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Topic 3 - Genetics - IB Biology

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the notation TT mean to a geneticist?

a)

two dominant alleles

b)

heterozygous alleles

c)

at least one dominant allele

d)

one dominant and one recessive allele

2.

What does a Punnett square show?

a)

all of Mendel’s discoveries about genetic crosses

b)

only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross

c)

only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross

d)

all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross

3.

An organism’s genotype is its

a)

stem height

b)

feather color

c)

genetic makeup

d)

physical appearance

4.

Factors that control traits are called

a)

parents

b)

genes

c)

purebreds

d)

recessives

5.

What is probability?

a)

the number of times a coin lands heads up

b)

the actual results from a series of events

c)

the way the results of one event affect the next event

d)

a number that describes how likely it is that an event will occur

6.

If a homozygous black guinea pig (BB) is crossed with a homozygous white guinea pig (bb), what is the probability that an offspring will have black fur?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

7.

An organism’s physical appearance is its

a)

dominance

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

8.

The different forms of a gene are called

a)

factors

b)

alleles

c)

masks

d)

traits

9.

An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait is

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

a phenotype

d)

tall

10.

A heterozygous organism has

a)

three different alleles for a trait.

b)

two identical alleles for a trait.

c)

only one allele for a trait.

d)

two different alleles for a trait.

11.

How many chromosomes are found in each cell of your body?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

40

d)

45

12.

This type of allele is expressed whether there are one or two copies present.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

13.

What is the most common genetic disease worldwide?

a)

Sickle Cell Disease

b)

ALS

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

COVID-19

14.

Sickle Cell Disease is caused by this type of genetic mutation:

a)

Substitution of a single DNA nucleotide

b)

Extra nucleotides are inserted into the DNA

c)

A nucleotide is "skipped" during replication

d)

Part of a chromosome is lost, resulting in the less genes

15.

Sickle Cell Anemia causes errors in the formation of this protein's quaternary shape:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

RNA Polymerase

d)

Salivary amylase

16.

When a change occurs in the DNA sequence, either due to copying mistakes or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light, it is called:

a)

Mutation

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Cancer

17.

What is the term for the physical locations within the genome for genes, somewhat like a street address?

a)

Loci

b)

Chromosomal destinations

c)

Translocations

d)

DNA zip codes

18.

If you consider the entire chromosome as a country where a gene is found, a region of the chromosome would be the city. The more specific area, or the _____________, is this particular neighborhood where the gene is found.

a)

Locus

b)

Street address

c)

Gene-point

d)

Allele

19.

On a locus in the 11th chromosome, one specific nucleotide mutation causes a glutamic acid (GLU) to be substituted by valine (VAL) as the sixth amino acid in the hemoglobin polypeptide. This causes the mutated hemoglobin to:

a)

Stick to one another and form long, rod-like structures.

b)

Break apart and flow through the blood freely.

c)

Form into super clusters known as megahemotagens.

d)

Carry additional volumes of oxygen per blood cell.

20.

What is an organism’s complete set of genetic instructions?

a)

Genome

b)

Proteome

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

Alleles

21.

What is it called when male and female gametes fuse?

a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
22.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
23.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
24.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
25.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
One-fourth as many
c)
Twice as many
d)
Half as many
26.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
27.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during 
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
28.

A healthy human zygote has _____ chromosomes.

a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
29.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
30.

The autosomal cells of a human being have 46 chromosomes.  What is the haploid number found in a gamete?

a)
23
b)
46
c)
69
d)
92
31.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
32.

Crossing over takes place during:

a)

Prophase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Interphase

d)

Metaphase I

33.
How many DNA molecules make up a chromosome?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
23
d)
46
34.
Autosomes are
a)
chromosomes found in autotrophs, only
b)
chromosomes that automatically correct all errors in the DNA
c)
chromosomes that determine traits other than sex
d)
chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual
35.
Which of these organisms has more chromosomes than humans?
a)

Dogs

b)

Moths

c)

Grapes

d)
all of these -- the number of chromosomes does not determine complexity of the organism
36.
The number of nucleotides in a human cell is about
a)
3000
b)
300,000
c)
3 million
d)
3 billion
37.

How many different DNA nucleotides are there?

a)

impossible to count

b)

12

c)

6

d)

4

38.

Homologous chromosomes are

a)

identical in every way

b)

alike in length and the genes they code for

c)

attached at the centromere

d)

different lengths

39.

Dogs have a chromosome number of 78. How many homologous pairs can you find in a dog's egg cells

a)

78

b)

34

c)

none, haploid cells don't have homologous pairs

d)

none, diploid cells don't have homologous pairs

40.

This type of cell has naked DNA (not associated with histones):

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Blood cells

d)

Fungal cells

41.

These type of organisms carry their chromosomes in linear sequence (not circular):

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Bacterium

d)

Viruses

42.

A small loop of extra DNA can be found in some bacteria, and impart additional characteristics to the organism. What are these called?

a)

Plasmids

b)

Histones

c)

Gametes

d)

Chromosomes

43.

This type of protein organizes the long, thin Eukaryotic DNA:

a)

Histone

b)

Amylase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Dipeptide

44.

______ produces two identical daughter cells, while ______ produces four unique (grand)daughter cells.

a)

Mitosis, meiosis

b)

Mitosis, binary fission

c)

Meiosis, mitosis

d)

Binary fission, mitosis

45.

Errors in the meiotic segregation can lead to the formation of gametes with incomplete sets of chromosomes or additional whole chromosomes.

What is this called?

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Karyotyping

c)

Down's Syndrome

d)

Edward's Syndrome

46.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
47.

How many people in this whole pedigree have the disease?

a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
48.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
49.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
50.

In this pedigree, which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not have it?

a)

Just males

b)

Just females

c)

Both genders

51.
If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indication that the trait is....
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
c)
incompletely dominant
d)
co-dominant
52.

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait (blue eyes are SHADED). What is the genotype of the father (square) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

53.

A pedigree chart tracks ________ specific trait(s).

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

15

54.

Which process is shown in the image?

a)

crossing over

b)

independent assortment

c)

segregation

d)

mutation

55.
The "Father of Genetics"
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Robert Hooke
56.

Which of Mendel's laws states that when an organism is hybrid (heterozygous) for a trait, the dominant trait is the one that is shown. 

a)
Law of Dominance
b)
Law of Independent Assortment
c)
Law of of Segregation
d)
Law of Incomplete Dominance
57.
Why do we see only tall plants in the second generation?
a)
The gene for tall height is dominant
b)
The gene for short height is dominant
c)
The gene for tall height is recessive
d)
The parents did not have the tall gene
58.

During meiosis and gamete formation, homologous (paired up) alleles separate so the gamete only carries one allele for each gene. What is this known as?

a)

Phenotype

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Genotype

d)

Dihybrid Cross

59.

During meiosis matching alleles are separated, some from the father and some from the mother are passed to the offspring. What is this known as?

a)

Homozygous Dominant

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Crossing Over

d)

Independent Assortment

60.

The Austrian monk/scientist who first showed

the principles of genetics

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Linnaeus

c)

Darwin

d)

Mendel

61.

Blood type is determined by the antigens present on the surface of RBCs.

a)

True

b)

False

62.
An individual's blood type is determined by
a)
environment
b)
genetics
c)
both environment and genetics
d)
your children's blood type
63.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
64.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
65.
How many phenotypes are there in ABO blood types?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
12
66.
Universal blood donors have type ______ blood.
a)
A
b)
AB
c)
B
d)
O
67.

With three different alleles for blood type, how many different genotypes are there?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12

68.

Individuals with either of the Blood type genotypes pictured here have what Blood Type?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AO

d)

O

69.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

70.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

71.
Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA on:
a)
Size
b)
Adenine percentage
c)

Thymine percentage

d)
R-group charge
72.

The PCR technology creates:

a)
Copies of DNA
b)
Copies of RNA
c)
Copies of Genomes
d)
Copies of Cells
73.
Comparison of DNA "fingerprints" is also called what?
a)
DNA Profiling
b)
DNA Amplification
c)
DNA Comparison
d)
DNA Polymerization
74.
An organism that contains genetic material into which DNA from an unrelated organism is
a)
Transgenic
b)
Crossed over
c)
Spliced
d)
DNA Hybrid
75.
Genetic modification transfers these between species
a)
Genes
b)
Hormones
c)
Insulin
d)
Chromosomes
76.
Genetically identical organisms are known as
a)
Clones
b)
Species
c)
Parasites
d)
Chiasma
77.
All DNA carry this overall charge
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Neutral
d)
Electrical
78.
In gel electrophoresis these size DNA fragments move the farthest
a)
Smaller
b)
Larger
c)
Double helixed
d)
Plasmids<br />
79.
Samples of DNA were obtained from fossils of a Neanderthal. They were amplifed using PCR and compared to modern day humans and chimps. Are these ancient humans' DNA more similar to humans or chimps?
a)
Human
b)
Chimp
c)
Neanderthal
d)
Chimp-Neanderthal
80.
To conduct DNA profiling, what must be done after obtaining the DNA sample of interest?
a)
Amplify the DNA
b)
Gel electrophoresis
c)
Apprehend the criminal
d)
Compare to known suspect's DNA
81.
DNA profiling is used in paternity investigations. These are done to find out if a man is the father of a child. Who's DNA would have to be profiled?
a)
Mother's
b)
Father's
c)
Child's
d)
Scientist's
82.
Which of the three suspects' DNA fingerprints matches the specimen recovered from the crime scene?
a)
Suspect 1
b)
Suspect 2
c)
Suspect 3
d)
Suspect 4
83.
What feature of DNA enables molecular biologists to transfer genes between species?
a)
The DNA code is universal
b)
The RNA can translate between species
c)
mRNA uses uracil
d)

Prokaryotes have no nucleus

84.

This is a small extra circle of DNA

a)
Plasmid
b)
Vector
c)
cDNA
d)
Codon
85.
Enzymes which cut DNA molecules at specific base sequences are known as:
a)
Restriction Enzymes
b)
CRISPR
c)
TAQ Polymerase
d)
Gene scissors
86.

This hormone secreted from the pancreas and controls blood glucose levels.

a)
Insulin
b)
Glucosase
c)

Testosterone

d)
Diabetes
87.
When DNA of interest is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, we call this DNA:
a)
Recombinant
b)
Transgenic
c)
Chimeric
d)
Hybridized
88.
Using genetic modification we can produce insulin from bacteria that is identical to:
a)
Human insulin
b)
Bacterial insulin
c)
Cow insulin
d)
Pig insulin
89.
The unknowns of genetically modified corn makes it too dangerous to sell in grocery stores.
a)
false
b)
true
90.
There is no such thing as "natural" clones.
a)
false
b)
true
91.
The DNA of clones is __________ to the parent.
a)
Identical
b)
Haploid
c)
Complimentary
d)
Incompatible
92.
The first animal to be artifically cloned was a sheep called:
a)
Dolly
b)
Rodney
c)
Jimmy
d)
Sheepie
93.

A nucleus was removed from a cell of sheep P and fused with a denucleated egg cell of sheep Q. This was transplanted into the uterus of sheep R, which gave birth to Dolly.

Which describes Dolly?

a)

A clone of sheep P, because Dolly was formed from the nucleus of its udder cell

b)

A clone of sheep Q, because Dolly was formed from one of its egg cells

c)

A clone of sheep R, because Dolly developed in its uterus

d)

Not a proper clone, as more than one sheep was involved in the development

94.

A two-cell sea urchin (Echinoidea) embryo was physically separated by scientists into two cells. Each cell, through further embryonic development, became an adult sea urchin.

What is the relationship between the two adult sea urchins?

a)

They are equivalent to non-identical twins.

b)

Half of the genes would be the same.

c)

Both adults would have haploid cells.

d)

They are clones.

95.

To clone an organism a cell must have it's nucleus replaced with a nucleus of the organism to clone.

Should the scientists select a haploid or diploid nucleus?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Either

d)

Neither

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