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Pharm II Midterm

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Insulin promotes fuel storage (glucose OUT of blood), and Glucagon promotes fuel mobilization (glucose INTO blood)

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1 (non-insulin dependant), Type 2 (insulin dependant)

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Obesity is a risk factor for this type of diabetes and usually occurs in persons older than 40.

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

4.

Oral surgery in a client with Diabetes Mellitus should be performed ___________ hours after the patient has eaten a normal breakfast and has taken regular anti-diabetes medication.

a)

2-3

b)

1.5-2

c)

3-4

d)

4-6

5.

The oral complaints of pain and discomfort related to the tongue and other oral structures are related to diabetic

a)

neuropathy

b)

macroangiopathy

6.

Contributing factors to gangrene in the extremities of diabetic patients include

a)

Poor Eyesight

b)

Poor circulation

c)

Reduced sensation in the extremeties

d)

Increased sensation in the extremities

7.

The most common adverse effect of using insulin to treat type 1 diabetes is

a)

Hypoglycaemia

b)

Hyperglycaemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotension

8.

Which of the following can interact with SULFONYLUREAS to produce a decrease in serum glucose level (which is not clinically significant unless the diabetic patient is especially brittle)

a)

NSAIDS

b)

Opioids

c)

Coumadin

d)

Aspirin

9.

The first line of treatment for Type II diabetes is usually a __________ and or a biguanide.

a)

Insulin

b)

Sulfonylurea

c)

Pramlintide

d)

Bile Acid Sequestrates

10.

Metformin (Glucophage) is the most common biguanide. An adverse reaction of metformin occurs primarily in the GI tract.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Treatment of hypoglycaemia includes intravenous dextrose if client is conscious.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Patients with diabetes are at an increased risk for caries.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

According to the CDHO, Invasive dental care should not be provided when blood glucose levels are

a)

< 3.9 or >11.1

b)

< 2.9 or > 12.1

c)

< 3.9 or < 6.1

14.

Which of the following blood glucose readings will lead to dismissal of a client?

a)

11.1 or less

b)

11.2 to 13.3

c)

13.4 or higher

15.

Also known as the MASTER gland

a)

Pituitary Gland

b)

Adrenal Gland

16.

Anterior pituitary secretes

a)

LH and FSH

b)

Vasopressin and Oxytocin

17.

hCH is used in infertility to stimulate ovarian follicle development.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

_________ stimulates pituitary function and is also used to treat infertility.

a)

Leuprolide

b)

Menotropin

c)

Pergonal

19.

Synthetic oxytocin used via injection or intra orally to

a)

Induce Labour

b)

Control postpartum hemorrhage

c)

Induce postpartum lactation

d)

Inhibit Labour

20.

Simple loiter is quite prevalent in some areas of the world because iodine is abundant in most foods.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Dental disorders exhibited by Cretins (hypothyroidism in small child) include

a)

Malocclusion

b)

Delayed tooth eruption

c)

Increased tendency to develop perio

d)

Poorly shaped teeth/carious

e)

Inflamed, pale, or enlarged gingiva

22.

Pregnant women with hypothyroidism tend to give birth to offspring with SMALL teeth.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Common medications used to treat hypothyroidism include

a)

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

b)

Liothyronine

c)

Liotrix

d)

All of the above

24.

Diffuse toxic goiter

a)

Graves disease

b)

Plummer disease

25.

Exophthalmos is a characteristic sign of

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperglycaemia

26.

Epinephrine is relatively safe to administer to patients with hyperthyroidism.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Patients with hypothyroidism require higher than usual doses of sedatives, analgesics, and LA.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Drug of choice for patients over 21 with hyperthyroidism is Radioactive Iodine (1321).

a)

true

b)

false

29.

The most common side effects of estrogen therapy are

a)

nausea, vomitting

b)

nausea, diarrhea

c)

diarrhea, sweating

d)

tachycardia, vomitting

30.

____________ in estrogen and progestin levels are associated with gingivitis.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

31.

Dry socket is a common side effect in clients taking hormonal contraceptives. The risk can be minimized by timing the extraction to match the hormonal cycle.

a)

True True

b)

True False

c)

False True

d)

False False

32.

Antibiotics may enhance the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Used for palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women.

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Amoxifen

d)

Tetracycline

34.

Used in dentistry topically or systemically for treatment of oral lesions associated with inflammatory disorders.

a)

Adrenocortocosteriods

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Vasoconstrictors

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers

35.

Adrenocortocosteroids are secreted by

a)

adrenal cortex

b)

adrenal medulla

36.

Adrenocorticosteroids are divided into 2 major groups- glucocorticoids, and mineralocorticoids. The major glucocorticoid present in the body is cortisol.

a)

True True

b)

True False

c)

False True

d)

False False

37.

Without stress, the normal adult secretes approx. 20mg of hydrocortisone daily.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The maximal secretion of cortisol occurs between __am and ___am in people with a normal sleep schedule.

a)

4, 8

b)

2, 4

c)

4, 6

d)

2, 6

39.

A disease produced by a deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids.

a)

Graves

b)

Addisons

c)

Cushing

d)

Steven Johnsons

40.

A disease caused by EXCESS of adrenocorticosteroids.

a)

Cushing

b)

Addisons

c)

Graves

d)

Sjorgens

41.

Corticosteroids are palliative rather than curative.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Adrenocorticosteroids may mask symptoms of an infection.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Corticosteroids can increase intraocular pressure, which may exaberate glaucoma.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

With a patient with dental phobia, there is risk for adrenal crisis due to a relative lack of corticosteroids during stress.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

The most common oral corticosteroid.

a)

Prednisone

b)

Triamcinolone Acetonide

c)

Methylprednisone

46.

Because steroids can delay wound healing, patients receiving long term oral steroids may require antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental appointments.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Patients currently taking _____mg of Hydrocortisone daily should be prescribed supplemental corticosteroids BEFORE a stressful dental procedure.

a)

10-20

b)

20-40

c)

40-50

d)

50-60

48.

The dental paste form of betamethasone is mostly used to treat

a)

aphthous ulcers

b)

dry socket

c)

irritation fibroma

49.

During an allergic reaction, mast cells degranulate and histamine is released.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The predominant feature of anaphylaxis is

a)

Bronchoconstriction

b)

Bronchodialation

51.

What is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Aspirin

d)

NSAIDS

52.

The most common side effect for antihistamines

a)

Sedation

b)

GI tract

c)

Nausea

d)

Itchiness

53.

Benadryl is suggested as an alternative agent to provide LA when a patient has exhibited ALLERGIES to the normally used anesthetic agents.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Anticholinergic effects lead to __________, which can cause numerous dental problems

a)

Gingival hyperplasia

b)

Xerostomia

c)

Acidity in saliva

55.

Peripheral H1 Receptor agents cross the blood brain barrier.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Intranasal decongestants should not be used more than _______ consecutive days in order to avoid rebound congestion.

a)

3-5

b)

2-4

c)

1-2

d)

5-7

57.

Psychiatric disorders include

a)

Psychoses

b)

Affective Disorder

c)

Neuroses

d)

Bi-Polar

e)

Schizophrenia

58.

First generation antipsychotic drugs are active against the ________ effects of psychosis, but have little effects on the ___________ effects.

a)

Negative, positive

b)

Positive, negative

59.

Positive symptoms include

a)

Agitation

b)

Delusions

c)

Auditory hallucinations

d)

Distorted speech

e)

Social withdrawal

60.

Patient who exhibit alternating periods of depression and excitation

a)

Bipolar

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Anxiety

61.

Bipolar disorder is treated with

a)

Lithium

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Antipsychotics

62.

First generation agents are more commonly used vs second generation, because they have effects against the positive and negative effects associated with psychosis.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

The lower the potency of antipsychotic, the more sedation, peripheral side effects, and autonomic effects.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Typically in women over 40, who have been taking LARGE doses of Phenothiazine for a minimum of 6mo-20 years. The onset is GRADUAL and symptoms are EXACERBATED on drug withdrawal.

a)

Tardive Dyskinea

b)

Parkinsons

c)

Akathisia

65.

Patients taking antipsychotic agents experiencing TMJ pain, should be counteracted by giving which type of drug?

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Aspirin

d)

Acyclovir

66.

Patients on first generation antipsychotics CANNOT take smoking cessation meds like BUPROPION (Zyban) due to an increased risk of

a)

Heart failure

b)

Seizure

c)

Stroke

67.

In the case of suicidal thoughts, which would work faster and is safer in a depressed patient?

a)

Antidepressants

b)

ECT (Electroconvulsive therapy)

68.

An adverse reaction to Tricyclic antidepressants is SLUD.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which of the following drugs carries a Black Box warning regarding its potential to cause life-threatening LIVER FAILURE

a)

Bupropion (Zyban)

b)

Nefazodone (Serzone)

70.

It is safe to give local anesthetic to clients taking tricyclic antidepressants.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, but only the cardiac dose

71.

Lithium is used more often than Valproate in the treatment of BIPOLAR due to its more tolerable side effects.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Generalized seizures include Absence (petit mal), Tonic-clonic (grand-mal, most common). Neither petit mal nor grand mal seizures is preceded by a true aura.

a)

True True

b)

True False

c)

False True

d)

False False

73.

Drug of choice for status epilepticus

a)

Diazepam (Valium)

b)

Ethosuximide

c)

Phenobarbital

74.

Anti epileptics are CNS depressants. Exact mechanism of action is unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Anti epileptic agents have a _________ TI.

a)

High

b)

Low

76.

Idiosyncratic reactions such as Drug induced ___________, are an adverse reaction of anti epileptic drugs.

a)

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

b)

Sjorgen Syndrome

c)

Steven Johnsons Syndrome

d)

Cushing Disease

77.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is used in dentistry in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia. The dental team should observe the oral cavity for petechiae or signs of infections in patients taking this medication.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Persons with untreated CVD are at an increased risk for severe perio disease, insulin-dependant diabetes, atherosclerosis, and emboli production.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Which side of the heart typically fails first?

a)

Left

b)

Right

80.

Left side heart failure, semi supine. Right side heart failure, supine.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Most common drug used for heart failure (also used for arrhythmias), and have a narrow therapeutic index.

a)

Digoxin (Lanoxin)

b)

Diuretics

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Nifedipine

82.

In a normally functioning heart, the bundle of HIS receives its electrical input from the

a)

AV Node

b)

SA node

83.

Most commonly used fro ACUTE anginal episodes

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Digoxin

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

84.

Prophylactic nitrates should be given with an 8-12 hour "vacation" every day (often during sleep)

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Nifedipine is associated with gingival enlargement and dysgeusia.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Hypotension is the most common cardiovascular disease.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

Works by promoting excretion of sodium and water, which in turn lowers blood volume and pressure.

a)

Thiazide

b)

Loop diruretics

c)

Potassium Sparing diuretics

88.

Most important dental drug interaction with thiazides is with

a)

NSAIDS

b)

Aspirin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Adrenocoticosteroids

89.

Primarily used to treat hypertension and edema, and example is Lasix

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Thiazide

c)

Potassium sparing

90.

Suffix of ACEIs

a)

-pam

b)

-pril

c)

-lam

d)

-ine

91.

ACEIs retard the progression of diabetic nephropathy whether hypertension is present or not.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

ACEIs are safe to administer to pregnant women

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) suffix

a)

-pril

b)

-artan

c)

-lam

d)

-ine

94.

CCBs suffix (Calcium Channel Blockers)

a)

-artan

b)

-pril

c)

-dipine

95.

Mechanism of calcium channel blockers

a)

vasodilation

b)

vasoconstriction

96.

NSAIDS are safe to use with calcium channel blockers

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Propranolol blocks both B1 & B2 receptors, which can worsen ___________

a)

Asthma

b)

Seizures

c)

Diabetes

98.

_________ works by inhibiting the secretion of very low density lipoproteins without accumulation of triglycerides in the liver

a)

Niacin

b)

Lovastatin

c)

Hydralzine

d)

CCBs

99.

Warfarin antagonizes vitamin

a)

D

b)

E

c)

K

d)

A

100.

Most dental procedures require a change in the dose of warfarin

a)

True

b)

False