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WorksheetsModule 3 Hospi Green 1-100
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Injections are often indicated as the correct form of administering a drug when:
a)
a. the drug is a suspension
b)
b. the drug contains alcohol
c)
c. the drug is insoluble
d)
d. the drug is not easily absorbed from the GIT
2.
Functions of the P and TC, except:
a)
a. review adverse drug reactions to drugs administered
b)
b. to recommend addition and deletion of drugs
c)
c. to serve as advisory to medical staff and pharmacists
d)
d. approval of duplicate preparation to be listed in the formulary
3.
Biological and other thermolabile medications should be kept in:
a)
a. separate compartment in a refrigerator
b)
b. locked cabinet
c)
c. the display cabinet together with other drugs
d)
d. none of the above
4.
Basic function of hospital, except:
a)
a. education
b)
b. delivery of drugs to various outlets
c)
c. patient care
d)
d. research
5.
Medical staff primarily concerned with regular care of patient:
a)
a. honorary medical staff
b)
b. active medical staff
c)
c. associate medical staff
d)
d. resident medical staff
e)
e. consulting medical staff
6.
An authorized, structured and continuing program that reviews, analyzes and interprets patterns of drug usage in a given health care delivery system against predetermined standards:
a)
a. adverse drug reaction review
b)
b. formulary system
c)
c. P and TC
d)
d. drug use review
7.
Type of drug distribution system for government hospital:
a)
a. individual prescription order system
b)
b. unit dose
c)
c. combination of individual prescription and floor stock
d)
d. complete floor stock
8.
Advantages of unit dose distribution:
a)
a. reduction in the incidents of medication error
b)
b. decrease ion the total cost of medication related activities
c)
c. more accurate billings
d)
d. all of the above
9.
An extension of the main hospital pharmacy:
a)
a. satellite pharmacy
b)
b. clinic
c)
c. both an and b
d)
d. none of the above
10.
Institutional pharmacy is basically:
a)
a. extended care pharmacy
b)
b. community pharmacy
c)
c. manufacturing pharmacy
d)
d. hospital pharmacy
11.
Pyrogenic contamination may cause the patients to have:
a)
a. fever
b)
b. chills
c)
c. infection
d)
d. a and b
e)
e. a and c
12.
Education and training division:
a)
a. coordinate programs if undergraduate and graduate pharmacy students
b)
b. participate in hospital-wide educational programs involving doctors, nurses, etc.
c)
c. both a and b
d)
d. none of the above
13.
Which is/e true about the DDB prescription form?
a)
a. original copy – pharmacist copy
b)
b. duplicate copy – patient’s copy
c)
c. triplicate copy – doctor’s copy
d)
d. all of the above
14.
Any drug that has not yet been released for general use and has not been cleared for marketing by the BFAD:
a)
a. prototype drug
b)
b. investigational drug
c)
c. pro-drug
d)
d. controlled drug
15.
Responsible for specifications as to the quality, quantity and source of drugs:
a)
a. purchasing agent
b)
b. president
c)
c. medical staff
d)
d. pharmacist
16.
A modern and reliable means of controlling the volume of purchases:
a)
a. computation of inventory turnover
b)
b. non-purchase
c)
c. all of the above
d)
d. none of the above
17.
In inventory control, the turnover rate is calculated by which of the following formula?
a)
a. annual purchases + annual inventory
b)
b. annual purchases ¸ annual inventory
c)
c. annual purchases – annual inventory
d)
d. annual purchases / annual inventory
18.
The least acceptable method of transmitting prescription orders of physician:
a)
a. by inputting the order into a computer terminal
b)
b. by sending a carbon copy of the physician’s original medication order
c)
c. transcribing by nursing personnel to a requisition form
d)
d. the physician write the medication order on a separate blank and send it to the pharmacy
19.
The leading and major organization of hospital pharmacists in the country:
a)
a. PSHP
b)
b. AMA
c)
c. ASHP
d)
d. PPHA
20.
Injections are randomly tested for fever-producing agents, which are called:
a)
a. analgesics
b)
b. antitussives
c)
c. histamines
d)
d. pyrogens
21.
Abilities required of hospital pharmacist, except:
a)
a. thorough knowledge of drugs and their action
b)
b. ability to develop and conduct a pharmaceutical manufacturing program
c)
c. ability to conduct and participate in research
d)
d. manage a hospital
22.
Total parenteral nutrition is administered through:
a)
a. subclavian vein
b)
b. Femoral artery
c)
c. none of the above
d)
d. both a and b
23.
Which is not part of patient’s medication history?
a)
a. past and present medication
b)
b. drug allergies
c)
c. previous adverse effects associated with medication use
d)
d. cost of medication
24.
Fundamental functions of hospitals, except:
a)
a. patient care
b)
b. education
c)
c. housing
d)
d. research
e)
e. public health
25.
Medication orders (Chart Orders) differ from prescription in that they:
a)
a. are intended for ambulatory use
b)
b. contain only the generic name of the drug
c)
c. may contain non-medication instructions from the practitioner
d)
d. contain the quantity of medication to be dispensed
26.
A patient medication orders states that he is to receive ampicillin 500 mg p.o. q8H. How many doses of ampicillin 250 mg capsules should be placed in the patient’s unit dose drawer daily?
a)
a. 2
b)
b. 4
c)
c. 6
d)
d. 10
27.
Providing the correct medicine at the correct time in the correct dose and correct route of administration:
a)
a. patient care
b)
b. rational drug therapy
c)
c. research
d)
d. drug information
28.
The primary goal of a hospital formulary is to:
a)
a. strictly control prescribing in a hospital
b)
b. save hospital money
c)
c. insure that the patients receive the best drug therapy possible
d)
d. influence medical staff to use approved drugs only
29.
It shows the flow of authority and services on hand:
a)
a. pharmacy procedural manual
b)
b. hospital pharmacy
c)
c. organizational chart
d)
d. journal
30.
Manner of affixing the label to an IV admixture preparation container:
a)
a. upside down
b)
b. sideways
c)
c. vertically
d)
d. normal way
31.
The ideal drug distribution system
a)
a. complete floor stock system
b)
b. individual prescription system
c)
c. unit dose system
d)
d. none of the above
32.
Additives of TPN are:
a)
a. electrolytes and vitamins
b)
b. antibiotics and fats
c)
c. amino acids and anesthetics
d)
d. none of the above
33.
Continuous IV infusion means:
a)
a. administration of a large volume of drug at a constant rate usually 100-150 ml/hr for 8-24 hrs
b)
b. rapid IV push in less than 30 seconds
c)
c. administration oat a rate not to exceed 1ml/min
d)
d. none of the above
34.
A separate sterile room is required for:
a)
a. reconstitution of lyophilized injections
b)
b. ophthalmic preparations
c)
c. preparation of IV admixtures
d)
d. all of the above
35.
A sign to the pharmacist that the patient is overusing a certain product:
a)
a. not purchasing
b)
b. frequency of refills
c)
c. healthy patient
d)
d. discharge patient
36.
Responsible of the procurement, distribution and control of all drugs used within the hospital:
a)
a. purchasing agent
b)
b. medical staff
c)
c. pharmacist
d)
d. lay personnel
37.
Feature/s of the unit dose drug distribution system
a)
a. maintains duplicate copy of the doctor’s order
b)
b. maintains patient medication profile
c)
c. delivers medications in unit dose forms
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. a and c only
38.
Pharmacists monitoring drug therapy would typically be checking all of the following except:
a)
a. proper utilization of drug
b)
b. drug interactions
c)
c. allergy contraindications
d)
d. appropriate diagnosis
e)
e. none
39.
True statements about D5W include all of the following except:
a)
a. pH of 8 to 10
b)
b. isotonic
c)
c. often used in IV admixture
d)
d. should be used with caution among diabetic patients
e)
e. none
40.
A method of administering IV fluids and medications that provides a slow, primary line infusion to maintain therapeutic drug level or provide electrolyte replacement:
a)
a. IV push
b)
b. drip infusion
c)
c. piggyback
d)
d. heparin lock
e)
e. none
41.
A health care supply described as a portable toilet:
a)
a. commode
b)
b. truss
c)
c. bedpan
d)
d. rectal tube
e)
e. none
42.
Which of the following is not a method of operating a unit dose dispensing program:
a)
a. Centralized UDDS
b)
b. decentralized UDDS
c)
c. combination of a and b
d)
d. non-charge
e)
e. none
43.
Attending staff is also known as:
a)
a. associated medical staff
b)
b. active medical staff
c)
c. resident medical staff
d)
d. honorary medical staff
e)
e. consulting medical staff
44.
A rubber, plastic or glass tube inserted into the bladder in order to withdraw urine from patients unable to void naturally:
a)
a. rectal tube
b)
b. catheter
c)
c. urinals
d)
d. incontinence pants
e)
e. none
45.
The injection of small amount of undiluted medication directly into the vein or through a heparin lock:
a)
a. drip infusion
b)
b. intermittent infusion
c)
c. IV bolus
d)
d. IV piggyback
e)
e. none
46.
A method of administering IV fluids and medication using a volume control device designed to administer small amount of fluid over a specified time:
a)
a. heparin lock
b)
b. additive set
c)
c. IV piggyback
d)
d. IV push
e)
e. none
47.
Purpose of a pharmacy policy and procedure manual:
a)
a. ensure uniformity and consistency
b)
b. the best defense in the event of litigation
c)
c. both of the above
d)
d. none of the above
48.
Responsibilities often delegated top hospital pharmacy technicians include:
a)
a. counseling patients
b)
b. review physician’s order
c)
c. prepare IV admixture
d)
d. pharmacokinetic monitoring
e)
e. none
49.
All of the following are considered desirable functions of contemporary hospital pharmacy except:
a)
a. clinical consultation
b)
b. IV admixture
c)
c. floor stock distribution
d)
d. purchasing and inventory control
e)
e. none
50.
Pharmacist’s clinical function includes the following, except:
a)
a. drug utilization review
b)
b. drug dispensing
c)
c. pharmacokinetic monitoring
d)
d. pharmaceutical care
e)
e. drug informatratrix
51.
Place for critically and seriously ill patients:
a)
a. intermediate care unit
b)
b. intensive care unit
c)
c. long term care unit
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
52.
IV administration of a large amount of fluid over a prolonged period of time:
a)
a. infusion
b)
b. IV bolus
c)
c. IV push
d)
d. piggyback
53.
Under the administrative organization chart, the central sterile supply falls under the:
a)
a. clinical services
b)
b. ambulatory services
c)
c. adverse drug reaction
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
54.
It helps improve drug prescribing practice by promoting the safe and rational use of drug:
a)
a. drug utilization review
b)
b. patient medication profile
c)
c. adverse drug reaction
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
55.
Area which offer the hospital great financial savings and pharmacists’ pride and prestige:
a)
a. dispensing
b)
b. extemporaneous compounding
c)
c. drug consultant
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
56.
Emergency drugs are considered as:
a)
a. OR drug order
b)
b. STAT order
c)
c. follow up order
d)
d. automatic stop order
e)
e. all of the above
57.
The risks of medication misuse or errors are often due to:
a)
a. increase frequency of changes in medication use
b)
b. increase number of medications for patient
c)
c. increase potency of new drugs
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
58.
158. Automatic stop-order policy fro drugs:
a)
a. when patient goes to the operating room
b)
b. when the patient is transferred to another service
c)
c. after 24 hours of administration
d)
d. a and b only
e)
e. all of the above
59.
Best method of providing service when pharmacy is closed:
a)
a. provide an emergency cart for all unit
b)
b. allow access of a nurse or doctor into the pharmacy
c)
c. have a pharmacist on call
d)
d. a and b only
e)
e. a and c only
60.
The responsible provision of drug therapy for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve the quality of life of a patient is:
a)
a. pharmaceutical care
b)
b. clinical pharmacy
c)
c. traditional hospital pharmacy
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
61.
Legal document which contains all the treatment done to the patient:
a)
a. patient medication profile
b)
b. therapeutic sheet
c)
c. patient chart
d)
d. doctor’s sheet
e)
e. all of the above
62.
In-charge of inspecting the contents of emergency box daily:
a)
a. P and TC
b)
b. pharmacist
c)
c. nurse
d)
d. both a and c
e)
e. both b and c
63.
Parts of formulary system except:
a)
a. information of hospital policies and procedures concerning drugs
b)
b. drug product listing
c)
c. special information
d)
d. specialty formularies
64.
Three potential benefit of formulary systems, except:
a)
a. economic
b)
b. Therapeutic
c)
c. education
d)
d. expensive
65.
Advantages of unit dose drug distribution, except:
a)
a. more efficient use of personnel
b)
b. minimization of credits
c)
c. increased floor stock
d)
d. greater workload control
66.
A potent analgesic emergency drug:
a)
a. epinephrine
b)
b. dopamine
c)
c. pethidine
d)
d. ephedrine
67.
It encompasses the collection, organization, retrieval, interpretation, evaluation and dissemination of information pertaining to all aspects of medicine:
a)
a. PTC
b)
b. DIS
c)
c. LAFH
d)
d. EDL
68.
The group established in the Philippines for hospital pharmacists:
a)
a. ASHP
b)
b. PSHP
c)
c. ASHP
d)
d. PACOP
69.
Which one is used as antiviral?
a)
a. terramycin
b)
b. garamycin
c)
c. zovirax
d)
d. vibramycin
70.
Which of the following is not an anti-asthma preparation?
a)
a. terbutaline
b)
b. cimetidine
c)
c. salbutamol
d)
d. prednisolone
71.
Betadine is used as:
a)
a. antifungal
b)
b. antibacterial
c)
c. antiinfective
d)
d. both a and b
e)
e. all of the above
72.
These are acceptable colors of pharmacy wall, except:
a)
a. white
b)
b. cream
c)
c. mint
d)
d. orange
e)
e. baby pink
73.
The drug atropine sulfate is used as:
a)
a. antiasthmatic
b)
b. anticholinergic
c)
c. antio-anginal
d)
d. anthelmintic
74.
Excessive rapidity of respiration:
a)
a. cytopenia
b)
b. necrosis
c)
c. tachypnea
d)
d. tachycardia
75.
Surgical puncture of the heart:
a)
a. pericardium
b)
b. colostomy
c)
c. cardiocentesis
d)
d. necroscopy
76.
Functional disorder of the nervous system:
a)
a. neurosis
b)
b. tachycardia
c)
c. meningitis
d)
d. phlebotomy
77.
The drug used to paralyze the patient during surgical procedure:
a)
a. penthotal sodium
b)
b. vecuronium
c)
c. nubain
d)
d. phenobarbital
78.
These are examples of objective parameters, except:
a)
a. blood level
b)
b. laboratory tests
c)
c. x-ray tests
d)
d. blood pressure
e)
e. degree of pain
79.
NPO means:
a)
a. non-progressive operation
b)
b. nothing by mouth
c)
c. with full stomach
d)
d. nothing after six
e)
e. none of the above
80.
The most accurate method in calculating children’s dose based on weight and height is:
a)
a. Young’s rule
b)
b. Fried’s rule
c)
c. Cowling’s rule
d)
d. BSA
81.
The active ingredient of Desenex powder is:
a)
a. tolnaftate
b)
b. salicylic acid
c)
c. undecylenic acid
82.
During eye examination, the following are noted, except:
a)
a. visual acuity
b)
b. pupillary reflex
c)
c. EOM
d)
d. Presence of tears
83.
The breath of an alcoholic patient may smell:
a)
a. fruity
b)
b. ammoniacal
c)
c. musty
d)
d. sweet
84.
Cromolyn sodium is useful in asthma only in:
a)
a. oral tabs
b)
b. pills
c)
c. inhalation
d)
d. injectable
85.
It is ideal and proper condition for aseptic handling of hyper alimentation and intravenous fluids:
a)
a. HEPA filters
b)
b. LAFH
c)
c. TPN
d)
d. ventilator
86.
The normal drop rate ion TPN therapy is:
a)
a. 1 ml/min
b)
b. 2 ml/min
c)
c. 1 ml/min
d)
d. 5 ml/min
87.
The starting dose of TPN per day is:
a)
a. 6 L/day
b)
b. 2.5 L/day
c)
c. 5 L/day
d)
d. 2 L/day
88.
Patient who is not bedridden, who can take care of himself and administer his own medication:
a)
a. patient care
b)
b. ambulatory patient
c)
c. geriatric
d)
d. pediatric
89.
Assessment of the musculoskeletal system includes:
a)
a. assessment of posture and gait
b)
b. measurement of the extremities
c)
c. ROM testing
d)
d. all of these
90.
The skin is assessed for:
a)
a. lesions
b)
b. hydration
c)
c. mobility
d)
d. all of these
91.
Inspection involves:
a)
a. concentrated visualization of the patient
b)
b. listening to sounds that may emanate from the patient
c)
c. noting peculiar odors of the patient
d)
d. all of these
92.
Blood pressure is determined by:<br /><br />1) palpation <br />2) percussion <br />3) auscultation <br />4) inspection<br />
a)
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b)
b. 1, 3
c)
c. 2, 4
d)
d. 1, 2, 3
93.
During palpation, the following are used, except:
a)
a. fingers
b)
b. palms
c)
c. back of the hands
d)
d. fist
94.
Borborygmi is:
a)
a. a discontinuous, bubbling abdominal sound of short duration
b)
b. a coarse abdominal sound that disappears on coughing
c)
c. loud gurgling and tinkling sounds heard over the abdomen
d)
d. also known as crepitation
95.
It is a technique that delivers an amount of electrolyte solution over a period of several hours and is used to replace electrolytes needed by the patient:
a)
a. Drop factor
b)
b. metabolism
c)
c. fluid blousing
d)
d. loading dose
96.
Drug which is an antineoplastic agent:
a)
a. gentamicin
b)
b. cisplatin
c)
c. furosemide
d)
d. plasil
97.
Daily administration of aspirin can impair:
a)
a. hearing
b)
b. seeing
c)
c. both a and b
98.
This service is responsible for the procurement, planning and preparation of food for the patient and hospital staff:
a)
a. dietary service
b)
b. nursing service
c)
c. record service
99.
The purpose of laboratory examination and radiological services is for:
a)
a. therapeutic
b)
b. diagnostic
c)
c. treatment
d)
d. exercise
100.
Powerful tool for the orderliness, cleanliness and sanitary procedures in the hospital pharmacy department:
a)
a. chief pharmacist
b)
b. assistant chief pharmacist
c)
c. staff pharmacist
d)
d. all of the above
e)
e. none of the above
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