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HLS Midterm 2 Revision

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

warms and filters

a)

nose

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

trachea

2.

upper part of respiration, throat area

a)

larynx

b)

pharynx

c)

trachea

d)

lungs

3.

contains the vocal chords/voice

a)

mouth

b)

trachea

c)

bronchioles

d)

larynx

4.

main tube in respiration

a)

lungs

b)

trachea

c)

alveoli

d)

bronchial tubes

5.

2 tubes entering the lungs

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

bronchial tubes

d)

bronchioles

6.

smaller branches in lungs

a)

pharynx

b)

epiglottis

c)

bronchioles

d)

alveoli

7.

protects from choking

a)

pharynx

b)

epiglottis

c)

larynx

d)

trachea

8.

exchange of gases

a)

bronchial tubes

b)

alveoli

c)

larynx

d)

pharynx

9.

the process of forcing air into the body

a)

inspiration

b)

expiration

c)

desperation

d)

motivation

10.

forcing air out of the body

a)

temptation

b)

inspiration

c)

desperation

d)

expiration

11.

which inspiration steps are in the correct order

a)

air forced in, diaphragm relaxes, air pressure raises

b)

diaphragm contracts, air pressure lowers, air forced in

c)

air pressure raises, air forced out, diaphragm contracts

d)

diaphragm relaxes,air pressure drops, air forced in

12.

which expiration steps are correct

a)

diaphragm relaxes, air pressure raises, air forced out

b)

air forced in, air pressure raises, diaphragm contracts

c)

diaphragm contracts, air forced out, air pressure drops

d)

air pressure raises, diaphragm contracts, air forced out

13.

normal breathing rate is called

a)

tidal volume

b)

tidal wave

c)

yawn

d)

residual volume

14.

a massive inhale is called

a)

IRV

b)

ERV

c)

ARV

d)

URV

15.

a massive exhale is called

a)

ERV

b)

IRV

c)

ORV

d)

URV

16.

the air left in the lungs after an exhale is called

a)

alveoli

b)

residual volume

c)

inspiration

d)

expiration

17.

What is diffusion?

a)

the active movement of a substance against its concentration gradient

b)

the net movement of a substance from an area of low to higher concentration

c)

the net movement of a substance from an area of high to lower concentration

d)

the passive movement of a substance against its concentration gradient

18.

Where does gaseous exchange occur in mammals?

a)

alveoli

b)

villi

c)

small intestine

d)

heart

19.

How are alveoli adapted for gaseous exchange?

a)

they provide a long diffusion pathway between the lungs and the blood

b)

they are in close contact with the lung capillaries

c)

their walls are made up of multiple cell layers

d)

they have a small surface area for diffusion

20.

Which of these is NOT an adaptation of leaves for gaseous exchange?

a)

they are flat to increase the surface area

b)

they have internal airspaces next to cells

c)

they have small holes on their surface called stomata

d)

they are thick to maximise diffusion pathway

21.

What does the trachea divide into?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Two bronchi

c)

Bronchioles

22.

What happens to the diaphragm when you breathe in?

a)

Contracts and moves upwards

b)

Relaxes and moves downwards

c)

Contracts and moves downwards

23.

What effect does tar have on ciliated cells?

a)

Kills the cells

b)

Damages the cilia

c)

Tar doesn't affect these cells

24.

What is emphysema?

a)

When there is too much mucus in the lungs

b)

When the alveolar walls have broken down, reducing surface area

c)

A type of lung cancer

d)

Damage to the cilia

25.

Which chemical in cigarette smoke causes the lung tissue to blacken?

a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

carbon monoxide

26.

Suggest the effect of long term smoking on the amount of oxygen transported in someone's blood?

a)

Decreased

b)

Increased

27.

What is meant by the term bronchitis?

a)

Inflammation of the bronchi (caused by infection)

b)

A tumour in the bronchi

c)

Only having 1 bronchus

28.

Which chemical in cigarette smoke increases the risk of lung cancer?

a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

carbon monoxide

29.

Which chemical in cigarette smoke results in coughing and more frequent infections?

a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

carbon monoxide

30.

The chewing of your food is called what?

a)

Eating

b)

Mastication

c)

Swallowing

d)

Enzymes

31.

Involuntary muscle contractions that move food.

a)

Chemical breakdown

b)

Flexion

c)

Swallowing

d)

Peristalsis

32.

What is the chemical that breaks down food in your mouth?

a)

Saliva

b)

Lipase

c)

Lipid

d)

Bile

33.

What is the first Nutrient that is broken down in the digestion process?

a)

Fats

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Fiber

34.

Where does MOST of the digestion process occur?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Mouth

c)

Stomach

d)

Large Intestine

e)

Colon

35.

The physical & chemical breakdown of food is called?

a)

Digestion

b)

Absorption

c)

Swallowing

d)

Excretion

36.

Pick the correct order of digestion

a)

Mouth,stomach,esophagus,large intestine,small intestine

b)

Mouth,esophagus,stomach,small intestine, large intestine

c)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, colon

d)

Mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

37.

What chemical breaks down Fat?

a)

Water

b)

Saliva

c)

Sodium

d)

Bile

38.

Where is Bile produced?

a)

Liver

b)

Stomach

c)

Pancreas

d)

Colon

39.

What does the Gall Bladder store?

a)

Bile

b)

Fat

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Insulin

40.

Another name for the Large Intestine?

a)

Really big intestine

b)

Colon

c)

Pancreas

d)

Massive

41.

Your stomach has what 3 functions?

a)

Stores food

b)

Makes Chyme

c)

Breaks down Fat

d)

Controls food moving into the small intestine

42.

Peptidases in the intestinal juice complete the digestion of proteins by breaking down polypeptides and peptides into __________ .

a)

fatty acids

b)

hydrochloric acids

c)

amino acids

43.

in the small intestines, the enzyme maltase breaks down maltose into _____________________ .

a)

glucose + fructose

b)

glucose + glucose

c)

glucose + galactose

44.
What does homeostasis mean?
a)
Temperature
b)
Water
c)
Cells
d)
Steady state
45.

Homeostasis mechanisms...

a)

keep everything exactly the same.

b)

usually operate by positive feedback systems.

c)

act to keep the internal environmental conditions outside the normal range

d)

is the ability to maintain a relatively stable internal environment

46.

Which type of feedback system is more common in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

balanced

47.

What type of feedback system is more dangerous to an organism?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

balanced

48.

This feedback system amplifies a change until a desired outcome is reached.

a)

positive feedback system

b)

negative feedback system

c)

neutral feedback system

d)

self-monitoring feedback system

49.

This is the term used to describe the normal range of a variable in an organism

a)

control center

b)

effector

c)

stimulus

d)

set point

50.

It transmits signals to the control center when it detects a change.

a)

control center

b)

effector

c)

response

d)

sensor

51.

The reaction of the effector is called..

a)

response

b)

sensor

c)

stimulus

d)

set point

52.

receives and analyzes information received from the sensors

a)

control center

b)

effector

c)

sensor

d)

response

53.

The feedback system that returns the body back to the normal set point.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

returnable

54.

What type of feedback system is described above?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

leofied

55.

What type of feedback system does the model represent?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

glyogen

56.
Low blood sugar
a)
anemia
b)
hyproglucemia
c)
hypoglycemia
d)
hyperglycemia
57.
Sugar that is stored in the liver for emergency use
a)
glucose
b)
glycogen
c)
glucagon
d)
sucrose
58.
the sugar we measure for "blood sugar"
a)
glucose
b)
glycogen
c)
glucagon
d)
sucrose
59.
hormone that lowers blood sugar
a)
glucose
b)
glycogen
c)
glucagon
d)
insulin
60.
liver uses fats and amino acids to create a glucose molecule
a)
gluconeogenesis
b)
glycogenolysis
c)
glycogenesis
d)
glyconemia
61.
liver breaks glycogen
a)
gluconeogenesis
b)
glycogenolysis
c)
glycogenesis
d)
glyconemia
62.
a large sugar is created and stored in the liver for emergencies
a)
gluconeogenesis
b)
glycogenolysis
c)
glycogenesis
d)
glyconemia
63.

What causes blood glucose levels to rise?

a)

eating

b)

vigorous exercise

c)

sleeping

d)

going to the toilet

64.

What causes blood glucose levels to fall?

a)

eating

b)

vigorous exercise

c)

sleeping

d)

going to the toilet

65.

What type of foods are broken down into glucose in the small intestine?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

fats

66.

What do cells need glucose for?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

respiration

c)

protein synthesis

d)

combustion

67.

Insulin causes which organ to remove glucose from the blood?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

brain

d)

kidneys

68.

Excess glucose in the bloodstream is converted to which other substance when stored in the liver and muscle cells?

a)

glygogen

b)

glucagon

c)

glycerin

d)

glycerol

69.
Homeostatic blood glucose controlling enzymes are produced in
a)
the islets of Langehans in the pancreas
b)
in the liver
c)
Loop of henle in the kidneys
d)
pituitary gland
70.

What name do we use to describe the maintaining of constant conditions, such as blood glucose levels, body temperature and water levels, inside the body?

a)

hormonal control

b)

homeostasis

c)

nervous system

d)

endocrinasis

71.
Where is insulin produced?
a)
alpha cells
b)
beta cells
72.
where is glucagon produced?
a)
alpha cells
b)
beta cells
73.
What happens if glucose levels fall?
a)
Insulin levels rise
b)
glucagon levels rise
c)
glucagon levels drop
d)
glycogen levels rise
74.
A person that requires insulin shots has
a)
type 1 diabetes
b)
type 2 diabetes
75.
in type 2 diabetes
a)
the body produces insulin but the the liver and muscles don't respond properly to it
b)
doesn't produce insulin
c)
liver and muscle respon to it but its not made
d)
none of the sbove
76.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
77.

ADH is created in the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Brain

d)

Kidney

78.

ADH is released from the pituitary gland into the:

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Nervous system

d)

All of the above

79.

When ADH is secreted, urine will:

a)

Be more dilute

b)

Be more concentrated

c)

Have a larger volume

d)

All of the above

80.

When you drink a larger volume of water than is required by your body tissues:

a)

ADH secretion will be increased

b)

ADH secretion will be inhibited

c)

ADH secretion will not be affected

d)

None of the above

81.

Cells that detect high blood concentration are called:

a)

Chemoreceptors

b)

Osmoreceptors

c)

Thermoreceptors

d)

Nociceptors

82.

Changes in blood volume and concentration are detected in the brain cells in the:

a)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

b)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Thalamus

d)

Hypothalamus

83.
Identify Letter J
a)
Distal Convoluted Tubule
b)
Collecting Duct
c)
Peritubular Capillaries
d)
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
84.

Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is released by which gland of the endocrine system

a)

Thyroid

b)

Pituitary

c)

Ovaries

d)

Adrenal

85.

If you are dehydrated (low water potential in the blood), the body must conserve water. To do so, the brain triggers the pituitary gland to ...

a)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

b)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

c)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

d)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

86.

If you are over-hydrated (high water potential in the blood), the body must excrete excess water. To do so, the brain triggers the pituitary gland to ...

a)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

b)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

c)

release MORE ADH, making the collecting duct LESS permeable

d)

release LESS ADH, making the collecting duct MORE permeable

87.

The major organs in the excretory system include:

a)

Kidneys and anus

b)

Bladder and kidneys

c)

Intestines and kidneys

d)

Intestines and bladder

88.

_________________ is a waste product that forms from the breakdown of amino acids and nucleic acids.

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Ammonium

d)

Uric Acid

89.

What structure is letter D?

a)

Medulla

b)

Renal artery

c)

Renal vein

d)

Ureter

90.

What structure is letter B?

a)

Ureter

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

d)

Calyces

91.

What structure is letter C?

a)

Renal artery

b)

Calyces

c)

Cortex

d)

Medulla

92.

What is the capillary network in Bowman's capsule?

a)

vasa rectae

b)

nephron

c)

glomerulus

d)

proximal convolution

93.

Letter A represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Bowmans Capsule

b)

Descending Loop of Henle

c)

Distal ]Convoluted Tubule

d)

Renal Artery

94.

Which of the following letters shows the proximal convoluted tubule?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

E

d)

H

95.

Letter B represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Afferent arteriole

b)

Bowmans capsule

c)

Efferent arteriole

d)

Renal venoule

96.

Letter C represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Afferent arteriole

b)

Efferent arteriole

c)

Glomerulus

d)

Collecting duct

97.

Letter D represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Afferent arteriole

b)

Efferent arteriole

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Cortex

98.

Letter E represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Bowmans capsule

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Glomerulus

99.

Letter F represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Bowmans capsule

b)

Ascending loop of Henle

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Descending loop of Henle

100.

Letter F represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Bowmans capsule

b)

Ascending loop of Henle

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Descending loop of Henle

101.

Letter G represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Ascending loop of Henle

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Afferent arteriole

d)

Renal venule

102.

Letter H represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Afferent arteriole

b)

Efferent arteriole

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

103.

Letter I represents which part of the nephron?

a)

Bowmans capsule

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Renal vein

d)

distal convoluted tubule

104.

The three stages of urine production are _______, ______________, and ___________.

a)

filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

b)

filtration, urine secretion, and leukocytosis

c)

reabsorption, discretion, and secretion

105.

What is normally found in urine?

a)

red blood cells

b)

bacteria

c)

proteins

d)

urea

106.

During which process along the nephron is some of the water returned to the blood?

a)

Filtration

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Secretion

107.

What 2 substances are not normally filtered out from the blood during the initial filtration?

a)

Blood Cells

b)

Proteins

c)

Glucose

d)

water

108.

What acts as a filter in the nephron?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Bowman's Capsule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting Tubule

109.

During the journey along the nephron, most of the water, glucose, and vitamins are:

a)

stored in the bladder

b)

excreted through the ureters

c)

reabsorbed back into the blood

d)

concentrated in the urine

110.

Which of the following enters into the Bowman's capsule, while the rest are left behind in the capillaries?

a)

White blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

111.

There are two kidneys, two ureters, one bladder, and one urethra.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Each kidney contains roughly how many nephrons?

a)

1 thousand

b)

1 million

c)

1 billion

d)

10 billion

113.

The correct order for the parts of the nephron are....

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, Bowman's capsule

b)

Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle

c)

Loop of Henle, bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule

114.
The _____ response is known as fight or flight.
a)
parasympathetic
b)
sympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
115.
The _____part of the autonomic nervous system is active during resting.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
116.
The ____ nervous system controls unconscious activities.
a)
somatic
b)
sympathetic
c)
parasympathetic
d)
autonomic
117.
Release of epinephrine
a)
parasympathetic
b)
sympathetic
118.
The part of the neuron that insulates the axon and increases the speed of the neural message within the neuron.
a)
Synapse
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal Button
119.

This part of the neuron receives chemical messages from the neurotransmitters of other neurons. It is labeled A in the diagram.

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

120.

The long, fiber like part of a neuron which the cell sends information to receiving neurons. Labelled D in diagram.

a)

Synapse

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

121.
The nervous system subdivision that is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
a)
Autonomic Nervous Sytem
b)
CNS
c)
PNS
d)
Somatic Nervous System
122.

_____ neurons carry messages away from the central nervous system and out to muscles or glands. The RED neuron in diagram.

a)

sensory

b)

motor

c)

inter

d)

central

123.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
124.

Select two examples of effectors.

a)

Neuron

b)

Gland

c)

Muscle

d)

Receptor

125.

Which type of neuron causes a muscle to contract in a reflex arc?

a)

Motor Neuron

b)

Sensory Neuron

c)

Interneuron

d)

Effector

126.
What is the neuron found only in the spinal cord?
a)
Relay
b)
Sensory
c)
Motor
d)
Reflex
127.

Where would the nerve impulse start in this reflex arc?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

128.

What type of neuron is A?

a)

Sensory

b)

Inter

c)

Motor

129.

Which is the correct order of neurons in a reflex arc?

a)

Sensory neuron, motor neuron, relay neuron

b)

Relay neuron, sensory neuron, motor neuron

c)

Sensory neuron, relay neuron, motor neuron

130.

Which ions are involved in establishing the resting potential?

a)

sodium ions

b)

calcium ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

hydrogen ions

131.

Which process(es) is(are) involved in establishing the resting potential?

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

osmosis

132.

The inside of a neurone is negatively charged when at resting potential.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which ions 'leak' out of neurones to establish resting potential?

a)

sodium ions

b)

potassium ions

c)

hydrogen ions

d)

chloride ions

134.

Which term is used to describe the change in the membrane potential to positive as sodium ions enter a neurone?

(a)  

135.

Which is true for repolarisation?

a)

sodium channels open, potassium channels close

b)

sodium channels open, potassium channels open

c)

sodium channels close, potassium channels open

d)

sodium channels close, potassium channels close

136.

Which of the following increase the speed of transmission of a nerve impulse?

a)

presence of myelin sheath

b)

smaller diameter of axon

c)

increased temperature

137.

What has to be reached before a neurone can fully depolarise?

a)

threshold potential

b)

refractory period

c)

hyperpolarisation

d)

resting potential

138.

What value is the resting potential in mV (number and sign only)?

(a)  

139.

What is saltatory conduction?

a)

when the threshold potential is reached

b)

when the action potential jumps from node to node

c)

when the neurone becomes hyperpolarised

140.

What happens to the membrane potential during depolarisation?

a)

It becomes more negative

b)

It becomes more positive

c)

It remains unchanged

d)

It fluctuates randomly

141.

Which of the following is a characteristic of non-myelinated axons?

a)

Faster impulse transmission

b)

Slower impulse transmission

c)

Impulse transmission is unaffected by myelination

d)

Impulse transmission is random

142.

How does axon diameter affect the speed of nerve impulse conduction?

a)

Larger diameter decreases speed

b)

Larger diameter increases speed

c)

Diameter has no effect

d)

Smaller diameter increases speed

143.

Which of the following best describes the refractory period?

a)

A period when the neurone is hyperactive

b)

A period when the neurone cannot be stimulated

c)

A period of increased sensitivity

d)

A period of random activity

144.

What effect does temperature have on the speed of nerve impulse conduction?

a)

Higher temperature decreases speed

b)

Higher temperature increases speed

c)

Temperature has no effect

d)

Lower temperature increases speed

145.

What is the main reason for the discrete nature of nerve impulses?

a)

Continuous conduction

b)

Refractory period

c)

Constant membrane potential

d)

Random ion movement

146.

The minimum stimulus needed to achieve an action potential is called the (a)   stimulus

147.

At resting potential there is a high concentration of (a)   ions outside and a high concentration of potassium ions inside the neuron.

148.

During the absolute refractory period a second stimulus will produce a second action potential

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Action potential propagate to

a)

one direction

b)

both directions

150.

Depolarisation occurs under the myelin

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Which factor(s) affect the speed of conduction of an impulse?

a)

diameter of the axon

b)

diameter of the axon and myelin presence

c)

diameter, myelin and temperature

d)

temperature

152.

Where can the Adrenal Glands be found?

a)

On the liver

b)

In the brain

c)

On the Kidneys

d)

Near the thymol gland

153.

What do the adrenal glands release?

a)

A hormone

b)

An enzyme

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Insulin

154.

What is Homeostasis ?

a)

the maintenance of a constant internal environment

b)

the maintenance of a constant external environment

c)

the maintenance of a constant living environment

155.

The normal human body temperature is

a)

35 °C

b)

37 °C

c)

34 °C

d)

40 °C

156.

The hormone that controls glucose levels is called ...

a)

ADH

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Oestrogen

157.

The hormone that is released when you are scared ...

a)

ADH

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Oestrogen

158.

What gland releases insulin?

a)

Ovary

b)

Testes

c)

Pancreas

d)

Adrenal

159.

The endocrine system is made up of glands that release hormones into the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

What are chemicals that travel in the blood and cause changes in different parts of the body?

a)

Hormones

b)

Glands

c)

impulses 

d)

nerves

161.
What is a disease where sufferers cannot control their blood glucose levels?
a)
Diabetes
b)
Influenza
c)
Cholera
d)
Cystic fibrosis
162.

The hormone that makes the liver store sugars is

a)

glucose

b)

glycogen

c)

glucagon

d)

insulin

163.

Why is it important to maintain a constant body temperature?

a)

to stop the multiplication of bacteria in the body

b)

so that we don't get cold

c)

to maintain the optimum temperature for enzymes

d)

so that we have enough energy to move

164.

What do receptors do?

a)

Detect a change in the environment

b)

Process information

c)

Give a response

d)

A change in the environment

165.

What does the coordination centre do?

a)

Processes information from receptors

b)

Detects changes in the environment

c)

Gives the response

d)

Is a change in the environment

166.

What is a stimuli?

a)

Detects a change in the environment

b)

A change in the environment

c)

Process information from the receptor

d)

Gives the response

167.

What do effectors do?

a)

Detects the changes in the environment

b)

processes information from receptors

c)

Gives the response

d)

Is the change in the environment

168.

Which are examples of effectors?

a)

Muscles

b)

Glands

c)

Muscles and Glands

d)

Nervous system

169.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
Positive
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
170.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
negative
b)
neutral 
c)
positive
171.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop

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