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AP PSYCH: FINAL 1-10

Total questions: 199

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

From the 1920s into the 1960s, American psychologists emphasized the study of

a)

genetic influences.

b)

self-esteem.

c)

conscious thoughts and feelings

d)

observable behavior.

2.

Which seventeenth-century European philosopher believed that some ideas are innate?

a)

John Locke

b)

Ivan Pavlov

c)

Edward Titchener

d)

René Descartes

3.

Professor McClure believes that young children are frequently able to make morally correct decisions because humans are endowed with an inborn knowledge of basic ethical principles. The professor's belief is most consistent with the views of

a)

Aristotle.

b)

Plato.

c)

John Locke.

d)

B. F. Skinner.

4.

Wilhelm Wundt's laboratory work involved experimental studies of

a)

animal intelligence.

b)

personality development.

c)

social influence

d)

mental processes.

5.

William James was a prominent American

a)

psychoanalyst.

b)

behaviorist.

c)

functionalist.

d)

structuralist

6.

Introspection was the basic research tool used by ________ in order to study people's inner sensations and mental images.

a)

John B. Watson

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Edward Titchener

d)

B. F. Skinner

7.

Which major force in psychology emphasized unconscious thought processes?

a)

evolutionary psychology

b)

Freudian psychology

c)

behavior genetics

d)

behaviorism

8.

Who was a student of William James and the first female president of the American Psychological Association?

a)

Jean Piaget

b)

Margaret Floy Washburn

c)

Rosalie Rayner

d)

Mary Whiton Calkins

9.

Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of

a)

conscious and unconscious mental activity.

b)

observable responses to the environment.

c)

behavior and mental processes.

d)

maladaptive and adaptive behaviors.

10.

The young science of psychology developed from the more established fields of philosophy and

a)

economics.

b)

biology.

c)

geography.

d)

sociology.

11.

Plato's assumption that certain ideas are inborn is most directly relevant to the controversy regarding

a)

conscious and unconscious thoughts.

b)

observation and introspection.

c)

nature and nurture.

d)

basic and applied research.

12.

Psychologists' personal values and goals

a)

are carefully tested by means of observation and experimentation.

b)

lead them to avoid experiments involving human participants.

c)

can bias their observations and interpretations.

d)

have very little influence on the process of scientific observation.

13.

The first major issue that emerges in debates over experimenting on animals centers around the

a)

usefulness of studying biological processes in animals.

b)

ethics of placing the well-being of humans above that of animals.

c)

obligation to treat information about individual animals with confidentiality.

d)

need to obtain the informed consent of animals used in research.

14.

Which of the following events is the most probable?

a)

flipping 6 or more heads in 10 coin flips.

b)

flipping 60 or more heads in 100 coin flips.

c)

flipping 600 or more heads in 1000 coin flips

d)

All these events are equally probable.

15.

Approximately what percentage of the cases represented by the normal curve fall between –1 and +1 standard deviations from the mean?

a)

16

b)

34

c)

68

d)

95

16.

Statistical reasoning can help us to generalize correctly from a

a)

range to a standard deviation

b)

standard deviation to a mean.

c)

sample to a population

d)

scatterplot to a skewed distribution.

17.

The standard deviation is the square root of the average squared deviation of scores from the

a)

normal curve.

b)

median.

c)

mean.

d)

range.

18.

Median is to range as central tendency is to ________.

a)

skewed distribution

b)

mode

c)

correlation

d)

variation

19.

A lopsided distribution of scores in which the mean is much larger than both the mode and median is said to be

a)

statistically significant.

b)

a random sample.

c)

a scatterplot.

d)

skewed

20.

Random assignment minimizes ________ between experimental and control groups. Random sampling minimizes ________ between a sample and a population.

a)

similarities; differences

b)

differences; similarities

c)

similarities; similarities

d)

differences; differences

21.

Professor Smith told one class that drinking alcohol has been found to increase sexual desire. He informed another class that drinking alcohol has been found to reduce sexual appetite. The fact that neither class was surprised by the information they received best illustrates the power of

a)

replication.

b)

hindsight bias.

c)

the double-blind procedure.

d)

the placebo effect.

22.

On a series of coin tosses, Oleg has correctly predicted heads or tails seven times in a row. In this instance, we can reasonably conclude that Oleg's predictive accuracy

a)

defies the laws of statistical probability.

b)

illustrates the phenomenon of hindsight bias.

c)

is inconsistent with the placebo effect.

d)

is a random and coincidental occurrence.

23.

By testing their predictions with the observational method of science, psychologists are using a(n)

a)

correlation coefficient.

b)

empirical approach.

c)

standard deviation.

d)

independent variable.

24.

The explanatory power of a scientific theory is most closely linked to its capacity to generate testable

a)

assumptions.

b)

correlations.

c)

predictions.

d)

variables.

25.

Which technique involves repeating the essence of an earlier research study with different participants and in different circumstances?

a)

replication

b)

random sampling

c)

naturalistic observation

d)

the double-blind procedure

26.

University of Texas students were fitted with belt-worn tape recorders for up to four days so that researchers could sample their daily activities. The researchers employed a scientific method known as

a)

naturalistic observation.

b)

the double-blind procedure.

c)

the standard deviation.

d)

the case study.

27.

People often fail to make accurate generalizations because they are unduly influenced by ________ cases.

a)

randomly selected

b)

vivid

c)

representative

d)

operationally defined

28.

Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two factors

a)

vary together.

b)

are random samples.

c)

influence each other

d)

show statistically significant differences.

29.

If the correlation between the physical weight and reading ability of children is +0.85, this would indicate that

a)

there is very little statistical relationship between weight and reading ability among children.

b)

low body weight has a negative effect on the reading abilities of children.

c)

better reading ability is associated with greater physical weight among children.

d)

body weight has no causal influence on the reading abilities of children.

30.

Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group?

a)

The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants' behavior.

b)

The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments.

c)

The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental treatment

d)

The experimental treatment is absent.

31.

Phrenology highlighted the presumed functions of

a)

specific brain regions.

b)

synaptic gaps.

c)

endorphins.

d)

the myelin sheath.

32.

An axon is

a)

a cell that serves as the basic building block of the nervous system.

b)

a layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons.

c)

an antagonist molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites.

d)

the extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body.

33.

In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the ________ of a single neuron.

a)

dendrites to the axon to the cell body

b)

axon to the cell body to the dendrites

c)

dendrites to the cell body to the axon

d)

axon to the dendrites to the cell body

34.

A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the

a)

synapse.

b)

agonist.

c)

action potential.

d)

refractory period.

35.

An action potential is generated by the movement of

a)

glial cells.

b)

hormones.

c)

ventricles.

d)

ions.

36.

Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron's reaction is

a)

inhibited by the myelin sheath.

b)

delayed by the refractory period.

c)

an all-or-none response.

d)

dependent on neurotransmitter molecules.

37.

José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of

a)

glutamate.

b)

dopamine.

c)

acetylcholine.

d)

endorphins.

38.

Endorphin agonists are likely to _______ one's immediate pain, and endorphin antagonists are likely to _______ one's immediate pain.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

increase; decrease

c)

increase; increase

d)

decrease; decrease

39.

Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ________ nervous system.

a)

peripheral

b)

parasympathetic

c)

sympathetic

d)

autonomic

40.

The vast majority of neurons in the body's nervous system are

a)

glands.

b)

interneurons.

c)

motor neurons.

d)

sensory neurons.

41.

An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the ________ nervous system is to the ________ nervous system.

a)

somatic; autonomic

b)

autonomic; somatic

c)

sympathetic; parasympathetic

d)

parasympathetic; sympathetic

42.

The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of

a)

interneurons.

b)

endorphins.

c)

neural networks.

d)

glial cells.

43.

Hormones, the chemical messengers of the endocrine system, travel through the bloodstream to affect other

a)

axons.

b)

tissues.

c)

synapses.

d)

neurons.

44.

The master gland of the endocrine system is the

a)

thyroid gland.

b)

adrenal gland

c)

pituitary gland.

d)

pancreas.

45.

To identify which of Lucy's brain areas was most active when she talked, neuroscientists gave her a temporarily radioactive form of glucose and a(n)

a)

hemispherectomy.

b)

PET scan.

c)

EEG.

d)

MRI scan.

46.

The sequence of brain regions from the evolutionarily oldest to newest is

a)

limbic system, brainstem, cerebral cortex

b)

brainstem, cerebral cortex, limbic system.

c)

limbic system, cerebral cortex, brainstem.

d)

brainstem, limbic system, cerebral cortex.

47.

Information from higher brain regions is transmitted to the medulla through the

a)

corpus callosum.

b)

hippocampus.

c)

amygdala.

d)

thalamus.

48.

A brain tumor caused extensive damage to Mr. Thorndike's hypothalamus. It is most likely that he may suffer a loss of

a)

visual perception.

b)

muscular coordination.

c)

sexual motivation.

d)

language comprehension.

49.

Which lobes of the brain receive the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back?

a)

parietal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

50.

A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on

a)

skin color.

b)

sexual anatomy.

c)

physical attractiveness.

d)

personality traits.

51.

Professor Smith emphasizes that gender similarities and differences are products of a continuous interplay among genetically predisposed traits, culturally shaped roles, and personally constructed expectations and assumptions. The professor's emphasis best illustrates

a)

collectivism.

b)

individualism.

c)

natural selection.

d)

a biopsychosocial approach.

52.

The belief that boys are more independent than girls is a

a)

gender role.

b)

gender identity

c)

gender schema.

d)

gender type.

53.

Chromosomes are contained within

a)

brain cells.

b)

sperm cells.

c)

blood cells.

d)

all of these types of cells.

54.

A segment of DNA capable of synthesizing a specific protein is called a

a)

gene.

b)

gender schema.

c)

chromosome.

d)

neurotransmitter.

55.

Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________.

a)

norm; role

b)

nature; nurture

c)

independence; interdependence

d)

identical twin; fraternal twin

56.

As people progress through adulthood, women become

a)

less assertive and men become less empathic.

b)

less assertive and men become more empathic.

c)

more assertive and men become more empathic.

d)

more assertive and men become less empathic.

57.

Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing

a)

identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised apart.

b)

identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together.

c)

identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together.

d)

identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart.

58.

We are likely to ________ the personality similarities among children in the same family, and we are likely to ________ the personality similarities between parents and their children.

a)

overestimate; underestimate

b)

underestimate; overestimate

c)

underestimate; underestimate

d)

overestimate; overestimate

59.

Difficult babies with an intense and highly reactive temperament tend to be

a)

intelligent and imaginative.

b)

irritable and unpredictable

c)

fearless and assertive.

d)

extraverted and cheerful.

60.

In a study of Welsh pedestrians, women rated a man as ________ if he was pictured at the wheel of an expensive rather than an inexpensive car. Men rated a woman as ________ if she was pictured at the wheel of an expensive rather than an inexpensive car.

a)

less attractive; more attractive

b)

more attractive; no more attractive

c)

no more attractive; more attractive

d)

less attractive; no more attractive

61.

Critics of evolutionary psychology are most likely to suggest that it underestimates the

a)

impact of genetic predispositions on human sexual behavior.

b)

impact of cultural expectations on human sexual behavior.

c)

variety of traits that contribute to reproductively successful behaviors.

d)

extent to which certain gender differences in sexual behavior are common to all cultures.

62.

Cultural diversity best illustrates our

a)

human temperaments.

b)

genetic variations.

c)

gender identities.

d)

adaptive capacities.

63.

Gender differences in heritable personality traits cannot necessarily be attributed to male-female genetic differences because

a)

physical maturation proceeds at a different rate for males and females.

b)

variations in temperament contribute to gender differences.

c)

heritable traits can be influenced by social environments

d)

males and females are also affected by their different sex hormones.

64.

An organic methyl molecule attached to part of a DNA strand has been identified as a(n)

a)

X chromosome.

b)

Y chromosome.

c)

gender schema.

d)

epigenetic mark.

65.

The reproductive advantage enjoyed by organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as

a)

self-regulation.

b)

behavior genetics.

c)

natural selection.

d)

collectivism.

66.

A random error in gene replication is known as a

a)

gender schema.

b)

genome.

c)

mutation.

d)

natural selection.

67.

Premature infants who are regularly touched and massaged are more likely than their unstimulated counterparts to show signs of

a)

reduced brain plasticity.

b)

an inhibited temperament.

c)

an epigenetic mark.

d)

rapid weight gain.

68.

Since 1960, most Western cultures have changed with remarkable speed. The LEAST likely explanation for these variations involves changes in

a)

communication systems.

b)

the human gene pool.

c)

scientific knowledge.

d)

social norms.

69.

One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology involves a focus on

a)

puberty and menarche.

b)

continuity and stages.

c)

imprinting and object permanence.

d)

conservation and egocentrism.

70.

As compared with the production of egg cells, sperm cell production

a)

begins later in life.

b)

involves a jellylike outer covering.

c)

begins earlier in life.

d)

involves differentiation prior to fusion with the egg.

71.

During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n)

a)

zygote and finally develops into an embryo.

b)

embryo and finally develops into a fetus.

c)

zygote and finally develops into a fetus.

d)

fetus and finally develops into an embryo

72.

The heart begins to beat during the ________ period of prenatal development.

a)

embryonic

b)

fetal

c)

zygotic

d)

ovular

73.

Alcohol may cause fetal damage by leaving chemical marks on DNA that switch genes abnormally on or off. This best illustrates

a)

imprinting.

b)

object permanence.

c)

an epigenetic effect.

d)

an insecure attachment.

74.

Maturation refers to

a)

the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviors

b)

biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.

c)

any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development.

d)

the physical and sexual development of early adolescence.

75.

From ages 3 to 6, the brain's neural networks are sprouting most rapidly in the

a)

frontal lobes.

b)

hypothalamus

c)

cerebellum.

d)

brainstem.

76.

Which psychologist was most influential in shaping our understanding of cognitive development?

a)

Konrad Lorenz

b)

Jean Piaget

c)

Sigmund Freud

d)

Erik Erikson

77.

During which of Piaget's stages does a person develop an awareness that things continue to exist even when they are not perceived?

a)

sensorimotor

b)

preoperational

c)

concrete operational

d)

formal operational

78.

Preschoolers' acquisition of a theory of mind suggests that Piaget overestimated young children's

a)

egocentrism.

b)

habituation.

c)

stranger anxiety.

d)

sense of object permanence.

79.

Children with high levels of prenatal testosterone develop more

a)

infantile amnesia

b)

stranger anxiety.

c)

autistic traits.

d)

secure attachment.

80.

Little Karen will approach and play with unfamiliar animals only if her mother first reassures her that it is safe to do so. This best illustrates the adaptive value of

a)

conservation.

b)

attachment.

c)

egocentrism.

d)

habituation.

81.

Which of the following is an example of imprinting?

a)

A 2-year-old poodle approaches a stranger who calls it.

b)

A 4-year-old boy imitates aggression he sees on television.

c)

A duckling demonstrates attachment to a bouncing ball.

d)

A 3-year-old girl is simultaneously learning two different languages.

82.

Nature is to nurture as ________ is to ________.

a)

secure attachment; imprinting

b)

heredity; maturation

c)

accommodation; assimilation

d)

temperament; responsive parenting

83.

Harlow observed that most monkeys raised in total isolation

a)

were totally apathetic and indifferent to the first monkeys they encountered.

b)

were incapable of mating upon reaching sexual maturity

c)

showed slower social development but more rapid cognitive development.

d)

showed no lasting adverse effects when placed in a socially enriched environment.

84.

Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be

a)

authoritarian.

b)

conservative.

c)

permissive.

d)

authoritative.

85.

Critics have noted that Kohlberg's ________ level of moral reasoning is culturally limited, appearing mostly among people who prize individualism.

a)

preconventional

b)

postconventional

c)

concrete operational

d)

conventional

86.

Psychologist Jonathan Haidt has described our moral intuitions as

a)

formal operations.

b)

secure attachments

c)

quick gut feelings.

d)

postconventional judgments.

87.

Erikson would have suggested that adolescents can most effectively develop a sense of identity by

a)

seeking a lifelong romantic relationship.

b)

severing the emotional ties between themselves and their childhood friends.

c)

investigating the personal suitability of various occupational and social roles.

d)

adopting whatever values and expectations their parents recommend.

88.

Sensory receptors in your vestibular sacs enable you to maintain your sense of

a)

smell.

b)

taste.

c)

touch

d)

balance.

89.

Receptor cells for kinesthesis are located in the

a)

fovea.

b)

bones, ears, tendons, and joints.

c)

olfactory bulb.

d)

auditory cortex

90.

Information from the taste buds travels to an area of the

a)

frontal lobe.

b)

parietal lobe.

c)

occipital lobe.

d)

temporal lobe.

91.

Our sense of taste was once thought to involve only the following four sensations

a)

sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.

b)

salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.

c)

sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.

d)

bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.

92.

Place theory suggests that

a)

structures in the inner ear provide us with a sense of the position of our bodies in space

b)

we have a system for sensing the position and movement of the various parts of our body.

c)

we can locate the place from which a sound is emitted because of the distance between our ears.

d)

the pitch we hear is related to the place where the cochlea's basilar membrane is stimulated

93.

Damage to the oval window is most likely to result in

a)

accommodation

b)

conduction hearing loss.

c)

loss of the sense of balance.

d)

sensorineural hearing loss.

94.

Cones and rods are to vision as ________ are to audition.

a)

eardrums

b)

oval windows

c)

hair cells

d)

semicircular canals

95.

Eardrum vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the

a)

vestibular sacs.

b)

inner ear.

c)

cochlea.

d)

middle ear

96.

An 80-decibel sound is ________ times more intense than a 60-decibel sound

a)

2

b)

10

c)

20

d)

100

97.

The absolute threshold for hearing is arbitrarily defined as zero

a)

decibels.

b)

amps.

c)

phonemes.

d)

hertz.

98.

Brightness is to light as ________ is to sound.

a)

pitch

b)

loudness

c)

frequency

d)

wavelength

99.

The high notes on a piano always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes.

a)

higher-amplitude

b)

lower-amplitude

c)

higher-frequency

d)

lower-frequency

100.

An area of the brain dedicated to the specialized task of recognizing faces is located in the right ________ lobe.

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

Temporal

101.

The fovea refers to

a)

the outer protective surface of the eye.

b)

a coiled, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear

c)

an area of the thalamus that receives information from the optic nerve

d)

the central focal point in the retina

102.

The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel consist of

a)

nerve cells in the brain.

b)

rods and cones.

c)

bipolar cells.

d)

ganglion cells.

103.

Which process allows more light to reach the periphery of the retina?

a)

accommodation of the lens

b)

transduction of the blind spot

c)

dilation of the pupil

d)

sensory adaptation of feature detectors

104.

If a partially deaf person's hearing ability ________, his or her absolute threshold for sound ________.

a)

improves; remains unchanged

b)

worsens; decreases

c)

worsens; remains unchanged

d)

improves; decreases

105.

Which of the following represents the very first of three steps basic to all sensory systems?

a)

forming perceptual sets

b)

delivering neural information to the brain

c)

receiving sensory stimulation

d)

transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses

106.

Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence as a familiar melody is to ________.

a)

absolute threshold; difference threshold

b)

sensory interaction; feature detection

c)

feature detection; sensory interaction

d)

sensation; perception

107.

Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.

a)

encoding; detection

b)

detection; interpretation

c)

interpretation; organization

d)

organization; accommodation

108.

Priming refers to the activation of certain

a)

blind spots.

b)

hair cells.

c)

nociceptors.

d)

associations.

109.

A perceptual set is a

a)

tendency to fill in gaps to perceive a complete, whole object.

b)

readiness to judge an object as larger than it is.

c)

tendency to view objects high in our field of vision as closer than they are.

d)

mental predisposition that influences what we perceive.

110.

Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different surroundings. This best illustrates

a)

blindsight.

b)

Weber's law.

c)

context effects.

d)

retinal disparity.

111.

The horizon Moon appears to shrink in size if it is viewed through a narrow tube that eliminates the perception of distance cues. This best illustrates the importance of

a)

perceptual adaptation.

b)

stroboscopic movement.

c)

context effects.

d)

sensory interaction.

112.

Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates

a)

serial processing.

b)

the McGurk effect.

c)

sensory interaction.

d)

blindsight.

113.

Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of

a)

blindsight.

b)

Weber's law

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

top-down processing.

114.

Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, so Ruth perceived that they were all members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the organizational principle of

a)

proximity

b)

interposition.

c)

closure.

d)

continuity.

115.

Although a few keys on the piano were broken, Shana mentally filled in the missing notes of the familiar melodies. This best illustrates the principle of

a)

proximity.

b)

closure.

c)

blindsight.

d)

interposition.

116.

Relative height is a cue involving our perception of objects higher in our field of vision as

a)

brighter.

b)

farther away.

c)

hazier.

d)

smaller.

117.

If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal image is perceived to be

a)

moving faster.

b)

less hazy.

c)

more distant.

d)

closer.

118.

The phi phenomenon refers to

a)

psychics' supposed ability to see into the future.

b)

the perception of movement created by the successive blinking on and off of adjacent lights.

c)

the ability to adjust to an artificially displaced visual field.

d)

the tendency to fill in gaps to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object.

119.

The amount of light reflected by an object relative to the amount reflected by surrounding objects is called

a)

continuity.

b)

interposition.

c)

retinal disparity.

d)

relative luminance.

120.

The philosopher John Locke believed that people

a)

learn to perceive the world through experience.

b)

are endowed at birth with perceptual skills.

c)

experience the whole as different from the sum of its parts.

d)

are unable to adapt to an inverted visual world.

121.

If an adult who was blind from birth gains the ability to see, that person would have the greatest difficulty visually distinguishing

a)

circles from squares.

b)

the Sun from the Moon.

c)

red from green.

d)

a white cloud from the blue sky.

122.

Research with distorting goggles best supports the view of human perception advanced by

a)

John Locke.

b)

Herman Von Helmholtz.

c)

Immanuel Kant.

d)

Ewald Hering.

123.

Jamal claims that his special psychic powers enable him to perceive exactly where the body of a recent murder victim is secretly buried. Jamal is claiming to possess the power of

a)

psychokinesis.

b)

precognition.

c)

telepathy.

d)

clairvoyance.

124.

The greatest difficulty facing contemporary parapsychology is the

a)

inability to subject claims of ESP to scientific testing.

b)

lack of a reproducible ESP phenomenon.

c)

willingness of many experts to accept fraudulent evidence.

d)

difficulty of persuading many ordinary people that there really is such a thing as ESP.

125.

Mr. Logwood's eyewitness perceptions of a car accident were influenced by his inborn ways of organizing sensory experiences, his learned schemas, and by other eyewitnesses' reactions to the car accident. An integrated understanding of Mr. Logwood's perceptions of the accident is most clearly provided by

a)

parapsychology.

b)

gate-control theory.

c)

a biopsychosocial approach.

d)

the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory.

126.

Near-death experiences are

a)

typically triggered by dissociation.

b)

often accompanied by visions of bright lights.

c)

recalled by nearly all who have been revived from a cardiac arrest.

d)

examples of REM rebound.

127.

Unlike alcohol, the THC in marijuana

a)

acts as a disinhibitor.

b)

impairs motor coordination skills.

c)

promotes a state of relaxation.

d)

lingers in the body for a week or more.

128.

Reduced immune system functioning is most likely to accompany long-term repeated use of

a)

Nembutal

b)

caffeine.

c)

Ecstasy.

d)

morphine

129.

After ingesting a small dose of a psychoactive drug, Laqueta experienced vivid visual hallucinations and felt as if she were separated from her own body. Laqueta most likely experienced the effects of

a)

cocaine.

b)

LSD.

c)

heroin

d)

marijuana.

130.

Cocaine is classified as a(n)

a)

hallucinogen.

b)

stimulant.

c)

depressant.

d)

opiate.

131.

Amphetamines are to ________ as barbiturates are to ________.

a)

hallucinogens; depressants

b)

stimulants; depressants

c)

hallucinogens; stimulants

d)

stimulants; hallucinogens

132.

The use of barbiturates ________ anxiety and ________ nervous system activity.

a)

increases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

c)

decreases; decreases

d)

increases; increases

133.

Smokers with ________ levels of nicotine tolerance are likely to suffer the most severe withdrawal symptoms when they discontinue smoking.

a)

high

b)

moderate

c)

low

d)

high or low

134.

Drug use is considered a disorder when a person

a)

craves the substance.

b)

continues use despite social problems.

c)

continues use despite hazards.

d)

experiences all of these conditions.

135.

A split in consciousness in which some thoughts occur simultaneously with and yet separately from other thoughts is called

a)

narcolepsy.

b)

dissociation.

c)

paradoxical sleep.

d)

posthypnotic suggestion.

136.

Hypnosis involves a state of

a)

increased physical stamina.

b)

heightened openness to suggestion.

c)

improved perceptual skills.

d)

elevated autonomic arousal.

137.

REM rebound involves the

a)

tendency for REM sleep periods to become increasingly longer and more frequent as a normal night of sleep progresses.

b)

increase in REM sleep that characteristically follows intense learning episodes or stressful daytime experiences.

c)

unusual symptoms of tiredness and irritability that follow periods of REM sleep deprivation.

d)

tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation.

138.

Which theory emphasizes that dreams play a role in consolidating the day's experiences in our memories?

a)

wish-fulfillment theory

b)

cognitive development theory

c)

neural activation theory

d)

information-processing theory

139.

Compared with unconscious information processing, conscious information processing is relatively

a)

fast and especially effective for solving new problems.

b)

slow and especially effective for solving new problems.

c)

fast and especially effective for solving routine problems.

d)

slow and especially effective for solving routine problems.

140.

Most college students are “owls,” with performance ________ across the day. Most older adults are “larks,” with performance ________ as the day progresses.

a)

improving; declining

b)

declining; improving

c)

declining; staying the same

d)

staying the same; declining

141.

Jordanna has decided to go to bed early. Although her eyes are closed and she's very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of

a)

delta waves.

b)

alpha waves.

c)

sleep spindles.

d)

rapid eye movements.

142.

Hypnagogic sensations are most closely associated with ________ sleep.

a)

NREM-1

b)

NREM-2

c)

NREM-3

d)

REM

143.

The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep are called

a)

alpha waves.

b)

circadian rhythms.

c)

sleep spindles.

d)

delta waves.

144.

Production of the human growth hormone necessary for muscle development is most strongly associated with

a)

sleep spindles.

b)

slow-wave sleep.

c)

hypnagogic sensations.

d)

REM sleep

145.

Conditioning is the process of

a)

discrimination.

b)

spontaneous recovery.

c)

learning associations.

d)

observational learning.

146.

The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by

a)

John B. Watson.

b)

B. F. Skinner

c)

Albert Bandura.

d)

Ivan Pavlov.

147.

Which of the following is an unconditioned response?

a)

playing jump rope

b)

running through a maze to get a food reward

c)

sweating in hot weather

d)

clapping after a thrilling concert performance

148.

In classical conditioning, the NS becomes a ________ after it reliably signals the impending occurrence of the ________.

a)

US; CS

b)

UR; CR

c)

CS; US

d)

CR; UR

149.

Compared with nonabused children, those who have experienced a history of abuse show a stronger brain-wave response to an unfamiliar but angry-looking face. This best illustrates

a)

shaping.

b)

generalization.

c)

the law of effect.

d)

negative reinforcement.

150.

The study of respondent behavior is to ________ as the study of operant behavior is to ________.

a)

Pavlov; Skinner

b)

Bandura; Skinner

c)

Skinner; Bandura

d)

Bandura; Pavlov

151.

An animal trainer is teaching a miniature poodle to balance on a ball. Initially, he gives the poodle a treat for approaching the ball, then only for placing its front paws on the ball, and finally only for climbing on the ball. The trainer is using the method of

a)

successive approximations.

b)

delayed reinforcement.

c)

classical conditioning.

d)

secondary reinforcement.

152.

Every Saturday morning, Arnold quickly washes the family's breakfast dishes so that his father will allow him to wash his car. In this instance, washing the car is a(n)

a)

positive reinforcer.

b)

unconditioned response.

c)

conditioned response.

d)

negative reinforcer.

153.

A stimulus that acquires reinforcing power through its association with a primary reinforcer is called a ________ reinforcer.

a)

delayed

b)

negative

c)

partial

d)

conditioned

154.

A response is learned most rapidly and is most resistant to extinction if it is acquired under conditions of

a)

continuous reinforcement followed by partial reinforcement.

b)

primary reinforcement followed by secondary reinforcement.

c)

partial reinforcement followed by continuous reinforcement

d)

secondary reinforcement followed by primary reinforcement.

155.

Administering an aversive stimulus following an operant response is

a)

negative punishment.

b)

positive punishment.

c)

negative reinforcement.

d)

positive reinforcement.

156.

Both classical and operant conditioning are forms of

a)

associative learning.

b)

respondent behavior.

c)

observational learning.

d)

intrinsic motivation.

157.

Skinner is to shaping as Bandura is to

a)

punishing.

b)

discriminating.

c)

modeling.

d)

generalizing.

158.

Socially responsive toddlers who readily imitate their parents tend to become preschoolers with a strong internalized conscience. This best illustrates the impact of

a)

operant conditioning.

b)

spontaneous recovery.

c)

observational learning.

d)

respondent behavior.

159.

Five-year-olds copy senseless and irrelevant adult actions such as stroking a plastic jar with a feather before reaching inside the jar for a toy. This best illustrates

a)

spontaneous recovery.

b)

instinctive drift.

c)

negative reinforcement.

d)

overimitation

160.

Acquiring new habits best illustrates the process of

a)

extrinsic motivation.

b)

instinctive drift.

c)

learning.

d)

spontaneous recovery.

161.

After one chimpanzee sees a second chimp open a box that contains a food reward, the first animal opens a similar box with great speed. This best illustrates

a)

shaping.

b)

spontaneous recovery.

c)

respondent behavior.

d)

observational learning.

162.

The “psychic secretions” that Pavlov initially considered an annoyance were

a)

unconditioned responses.

b)

primary reinforcers.

c)

conditioned responses.

d)

conditioned reinforcers.

163.

A psychologist would be most likely to use ________ to determine whether nonverbal organisms can perceive different colors.

a)

mirror neurons

b)

modeling

c)

a cognitive map

d)

shaping

164.

The retention of encoded information over time refers to

a)

effortful processing.

b)

implicit memory.

c)

repression.

d)

storage.

165.

The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on

a)

the serial position effect.

b)

proactive interference.

c)

visual encoding.

d)

memory.

166.

Storage is to encoding as ________ is to ________.

a)

recognition; recall

b)

rehearsal; retrieval

c)

retention; acquisition

d)

explicit memory; implicit memory

167.

The original Atkinson-Schiffrin three-stage information-processing model introduced distinctions among

a)

recall, recognition, and relearning

b)

shallow processing, semantic processing, and deep processing

c)

sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.

d)

the serial position effect, the spacing effect, and the testing effect.

168.

Highly durable memories can often be retrieved from ________ memory into ________ memory.

a)

sensory; working

b)

working; sensory

c)

working; long-term

d)

long-term; working

169.

When Sperling visually displayed three rows of three letters each for only one-twentieth of a second, research participants

a)

recalled only half the letters because they did not have enough time to see all of them.

b)

recalled only about seven of the letters due to storage limitations.

c)

had a momentary photographic memory of all nine letters.

d)

formed a sensory memory of no more than a single letter.

170.

In Alan Baddeley's model of working memory, the hypothetical central executive engages in

a)

repression.

b)

focusing attention.

c)

automatic processing.

d)

long-term potentiation.

171.

Remembering how to solve a puzzle without any conscious recollection that you can do so best illustrates ________ memory.

a)

working

b)

flashbulb

c)

implicit

d)

sensory

172.

For a moment after hearing his dog's high-pitched bark, Mr. Silvers has a vivid auditory impression of the dog's yelp. His experience most clearly illustrates ________ memory.

a)

short-term

b)

iconic

c)

procedural

d)

echoic

173.

The use of mnemonics such as the peg-word system illustrates

a)

automatic processing.

b)

the self-reference effect

c)

effortful processing.

d)

echoic memory

174.

When people are asked to recall a list of words they had earlier memorized, they often substitute synonyms for some of the words on the original list. This best illustrates the effects of

a)

implicit memory.

b)

source amnesia.

c)

semantic processing.

d)

state-dependent memory.

175.

Chunking refers to

a)

getting information into memory through the use of visual imagery.

b)

the organization of information into meaningful units.

c)

the unconscious encoding of incidental information.

d)

the tendency to recall best the first item in a list.

176.

Ebbinghaus found that memorizing familiar words required much less effort than memorizing nonsense syllables. This best illustrates the advantage of

a)

the spacing effect.

b)

implicit memory.

c)

source amnesia.

d)

semantic processing.

177.

Which of the following has been suggested as an explanation for infantile amnesia?

a)

The hippocampus is one of the last brain structures to mature.

b)

The emotional reactivity of infants inhibits the process of encoding.

c)

The accumulation of life experiences disrupts the retrieval of early life events.

d)

Iconic memories last for less than a second in infants.

178.

Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned verbal information. Damage to the ________ is most likely to interfere with explicit memories of newly learned visual designs.

a)

right hippocampus; left hippocampus

b)

left hippocampus; right hippocampus

c)

right cerebellum; left cerebellum

d)

left cerebellum; right cerebellum

179.

Research by Kandel and Schwartz on sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated with the

a)

structure of DNA molecules.

b)

release of certain neurotransmitters.

c)

activity level of the hippocampus.

d)

development of the cerebellum.

180.

The neurotransmitter glutamate ________ LTP and the protein CREB ________ LTP.

a)

disrupts; disrupts

b)

facilitates; facilitates

c)

disrupts; facilitates

d)

facilitates; disrupts

181.

Which memory test would most effectively reveal that Mr. Quintano, at age 55, still remembers many of his high school classmates?

a)

recall

b)

recognition

c)

rehearsal

d)

reconstruction

182.

After hearing a list of items, peoples' immediate recall of the items is more likely to show a _____ effect than is their later recall of the items.

a)

spacing

b)

recency

c)

misinformation

d)

self-reference

183.

A mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people is a(n)

a)

algorithm.

b)

prototype

c)

heuristic.

d)

concept.

184.

People are likely to take less time to recognize a woman as a nurse than a man as a nurse because a woman more closely resembles their nurse

a)

heuristic.

b)

prototype.

c)

algorithm.

d)

fixation.

185.

After spending two hours trying to solve an engineering problem, Amira finally gave up. As she was trying to fall asleep that night, a solution to the problem popped into her head. Amira's experience best illustrates

a)

belief perseverance.

b)

the availability heuristic.

c)

insight.

d)

a mental set.

186.

During prior school years, Charlie found it easy to get away with cheating on his tests. Now its not so easy so Charlie spends as many hours devising new ways to cheat as it would take him to study and perform well in an honest fashion. Charlie's shortsightedness best illustrates the consequences of

a)

an algorithm.

b)

a mental set.

c)

confirmation bias.

d)

the availability heuristic.

187.

We fear too little those events that will claim lives

a)

accidentally.

b)

undramatically.

c)

in the near future.

d)

one person at a time.

188.

In writing survey questions, political pollsters who want to gather evidence of people's support for particular viewpoints are especially likely to understand the impact of

a)

belief perseverance.

b)

telegraphic speech.

c)

a fixation.

d)

framing.

189.

Language refers to the

a)

smallest distinctive sound units

b)

rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences.

c)

spoken, written, or signed words and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning.

d)

rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes.

190.

In the words “helped” and “called,” the “ed” ending is a(n)

a)

prototype.

b)

morpheme.

c)

heuristic

d)

algorithm.

191.

Using barely recognizable syllables to communicate meaning best illustrates a 12- month-old's developing capacity for

a)

syntax.

b)

telegraphic speech.

c)

productive language.

d)

framing.

192.

Noam Chomsky suggested that all human languages share a(n)

a)

universal grammar.

b)

neural network.

c)

outcome simulation.

d)

algorithm.

193.

The part of the cerebral cortex that directs the muscle movements involved in speech is known as

a)

Wernicke's area.

b)

Broca's area.

c)

the temporal lobe.

d)

the parietal lobe.

194.

Human language appears to have evolved from

a)

the availability heuristic.

b)

gestured communication.

c)

a process simulation.

d)

a critical period.

195.

Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis emphasizes that

a)

infancy is a critical period for language development.

b)

all languages share a similar grammar.

c)

our linguistic proficiencies influence our social status.

d)

words shape the way people think.

196.

Bilingual people, who inhibit one language while using the other, can better inhibit their attention to irrelevant information. This has been called

a)

linguistic determinism

b)

the availability heuristic.

c)

the bilingual advantage.

d)

universal grammar.

197.

People's procedural memory of how to open the front door of their house is most likely to consist of

a)

an algorithm

b)

a mental image

c)

telegraphic speech.

d)

universal grammar.

198.

Which term refers to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating?

a)

algorithm

b)

heuristic

c)

cognition

d)

universal grammar

199.

People are likely to detect male prejudice against females ________ easily than they detect female prejudice against males. They are likely to detect younger people's prejudice against older people ________ easily than they detect older people's prejudice against younger people

a)

more; less

b)

less; more

c)

more; more

d)

less; less