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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The cell theory is...

a)

All living organisms are composed of at least one cell.

b)

building blocks of life. All cells come from

c)

All of the above

d)

Cells arise only from previously existing cells.

2.

A prokaryotic cell is...

a)

Cells that don't contain a nucleus but do contain other membrane-bound organelles.

b)

Cells that contain a nucleus but no other membrane-bound organelles.

c)

Cells that contain a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Cells that don't contain a nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelles.

3.

The cell membrane main purpose is...

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Energy Production

c)

Locomotive

d)

Looking good

4.
Which symbiotic relationship is described by one individual benefiting and the other being neither harmed nor benefited?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Competition
5.
Where in the cell does cell respiration occur?
a)
chloroplast 
b)
central vacuole 
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
6.
This organic molecule is the main component of biological membranes.....
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids 
c)
proteins 
d)
nucleic acids
7.
Which of the following is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cell Wall 
d)
Ribosomes 
8.

What is the outer most part of a cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cell skin

9.
Controls what enters/leaves a cell
a)
cell membrane
b)
Nuclear membrane
c)
cell wall
d)
cytoplasm
10.
A mite lives in the base of the eyelashes of people who use mascara. It feeds on the mascara; it does not seem to harm people. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
11.

True or False: The main function of a lipid is to store energy.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The units of protein are

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty acid

d)

Peptides

13.

Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

14.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
15.

Transcribe the following DNA sequence into RNA:


AAT TAG GGC TCG

a)

AAT TAG GGC TCG

b)

TTA ATC CCG AGC

c)

UUA AUC CCG AGC

d)

TTU UTC CCG UGC

16.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
17.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

18.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

19.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

20.

This type of mutation involves removing a piece of DNA where it belongs.

Known as a frameshift mutation.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Insertion Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

21.

The structure of a protein folding determines its

a)

Function

b)

Properties

22.

Why is mRNA important?

a)

It can leave the nucleus unlike DNA

b)

It is smaller than DNA

c)

It can travel to the golgi apparatus

23.

Where does transcription occur?

a)

The ribosome

b)

The nucleus

c)

The golgi apparatus

24.

Where does tanslation occur

a)

The nucleus

b)

The Ribosome

c)

The Golgi Apparatus

25.

Where must mutations happen in order for them to be passed down to future generations?

a)

In gamete cells

b)

In somatic cells

26.

What are the reactants of photosynthesis:

a)

Water and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

c)

Water and Oxygen

27.

Where does a plant get its mass from?

a)

CO2

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Sunlight

28.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
29.

What is the job of messenger RNA?

a)

to transfer amino acids

b)

to assemble the protein

c)

to carry genetic information

30.

An organism's ability to maintain stable internal conditions necessary for life

a)

metabolism

b)

stimulus

c)

growth spurt

d)

homeostasis

31.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?

a)

growth and development

b)

response to the environment

c)

ability to have great singing voice

d)

to reproduce

32.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6C2 + C6H12O6 --> 6CO2+6H20+ Energy

b)

6CO2+6H20-->6O2+C6H1206 +Energy

33.

There are _ pairs of chromosomes in a human body cell.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

43

d)

2018

34.

Which organelle bonds amino acids together to make proteins?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

35.

Cancer results from gene that control...

a)

Digestion

b)

cell division

c)

respiration

d)

photosynthesis

36.

Which of the following is an autotroph?

a)

cat

b)

tree

c)

mushroom

d)

leopard

37.

True or False: Cellular respiration is called anaerobic process because it requires oxygen

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Prokaryotes lack

a)

cytoplasm

b)

a nucleus

c)

a plasma membrane

d)

genetic material

39.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
40.
Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order?
a)
interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
c)
mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
d)
interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
41.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
42.
Which of these phases of mitosis take place first?
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
43.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
44.

What is the image above:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

45.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

46.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

47.

In which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

48.

WHAT DOES MEIOSIS CREATE?

a)

CHROMOSOMES

b)

GAMETES

c)

DNA

d)

TRAITS

49.

THE END RESULT OF MEIOSIS IS...

a)

FOUR UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

b)

FOUR IDENTICAL GAMETES

c)

TWO IDENTICAL GAMETES

d)

TWO UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

50.

THE GAMETES ARE CONSIDERED TO HAVE ONE HALF OF THE GENETIC INFO SO IT IS CALLED

a)

DIPLOID (2N)

b)

DIPLOID (N)

c)

HAPLOID (2N)

d)

HAPLOID (N)

51.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
52.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
53.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
54.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
55.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
56.
If a segment of double-stranded DNA has 40 percent A, how much of it is C?
a)
40
b)
10
c)
15
d)
20
57.

Unicellular organisms that lack a nucleus and other cellular organelles are known as...

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Heterotroph

d)

Autotroph

58.
What is the name for all populations of species within an area
a)
Community
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Biosphere
d)
Biome
59.
The term biotic means;-
a)
Not a robot or robotic
b)
Living Things
c)
Water based environments
d)
Non-living things
60.
Two heterozygous white (brown fur is recessive) rabbits are crossed. What is their genotype?
a)
25% homozygous domestic; 25% homozygous recessive; 50% heterozygous
b)
50% homozygous dominant; 50% heterozygous
c)
25% homozygous domestic; 75% homozygous recessive
61.

If you cross a white flower (pp) with a purple flower (PP), the possible genotypes of the offspring are

a)

PP and pp

b)

All Pp

c)

All PP

d)

All pp

62.

If you crossed a PP (purple) with a pp (white), what would the phenotypes be?

a)

all white

b)

all tall

c)

all purple

d)

1/2 white, 1/2 purple

63.

_____________ describes a trait that covers over, or masks another form of that trait.

a)

recessive

b)

gene

c)

allele

d)

dominant

64.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
65.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
66.

Produces four cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

67.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
68.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
69.

In animals, shaggy fur is dominant to short fur. According to the genotypes shown, what percent of offspring will have short fur?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

70.

Hair color, height, eye color and freckles are examples of human traits. What do we call the physical expression of the genetic material of an organism?

a)

genetics

b)

heredity

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

71.

Heterozygous is when...

a)

the alleles are the same.

b)

the alleles are different.

c)

the alleles are absent.

d)

the alleles are present.

72.

In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

73.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
74.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the trait of tallness? 
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
75.

Bb is a ______.

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

76.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

77.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

78.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ----

a)

not affected male.

b)

not affected female.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

79.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

80.

What is the mode of inheritance shown here?

a)

Recessive because it "skips" a generation

b)

Dominant because it shows up in every generation

81.

On this pedigree, the allele for curly hair is dominant. The couple labeled 2 both have curly hair, but have a daughter who does not have curly hair. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that for the couple labeled 2 -

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous recessive and the female is homozygous dominant.

82.

Why do all the daughters in Generation II carry the colorblind gene?

a)

Because mom passed on the gene.

b)

Because dad passed on the X chromosome.

83.

The large-scale events of speciation are called...

a)

macroevolution

b)

simplification

c)

adaptation

d)

microevolution

84.

Which of the following lines of evidence shows that whales are descended from a land-dwelling, four-legged ancestor?

a)

Whales have bone structures in their forelimbs and pelvis that are similar to those of terrestrial mammals

b)

Whale embyros have similar structure to embryos of land-dwelling mammals, birds, and reptiles.

c)

An analysis of DNA shows that whales' closest living relatives are hippopotamuses.

d)

A, B, and C

85.

During microevolution, a(n) __________________ will become more or less common within a population.

a)

species

b)

allele

c)

ribosome

d)

fossil

86.
What is convergent evolution?
a)
evolution toward similar traits in unrelated species
b)
evolution toward different traits in closely related species
c)
elimination of a species from Earth
d)
the rise of two or more species from one existing species
87.
What is the most correct definition of evolution?
a)
Change over time. 
b)
Animals changing over time. 
c)
Organisms changing over time.
d)
Species changing over time. 
88.

The three species pictured do not share a common ancestor, yet have evolved to have a similar anatomy and life style. This is an example of ?

a)

Homologous Structures

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Vestigial Organs

d)

Convergent Evolution

89.

The three species pictured share a common ancestor and have adapted so that each lives in a different environment. This is an example of

a)

Law of Superposition

b)

Evolutionary Arms Race

c)

Divergent Evolution

d)

Convergent Evolution

90.

What is the process in evolution that led to development of different kinds of beaks in finches?

a)

mimicry

b)

macroevolution

c)

natural selection

91.

Genetic fitness means that an organism's ability to do what is high?

a)

lift weights really well

b)

reproduce effectively

c)

attract other members of their species

d)

survive environmental disasters

92.

Microevolution happens in

a)

species

b)

individuals

c)

populations

d)

households

93.

The palmarus longus tendon, pictured here, no longer serves a purpose in humans, but provides evidence of our species descendance from tree-dwelling ancestors. The palmarus longus tendon is an example of:

a)

a vestigial structure

b)

a homologous structure

c)

bipedalism

d)

convergent evolution

94.
a)
analogous structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
vestigial structures
d)
none of the above
95.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

96.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

97.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

98.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

99.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

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