Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsMODULE 2 PINK PACOP BIOCHEM 101-200
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which of the following amino acids serves as a precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?
a)
Tryptophan
b)
Threonine
c)
Tyrosine
d)
Alanine
2.
Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid.
a)
Tryptophan
b)
Threonine
c)
Tyrosine
d)
Alanine
3.
Histamine, a chemical messenger, mediates allergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric acid secretion and neurotransmission of the brain. Which of the following amino acids, which when decarboxylated, yields histamine?
a)
Tyrosine
b)
Histidine
c)
Tryptophan
d)
Any of the above
4.
The non- polar amino acid – alanine, leucine, and tryptophan, are all expected to be located in the of a globular protein in aqueous environment.
a)
Central
b)
Peripheral
c)
Randomly arranged
d)
Scattered
5.
Polar and ionized side chains in globular proteins tend to move to the surface to form bonds with water.
a)
Inner
b)
Outer
c)
Entire
d)
Regional
6.
Fibrous proteins are elongated, water soluble, generally in either alpha-helical, pleated sheet, or triple helical forms. Which of the following is an example of fibrous proteins?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Actin
c)
Myosin
d)
Elastin
7.
Among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of skin and hair?
a)
Keratin
b)
Collagen
c)
Elastin
d)
Fibronectin
8.
108. The fibrous proteins is the most abundant single proteins in vertebrates.
a)
Keratin
b)
Collagen
c)
Elastin
d)
Fibronectin
9.
Which of the following statements below gives an accurate description of collagen?
a)
It is a fibrous proteins
b)
The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain
c)
Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of proline
d)
All of the above
e)
Only A and B
10.
Which of the fibrous protein is an important structural component of the arterial blood vessels and ligaments?
a)
Keratin
b)
Collagen
c)
Elastin
d)
Fibronectin
11.
One way of classifying protein is through their physical properties. Which of the following is soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?
a)
Prolamine
b)
Globulin
c)
Albumin
d)
Histones
12.
This is a general term for naturally occurring proteins that yield only alpha amino acids, or their derivative on hydrolysis
a)
Simple proteins
b)
Albuminoids
c)
Conjugated proteins
d)
Derived proteins
13.
These are proteins that are combined in nature with some non-protein substances, and are classified according to the nature of their prosthetic group or non- protein portion.
a)
Simple proteins
b)
Conjugated proteins
c)
Primary derived proteins
d)
Secondary derived proteins
14.
These are proteins that differ only slightly from their source original proteins, and are formed by means of the action of heat, acids, alkali, water, enzymes, and mechanical shock.
a)
Simple proteins
b)
Conjugated proteins
c)
Derived proteins
d)
Proteosis
15.
Keratin in hair and horny tissue, elastin in tendons and arteries, and collagen in skin and tendons belong to what type of simple proteins?
a)
Glutelins
b)
Histones
c)
Protamines
d)
Albuminoids
16.
Glutenin in wheat (glutelin) and zein in corn (prolamines) belong to what classification of proteins?
a)
Simple proteins
b)
Conjugated proteins
c)
Denaturated proteins
d)
Coagulated proteins
17.
Casein in milk and ovovitellin in egg yolk are examples of what type of conjugated proteins?
a)
Phospoproteins
b)
Nucleuproteins
c)
Glycoproteins
d)
Chromoproteins
18.
Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins, and glycoproteins are classified under what type of proteins?
a)
Simple proteins
b)
Conjugated proteins
c)
Primary derived proteins
d)
Secondary derived proteins
19.
Fibrin from fibrinogen and myosan from myosin are examples of what type of primary derived proteins.
a)
Proteans
b)
Mateproteans
c)
Coagulated protein
d)
Peptones
20.
These are primary derived proteins, which are insoluble substances formed during the early stage of the action of water, enzymes and dilute acids.
a)
Proteans
b)
Conjugated proteins
c)
Metaproteins
d)
Peptones
21.
Arrange the following secondary derived proteins from highest to lowest number of molecular weight.
a)
Peptide >peptones>proteoses
b)
Proteoses>peptides>peptones
c)
Proteoses >peptones >peptides
d)
Peptones > proteoses >peptides
22.
What enzyme is responsible for converting phenylalanine to tyrosine?
a)
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
b)
Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
c)
Phenylalanine ligase
d)
Phenylalanine kinase
23.
The absence of this enzyme results to phenylketonuria.
a)
Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
b)
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c)
Homogentsate oxidase
d)
Either A or B
24.
Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria?
a)
The enzyme homogentisate oxidase results to phenylketonuria
b)
There overproduction of tyrosine
c)
There is always an abnormal development of the child’s brain
d)
An artificial protein that lacks phenylalanine is given to children with PKU
25.
What diet would you advice the child mother with PKU to give to her baby?
a)
Rich in tyrosine, lacks phenylalanine
b)
Equal quantities of tyrosine and phenylalanine
c)
Rich in phenylalanine, lacks tyrosine
d)
Regular infant formula
26.
What enzyme is deficient in alkaptunoria?
a)
Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
b)
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c)
Homogentisate hydroxylase
d)
Any of the above
27.
What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?
a)
Tyrosine
b)
Methionine
c)
Tryptophan
d)
Phenylalanie
28.
What important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?
a)
Histamine
b)
Actylcholine
c)
Norepinephrine
d)
Serotonin
29.
Which of the following are branched-chain amino acids responsible for the characteristic sweet smell of the urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease
a)
Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
b)
Leucine, alanine and valine
c)
Lysine, alanine, and valine
d)
Lysine, isoleucine and valine
30.
This results from the oxidation of heme protein in hemoglobin resulting to increased affinity, and therefore failure to adequately deliver oxygen to tissues.
a)
Thalassemia
b)
Methemolobinemia
c)
Sulfhemoglobinemia
d)
Sickle cell anemia
31.
The coenzyme FMN and FAD is responsible for the oxidative deamination of amino acids. Which of the following vitamins is related to this coenzymes?
a)
B1
b)
B2
c)
B3
d)
B4
32.
Myoglobin and hemoglobin possesses a cyclic tetrapyrole, heme, as a prosthetic group. Which of the following ions is found centrally located in the heme?
a)
Mg
b)
Al
c)
Fe
d)
P
33.
Some serum enzymes are used clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may be used to diagnose myocardial infarction? 1. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase 2.AST or SGOT 3. Creatinine phosphokinase 4. Lactate dehydrogenase
a)
3 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
44199
d)
44231
34.
Acute pancreatitis maybe diagnose using which serum enzymes? 1. Acid phosphatase 2. Alkaline phosphatase 3. Lipase 4. Amylase
a)
3 only
b)
4 only
c)
1 and 2
d)
3 and 4
35.
Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?
a)
Kinase
b)
Phosphorylase
c)
Phosphatase
d)
Ligase
36.
Wernickes-Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia and opthalmoplegia, can be treated with which of the following?
a)
Riboflavin
b)
Ascorbic acid
c)
Thiamine
d)
Pantothenic acid
37.
What is the deficiency state of folic acid?
a)
Aplastic anemia
b)
Microcytic anemia
c)
Megaloblastic anemia
d)
Macrocytic anemia
38.
Which of the following coenzymes is responsible for carrying I- carbon groups?
a)
TPP (thiamine pyrophosphate )
b)
NADH (reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide )
c)
FAD ( flavin adenine dinucleotide )
d)
TFHA (tetrahydrofolic acid )
39.
Bone disorder and obstructive liver disease maybe diagnosed using which of the following serum enzymes?
a)
Aminotransferase
b)
Alkaline phosphatase
c)
Acid phosphatase
d)
Lactate dehydrogenase
40.
Which of the following vitamins is present in coenzymes required in the transfer of amino groups and decarboxylation of amino acids? Its deficiency state is manifested by glossitis, peripheral neuropathy and niacin deficiency.
a)
Pyridoxine
b)
Niacin
c)
Thiamine
d)
Riboflavin
41.
The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and loss of tongue papillae. Which of the following is/are deficient in pellagra?
a)
Niacin
b)
Tryptophan
c)
Both A and B
d)
Pellagra is not a deficiency state. It is an autoimmune disorder.
42.
143. Trimethoprim and methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The used of the aforementioned drugs predisposes a person to develop
a)
Nausea and vomiting
b)
Dermatitis
c)
Normocytic anemia
d)
Megaloblastic anemia
43.
Cheilosis, glossitis, seborrhea, and photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency state?
a)
Thiamine
b)
Riboflavin
c)
Niacin
d)
Pyridoxine
44.
Certain metals and trace are important as enzyme cofactors. What metal is present in enzyme gluthathione peroxidase that replaces S is one cysteine in active site?
a)
Fe
b)
Co
c)
Se
d)
Zn
45.
This class of immunoglobulin is produced during the early response to invading organisms. It has a relatively large size that restricts its transport in the bloodstream.
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgD
d)
IgA
46.
This is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood. Together with IgM, it is capable of triggering system. Which immunoglobulin is this?
a)
IgG
b)
IgA
c)
IgD
d)
IgE
47.
This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils upon exposure to antigens or allergens?
a)
IgA
b)
IgG
c)
IgM
d)
IgE
48.
This immunoglobulin prevents the attachments of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. It is found in body secretions such as tears, colostrum, saliva, sweat and small intestines.
a)
IgD
b)
IgA
c)
IgM
d)
IgE
49.
This immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
a)
IgA
b)
IgM
c)
IgG
d)
IgD
50.
Which of the following act synergistically with Vit E?
a)
Se
b)
Co
c)
Cu
d)
Mn
51.
This are slightly longer, catalytically inactive form of enzymes?
a)
Haloenzymes
b)
zymogen
c)
haloenzyme
d)
Both A and B
52.
153. This term refers to an intact with a bound co-factor?
a)
Haloenzyme
b)
Apoenzyme
c)
Zymogen
d)
Prosthetic group
53.
Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids. What is the visible result for ninhydrin test in the presence of proline and and hydroxyproline?
a)
Violet
b)
Green
c)
Yellow
d)
Old rose
54.
Which of the following test is specific for amino acids and free amino group?
a)
Biuret test
b)
Hopkins Cole test
c)
Ninhydrin
d)
Xanthoproteic test
55.
Xanthprotheic test is a test for?
a)
Free amino groups
b)
Arginine
c)
Cysteine
d)
Tyrosine
56.
What is the positive visible result of Xanthoproteic test?
a)
Yellow color deepening into orange
b)
Violet color
c)
Bluish green
d)
Old rose
57.
This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkage?
a)
Ninhydrin
b)
Biuret
c)
Hopkins Cole
d)
Sakaguchi
58.
Hopkins Cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?
a)
Threonine
b)
Tryptophan
c)
Lysine
d)
Leucine
59.
Which of the following gives a positive result to basic lead acetate test?
a)
Tryptophan
b)
Cysteine
c)
Cysteine
d)
Both A and B
e)
Both B and C
60.
Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of
a)
histidine
b)
tyrosine
c)
tryptophan
d)
both A and B
e)
Both B and C
61.
Specific test for arginine
a)
Biuret test
b)
Basic lead acetate test
c)
Ninhydrin
d)
Sakaguchi
62.
This test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine?
a)
Ninhydrin test
b)
Anthrone test
c)
Schiffs test
d)
Millons- Nasse
63.
This is also known as glyoxylic acid reaction?
a)
Millons-nasse
b)
Ninhydrin
c)
Hopkins cole
d)
Schiffs test
64.
Which of the following statement is/ are correct? 1. The difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as nitrogen balance. 2. In a healthy adult , nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals output 3. Positive nitrogen balance occurs when dietary intake is less the excretion of nitrogenous compounds 4. Negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake
a)
3 only
b)
1 and 2
c)
2 and 4
d)
1 and 4
65.
This is also known as protein calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein
a)
Marasmus
b)
Obesity
c)
Hemochromatosis
d)
Kwashiorkor
66.
The digestion of protein begins in the
a)
Mouth
b)
Stomach
c)
Small intestine
d)
Pancreas
67.
Pepsinogen is an example of
a)
Apoenzyme
b)
Holoenzyme
c)
Cofactor
d)
Zymogen
68.
Racemase and mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?
a)
Lyases
b)
Isomerases
c)
Oxidoreductase
d)
Ligase
69.
Racemase, Mutase, are examples of what type of enzymes?
a)
lyases
b)
isomerases
c)
oxireductase
d)
ligases
70.
170. This is caused by inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of calories?
a)
Marasmus
b)
Obesity
c)
Hemochromatosis
d)
Kwashiorkor
71.
This enzymes adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule.
a)
Reductase
b)
Oxidase
c)
Ligase
d)
Synthase
72.
Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?
a)
esterase
b)
racemase
c)
aminotransferase
d)
decarboxylase
73.
This type of enzymes cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create an aldehyde group?
a)
esterase
b)
transferase
c)
aldose
d)
protease
74.
The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of a enzyme?
a)
hydrolase
b)
ligase
c)
racemase
d)
lyase
75.
These are defined a polyhydroxylated compounds with at least three carbon atoms that may or may not possess a carbonyl group.
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
76.
Which of the following statement is correct?
a)
glyceraldehyde is ketotriose
b)
dihydroxyacetone is an aldotriose
c)
glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone ate tataumers
d)
all of the above
77.
This are sugar alcohol derived from glucose, which often accumulates in the lenses of diabetic and produces cataracts.
a)
mannitol
b)
sorbitol
c)
glucitol
d)
glycerol
78.
178. Glucose, Fructose and Galactose all have the same chemical formula C6H12O6, through this information, we can conclude that these substance are
a)
anomers
b)
epimers
c)
enantiomers
d)
isomers
79.
These stereoisomers are non-superimposible mirror image of each other. These are also called optical isomers because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions.
a)
enantiomers
b)
diastereomers
c)
anomers
d)
both A and B
80.
D- threose and L- threose are examples of
a)
anomers
b)
enantiomers
c)
diastereomers
d)
conformational isomers
81.
Which of the following has the most number of carbon atoms?
a)
erythrose
b)
sedoheptulose
c)
galactose
d)
ribose
82.
Which of the following statements is /are true?
a)
the carbonyl carbon is aldoses in carbon 1
b)
the carbonyl group is ketoses in carbon 2
c)
Both statements are correct
d)
both statements are false
83.
Arrange the following monosaccharides from the highest number to lowest number of carbon atoms? 1. erythrose 2. Sedoheptulose 3. Galactose 4. Ribose
a)
4-3-1-2
b)
3-2-1-4
c)
2-3-4-1
d)
1-2-3-4
84.
The stereoisomers of cyclized monosaccharides molecules differing only in the configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl carbon.
a)
diastereomers
b)
enantiomers
c)
epimers
d)
anomers
85.
Maltose, a disaccharides is composed of
a)
glucose + galactose
b)
glucose + fructose
c)
glucose + glucose
d)
glucose + mannose
86.
Which of the following carbohydrates contains the most number of carbon atoms?
a)
sedoheptulose
b)
sialic acid
c)
ribose
d)
glycerose
87.
Which of the following statement is /are correct?
a)
In Fischer projection, when the sugar is written vertically, the lowest carbon is designated as carbon 1
b)
If an –OH projects to the right on the Fischer structure, it will project downward in the Haworth projection
c)
The Haworth projection provides a more exact representation of the three dimensional conformation of sugars in nature than chair configuration.
d)
all of the above
88.
Mutarotation, is a process of interconversion between the alpha and beta forms, using the open chain structure as an intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation.
a)
monosaccharide’s
b)
disaccharides
c)
polysaccharides
d)
amino acids
89.
Which of the following present a cylic sugar nature?
a)
Fischer projection
b)
Haworth projection
c)
Chair projection
d)
boat conformation
90.
Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at carbon 4, thus they are called”
a)
diastereomers
b)
enantiomers
c)
epimers
d)
anomers
91.
Glycogen is an example of a
a)
disaccharide
b)
monosaccharide
c)
polysaccharide
d)
none of the above
92.
Which of the following statements is correct about boat and conformation?
a)
Axial bonds are parallel to the axis
b)
equatorial bonds are perpendicular to the axis
c)
For the 6 carbon pyranose , the chair from is more stable than the boat form
d)
all of the above
e)
only C is correct
93.
The OH group on the penultimate or second to the last carbon atoms determines
a)
D (dextro ) L ( levo ), dextro pointing to the right and levo pointing to the left
b)
D (dextro ) L ( levo ), regarding optical activity
c)
both statements are correct
d)
both statements are incorrect
94.
The glycosidic formed in glycosides is an example of
a)
ester bond
b)
ether bond
c)
ketone bond
d)
Noncovalent bond
95.
Benedicts test is the traditional test for glucose in the urine. What is the basis for the test?
a)
oxidation of cuprous ions to cupric oxides
b)
reduction of cupric ions to cuprous oxide
c)
enzymatic degradation of glucose
d)
reation of glucose with complexing agents
96.
Glucose normally absent in the urine because kidneys normally completely reabsorbed all glucose. Which of the following is true?
a)
Glucosuria confirms diabetes mellitus
b)
Glucosuria necesarrily means hyperglycemia
c)
Glucosuria is solely attributed to insulin problems
d)
Glucosuria may occur in other disease state
97.
Ascorbic acid, glucoronides and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would test substances affect Benedicts test result?
a)
They may give false negative results
b)
They may give false positive results
c)
They would not affect that results
d)
They would enhance the sensitivity to the test
98.
Testape (Lilly) , Clinistix ( Bayer ) , Multistix ( Bayer ) are based on what principles?
a)
oxidation
b)
reduction
c)
enzymatic action
d)
Both A and B
e)
both A and C
99.
Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. Which pancreatic cell type of its responsible for secreting this hormone?
a)
A cell or alpha
b)
B cell or beta
c)
D cell or delta
d)
F cell or Delta
100.
This hormones may sometimes be useful in reversal of cardiac effects of Beta blocker overdose because of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart
a)
Insulin
b)
Somatostatin
c)
Somatomedin
d)
Glucagon
Reset
