration? 

a)

 carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

 carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen 

c)

 glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water 

d)

 oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose 

49.

 How does the body of a runner keep up with the demand for energy when cellular oxygen levels are low?

a)

through energy production in the mitochondria 

b)

 through aerobic respiration in the plasma membrane 

c)

 through ATP produced directly from sunlight 

d)

 through anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm 

50.

 How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration? 

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy.

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy. 

c)

 Each process results in equal amounts of energy.

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy.  

51.

What will most likely be the result if all the mitochondria are removed from a plant cell?

a)

It will be unable to carry out respiration.

b)

It will lose water through osmosis

c)

It will break down the ribosomes in the cell

d)

It will be unable to photosynthesize

52.

Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic

b)

More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than aerobic

c)

More oxygen is generated during anaerobic than aerobic

d)

Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic

53.

Why must DNA replication have to occur before a cell can divide by mitosis?

a)

To maintain the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as in the parent cell

b)

To cause one of the cells produced to have double the number of chromosomes

c)

To allow crossing over to occur in each of the cells produced

d)

To cause all of the cells produced to have half the number of chromosomes.

54.

How are mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

Both have two cell division

b)

Both require DNA replication

c)

Both produce gametes

d)

Both involve crossing over

55.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if cohchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Active transport

56.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

Two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

Two cells with eight chromosomes each

c)

Four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

Four cells with eight chromosomes each

57.

What is the result when a single cell reproduces by mitosis?

a)

two cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell

b)

two cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell

c)

four cells with half the genetic material of the parent cell

d)

four cells with genetic material identical to the parent cell

58.

During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Interphase

59.

Which process can occur in both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Fertilization

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Gene mutation

d)

Crossing over

60.

Which process best explains how a nerve and muscle cell can both develop from the same fertilized egg?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Genetic engineering

61.

Before mitosis begins, which happens before a nucleus starts to divide?

a)

Cytoplasm separates

b)

DNA replicates

c)

Sister chromatids separate

d)

Homologous chromosomes cross over

62.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

Zygote formed will have triple the chromosome #

b)

Gametes will have twice the orginal # of chromosomes

c)

Gametes will have half the original # of chromosomes

d)

Zygote will have half the original # of chromosomes

63.

How are sexual and asexual reproduction different?

a)

Sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to parents, but asexual offspring are different

b)

Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to parents, but sexual offspring are different

c)

Sexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms, but asexual occurs in unicellular

d)

Asexual reproduction occurs in multicellular , but sexual occurs in unicellular

64.

Genetically identical plants will produce either pink flowers or blue depending on the type of soil in which they are planted. What most likely is the reason?

a)

The flower-color gene is codominant

b)

Mutations alter the flower-color gene

c)

The flower-color gene is sex-linked

d)

Environmental factors affect the flower-color gene.

65.

What characteristic is present in offspring produced by sexual reproduction but missing in offspring produced by asexual reproduction?

a)

an identical copy of parent chromosomes

b)

twice the number of parent chromosomes

c)

only half the number of parent chromosomes

d)

an independent assortment of parent chromosomes

66.

Having freckles is dominant over no freckles. If two individuals heterozygous for freckles have a child, what is the probability they will have freckles?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

67.

Identical twin girls are separated at birth and cared for by two different families. After 20 years, they have different heights and weights. What most likely is the cause?

a)

One twin had a genetic condition preventing growth

b)

The DNA of one twin was different from the DNA of the other

c)

Each twin was provided a different diet and physical activities

d)

The proteins made by one twin were different from those made by the other

68.

The inheritance of short wings in Drosophila fruit flies is an x-linked, recessive trait. Which would most likely result if a short-winged female mates with a long-wing male?

a)

All offsping will be short-winged

b)

All femailes will be long-winged, all males short-winged

c)

All females will be short-winged, all males long-winged

d)

Half of the males and females will be short-winged, half will be long-winged

69.

During which phase of the cell cycle does most cell growth occur?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Mitosis

70.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting without this enzyme?

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

71.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

the activation energy increases

b)

the shape of the enzyme changes

c)

the enzyme-substrate complex forms

d)

the bonds between substrates are broken

72.

Which molecules are joined to make proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

acetic acids

73.

Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA,

a)

Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA

b)

Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.

c)

DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function

d)

Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins

74.

How does DNA code for proteins in a cell?

a)

by creating a new double helix structure

b)

by using its phosphate and sugar molecules

c)

by adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure

d)

by arranging certain nitrogen bases into a particular order

75.

Which most directly controls the rate at which food is broken down to release energy

a)

enzymes

b)

hormones

c)

nucleic acids

d)

vitamins

76.

What are the subunits of DNA and their function?

a)

nucleotides that store information

b)

monosaccharides that provide quick energy for the cell

c)

lipids that store energy and provide insulation

d)

proteins that provide the building blocks for structural components of organisms

77.

Which type of molecule do whales use for energy storage and insulation or plants use for a waxy waterproof layer?

a)

DNA

b)

glucose

c)

lipids

d)

starch

78.

What is the difference between the DNA of a dog and the DNA of a fly?

a)

the type of sugar building blocks

b)

the sequence of nucleotides

c)

the strength of hydrogen bonds

d)

the strength of covalent bonds

79.

What type of organic molecules are enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

80.

A section of DNA has these bases: TAG CAG TAC, which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA 

    section? 

a)

ATC GTC ATG

b)

AUC GUC AUG

c)

AUG CUG AUC

d)

UTC GTC UTG

81.

Which would be a desirable trait scientists may want to create in a transgenic plant?

a)

the ability to resist insects

b)

   the ability to grow less fruit

c)

the ability to change color in the winter

d)

the ability to use a lot of water

82.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins.

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins. 

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins. 

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids. 

83.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins? 

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity. 

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape. 

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen. 

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water. 

84.

 What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein? 

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

   the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

85.

 Which transgenic organism has been used to clean up oil spills?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungus

c)

jellyfish

d)

 paramecia

86.

 A strand of DNA has these bases: AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand? 

a)

ACG GAT CTA TAG

b)

TCG GTA CAT ATG

c)

TGC CTA GAT ATC 

d)

UCG CUA CAU AUG 

87.

Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists? 

a)

 gene cloning

b)

gene therapy

c)

  DNA fingerprinting

d)

  karyotyping

88.

Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms? 

a)

to create new species of organisms

b)

  to control microorganisms in the soil

c)

 to prevent habitats from being destroyed

d)

  to treat certain types of diseases

89.

A segment of DNA has this sequence: ATA GCA CAT GTA What is the mRNA sequence transcribed from 

      this segment?

a)

 TAT CGT GTA CAT 

b)

TAT GCT CTA GAT 

c)

   UAU CGU GUA CAU

d)

  UAU GCU CUA CAU

90.

 This chart shows which amino acids are coded for by different combinations of mRNA nucleotides. Which 

      amino acids are coded for by an mRNA segment that reads CAG GUG? 

a)

arginine and valine

b)

 isoleucine and arginine

c)

glutamine and valine 

d)

valine and isoleucine

91.

 This diagram shows DNA fingerprints for a child and four adults. Which adult is most likely a parent of the child?

a)

Adult 1

b)

Adult 2

c)

Adult 3

d)

Adult 4

92.

During translation, what does the tRNA deliver to the ribosomes? 

a)

 amino acids

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

proteins

93.

Which will most likely cause an increase in the frequency of genetic mutations in humans?

a)

increased exposure to mold spores in the air

b)

increased exposure to rising levels of atmosphere CO2 

c)

   increased exposure to bacteria in drinking water

d)

increased exposure to X-rays

94.

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

a)

 to control the movement of proteins into a cell

b)

to regulate blood sugar levels

c)

 to produce hormones that regulate digestion

d)

  to cut DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence

95.

Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria? 

a)

 A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.

b)

 A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.

c)

 A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid. 

d)

 A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.

96.

Which would most likely produce a mutation that is passed on to offspring? 

a)

 radiation changing the DNA sequence in skin cells

b)

a gamete with an extra chromosome forming

c)

  tobacco smoke altering the genes in lung cells

d)

exposure to chemicals altering nerve cell function

97.

How does DNA code for proteins in a cell? 

a)

by creating a new double helix structure

b)

by using its phosphate and sugar molecules 

c)

by adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure 

d)

by arranging certain nitrogen bases of the cell in a particular order

98.

 How would overexposure to X-rays affect most animal cells? 

a)

It would increase cell specialization in organs.

b)

It would change the sequence of DNA nucleotides in affected cells.

c)

It would produce new nucleotides for DNA molecules. 

d)

It would cause an increase in red blood cell production.  

99.

Two people believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related? 

a)

 testing blood types 

b)

comparing DNA 

c)

examining karyotypes

d)

  testing for genetic disorders

100.

 Which factor most affects the order of amino acids in a protein? 

a)

the DNA located in the nucleus of the cell 

b)

the cell in which the protein is located 

c)

the amount of ATP available for the cell’s use 

d)

the area in a cell where proteins are produced