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Biology OST Spring Break Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Plants and animal cells are examples of ___ cells 
a)
prokaryotic cells 
b)
eukaryotic cells 
2.
The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 
a)
Prokaryotic cells have a cell membrane but eukaryotic cells do not.
b)
Eukaryotic cells contain DNA in a nucleus while prokaryotic cells do not.
c)
Eukaryotic cells have flagella but prokaryotic cells do not.
d)
Prokaryotic cells contain membrane-bound ribosomes while eukaryotic cells do not. 
3.
How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes similar?
a)
They both contain membrane-bound organelles.
b)
They both have cell membranes.
c)
The both have nuclei.
d)
They both have chloroplasts.
4.
Which cells DO NOT have a cell wall?
a)
animal cell
b)
plant cell
c)
bacteria cell
d)
prison cell
5.
Which of the following structures is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Ribosomes
6.
What structures distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell?
a)
Plant cells have cell walls and ribosomes.
b)
Plant cells have cell walls and chloroplasts.
c)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and a nucleus.
d)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and mitochondria.
7.
Which organelle uses energy from sunlight to make sugar?
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
8.
Stores food and water for the cell.
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Wall
c)
Vacuole
d)
Nucleus
9.

packages and distributes proteins

proteins may be modified here

a)

golgi body

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosomes

d)

lysosome

10.
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...
a)
All materials can enter and leave the cell
b)
Certain things can enter while others cannot
c)
The cell manually sorts through all materials
d)
Only certain cells can interact with the cell.
11.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbs
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
12.
Which of the following is responsible for getting complex molecules across the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbs
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
13.
What are the carbohydrates in the cell membrane for?
a)
to form channels and pumps
b)
to help cells identify one another
c)
to make the membrane strong
14.
What type of solution is a cell in when it gets bigger than normal?
a)
hypertonic
b)
isotonic
c)
hypotonic
15.
Which type of movement goes from low to high concentration?
a)
active transport
b)
diffusion
c)
osmosis, 
d)
facilitated diffusion
16.
What type of solution is a cell in when it shrinks?
a)
hypertonic
b)
isotonic
c)
hypotonic
17.
This has above strength and higher concentration outside than inside the cell. Water moves out.
a)
hypotonic
b)
isotonic
c)
hypertonic
18.
Which type of Passive Transport is being represented in this picture?
a)
Passive Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Diffusion
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
19.
Which transport does not require energy?
a)
Passive
b)
Active 
20.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
21.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
22.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
23.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
24.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
25.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
26.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
27.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
28.
What makes an enzyme substrate specific?
a)
Size
b)
Shape
c)
Name
d)
Location it is found in
29.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
30.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
31.
What three things are needed for a plant to do photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose, Oxygen, Sunlight
b)
CO2, Oxygen, Sunlight
c)
CO2, Water, Sunlight
d)
Oxygen, Water, Sunlight
32.
What two products does a plant make during photosynthesis?
a)
Water and Glucose
b)
Oxygen and Glucose
c)
Oxygen and Water
d)
CO2 and Glucose
33.
In what part of the cell does photosynthesis occur?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Epidermis
d)
Vacuole
34.
This organelle could likely be found in 
a)
plant cells only.
b)
animal cells only.
c)
prokaryotes only.
d)
plant and animal cells.
35.
What are the reactants in cellular respiration?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
glucose and carbon dioxide
c)
water and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and glucose
36.
What are the products in cellular respiration?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
water and glucose
c)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
d)
glucose and oxygen
37.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
38.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
39.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
40.
The process of going from DNA to mRNA is called
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
41.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
42.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
43.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
44.
What is the mRNA strand that would result from the DNA template strand CCTA?
a)
GGAT
b)
CCAT
c)
GGAU
d)
CCAU
45.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
46.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria in cytoplasm

c)

ribosome in cytoplasm

d)

chloroplast in cytoplasm

47.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
48.
a change in one DNA triplet that may result in a new triplet that codes for a stop codon instead of an amino acid is known as
a)
missense
b)
nonsense
c)
frameshift
d)
silent
49.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
50.

This is an example of ___________?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Co-Dominance

c)

Complete Dominance (Mendelian)

51.

A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (SS) and a medium plant (TS) results. This is what type of inheritance pattern?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete Dominance (Mendelian)

52.
How many alleles does an individual have for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
53.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
54.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

55.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
56.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
57.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
58.
I have 2 X chromosomes. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
59.
I have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
60.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
61.
Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is colorblind?
a)
XNXn
b)
XnXn
c)
XNXN
d)
XnY
62.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true? Make a punnett square!
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
63.
In the second generation-how many people have the disease or display the physical trait?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
64.

If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?

a)

XhX

b)

XhXh

c)

XhYh

d)

XhY

65.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
66.
Five hundred years after the deer had established a flourishing population in the park, a few of them venture back to their original woods and have babies with the deer there.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Mutations
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Gene flow
67.
Bats are common in Texas, especially in rocky regions. Bats with longer hang claws have demonstrated higher fitness because of their ability to cling to rock while resting.
a)
Adaptation
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene Flow
d)
Mutation
68.
What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Mutation
d)
Natural Selection
69.
Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...
a)
random chance
b)
natural selection
c)
non-random mating (sexual selection)
d)
artificial selection
70.
 Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in... 
a)
aquatic populations
b)
small populations
c)
terrestrial populations
d)
older populations
71.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
72.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
73.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
74.
Formation of new species.
a)
artificial selection
b)
species
c)
speciation
d)
fossils
75.
What type of selection is depicted in the picture? 
a)
stabilizing 
b)
disruptive
c)
directional 
d)
the answer is not here
76.
Human babies don't do well if they are born too small. If they are too big, complications can occur during birth. Baby size should then be selected for by which method?
a)
stabilizing
b)
directional
c)
disruptive
77.
If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decreases, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?
a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
78.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
79.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
80.
Which two orgainsms have hair? 
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
81.

Which is the newest trait?

a)

Amniotic egg

b)

Walking legs

c)

Jaws

d)

Hair

82.

Who is most closely related to Taxidea taxus?

a)

Lutra lutra

b)

Panthera pardus

c)

Canis latrans

d)

Canis lupus

83.

Which two species are most closely related?

a)

Species 1 & 2

b)

Species 2 & 3

c)

Species 3 & 4

d)

Species 1 & 4

84.
Which of the following is NOT a condition for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
a)
No mutations
b)
Random Mating
c)
No natural selection
d)
No offspring
85.
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,  what is NOT happening to the species?
a)
Survival
b)
Reproduction
c)
Death
d)
Evolution
86.

If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, which of the following would you predict?

a)

The population will evolve, but much more slowly than normal

b)

The makeup of the population's gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold.

c)

The composition of the population's gene pool will change slowly in a predictable manner.

d)

Dominant alleles in the population's gene pool will slowly increase in frequency while recessive alleles will decrease.

e)

The population probably has an equal frequency of A and a alleles.

87.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

88.

What happens if a population grows past its carrying capacity?

a)

The population keeps growing

b)

The population starts to die off

c)

The entire species will go extinct

d)

The carrying capacity just increases

89.

The largest number of individuals that an environment can support long term is...

a)

carrying capacity

b)

emigration

c)

immigration

d)

population density

90.

When death rate is equal to birth rate...

a)

population increases

b)

population decreases

c)

population stays the same.

d)

population rapidly increases then becomes stable

91.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
92.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
93.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
94.
What could affect the shape or function of an enzyme?
a)
Nothing
b)
Temperature
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Enzymes
95.

Will DNA from a liver cell and brain cell of the SAME organism be the same?

a)

YES

b)

NO

96.

The parents of a new baby believe they brought the wrong child home from the hospital. Gel electrophoresis was performed using DNA samples from the parents and the child. A section of the gel

electrophoresis results is shown below. Which conclusion is valid based on the gel electrophoresis results?

a)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information is identical to that of the father.


b)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information does not match that of either parent.

c)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information came from both parents.


d)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information matches only that of the mother.

97.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

98.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
99.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
100.
When DNA is manipulated and moved from one source to another it is known as
a)
genetic engineering
b)
electrophoresis
c)
gene therapy
d)
GMO