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WorksheetsReg. Biology 2nd Semester Review
Total questions: 174
Worksheet time: 6hrs 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
How does a cell maintain homeostasis?
a)
Regulates what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Flexibility
c)
Protective barrier
d)
Structure and support
2.
Most of the cell membrane is made of...
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbs
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
3.
Lipid tails are...
a)
Nonpolar
b)
Polar
4.
Lipid tails are...
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic
5.
Lipid heads are...
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic
6.
What does hydrophobic mean?
a)
Likes water as a friend
b)
Dissolves in water
c)
Loves water
d)
Hates water
7.
How many layers is the lipid bilayer?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
8.
True or false: Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis.
a)
True
b)
False
9.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads
d)
lipids
10.
Hypertonic solutions...
a)
water moves from hypotonic to hypertonic
b)
water moves from hypertonic to hypotonic
11.
What is this image?
a)
cell membrane
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
12.
Homeostasis is....
a)
same as reproduction
b)
maintaining/stability in a cell
c)
making ATP for cell
d)
allowing cells to move
13.
The picture is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
14.
Where is there a low concentration of dye?
a)
at the bottom of cup
b)
in the color
c)
at the top of cup
d)
no concentration gradient
15.
What is diffusion?
a)
when molecules move
b)
when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.
c)
no movement
d)
molecules move everywhere
16.
Two examples of passive transport are
a)
Earth and Sun
b)
Diffusion and Osmosis
c)
Energy and Wind
d)
None of the above
17.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
18.
What a cell needs to transport particles by active transport?
a)
Sun
b)
Wind
c)
Energy
d)
Channels
19.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Equilibrium
20.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
21.
This is the simplest form of passive transport:
a)
osmosis
b)
diffusion
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
endocytosis
22.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
23.
Active Transport requires energy use by the cell.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
True or False: Active transport requires energy.
a)
true
b)
false
25.
The cell membrane is made up of a _____ __________
a)
Lipid Monolayer
b)
Phospholipid Bilayer
c)
Monosacharrides
d)
Phospholipid Disacharides
26.
What is letter A pointing to?
a)
Phospholipid
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Protein
27.
What does letter A represent?
a)
Phospholipid bilayer
b)
Transport protein
c)
Nonpolar Tails
d)
Polar Heads
28.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
There will be no movement of water cells
29.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
30.
How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related, in terms of energy?
a)
The energy captured in photosynthesis is used to power cellular respiration.
b)
The energy transformed in cellular respiration is used to power photosynthesis.
c)
Photosynthesis and respiration perform the same task in terms of energy transformation
d)
Energy is not involved in either photosynthesis or cellular respiration.
31.
The diagram shows the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration and the organelles in which they occur.
Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?
Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?
a)
Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.
b)
Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.
c)
Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.
d)
Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.
32.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
33.
Which of the following are the reactants of photosynthesis?
a)
water and glucose
b)
glucose and carbon dioxide
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
oxygen and water
34.
Which process takes place in the presence of oxygen and produces nearly 20 times as much as ATP as glycolysis alone?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
alcoholic fermentation
35.
Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
36.
Which process do the animals in the food web use to convert energy from food into ATP?
a)
cellular respiration
b)
osmosis
c)
photosynthesis
d)
transcription
37.
What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
a)
oxygen and lactic acid
b)
carbon dioxide and water
c)
glucose and oxygen
d)
water and glucose
38.
What happens during photosynthesis?
a)
Heterotrophs consume ATP.
b)
Heterotrophs produce ATP.
c)
Autotrophs consume carbohydrates.
d)
Autotrophs produce carbohydrates.
39.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
40.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
41.
Which organelle from the plant cell is primarily responsible for converting sunlight to energy?
a)
Mitochonria
b)
Nucleus
c)
Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
42.
Look at the image
What substances and organelle work together to absorb sunlight to perform photosynthesis in this example?
What substances and organelle work together to absorb sunlight to perform photosynthesis in this example?
a)
cell wall and chloroplast
b)
mitochondria and water
c)
vacuole and carbon dioxide
d)
chloroplast and chlorophyll
43.
Which of these substances is an end product of photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
chlorophyll
c)
carotenoids
d)
Glucose
44.
The green pigment that is used to capture sunlight is
a)
chloroplast
b)
ATP
c)
chlorophyll
45.
What kind of sugar is found in DNA?
a)
Glucose
b)
Fructose
c)
Sucrose
d)
Deoxyribose
46.
What are the four bases found in DNA?
a)
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
b)
Uracil, Thymine, Adenine and Guanine
c)
Guanine, Phosphate, Adenine, Thymine
d)
Adenine, Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine
47.
Where is DNA found in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Vacuole
c)
Cell Membrane
d)
Nucleus
48.
Replicate the following strand of DNA:
AATCATGGA
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
49.
Before the cell divides, what process needs to happen?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Protein synthesis
50.
Where does protein synthesis take place?
a)
Ligase
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Codon
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
51.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
52.
Translate the following:
5'-AUGCGCAAA-3'
5'-AUGCGCAAA-3'
a)
Met-Asp-Lys
b)
Met-Arg-Pro
c)
Met-Arg-Lys
d)
Arg-Pro-Lys
53.
What is the name of 3 bases on mRNA called?
a)
gene
b)
triplet
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
54.
What is the function of mRNA?
a)
storage of food
b)
prevents mutations
c)
provides energy
d)
carries genetic message
55.
The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
56.
Transcribe the sequence of DNA
ATTCAGAGG
ATTCAGAGG
a)
ATTCAGAGG
b)
TAAGACTCC
c)
UAAGUCUCC
d)
UACGAUCGG
57.
The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
58.
In DNA which is a correct base pairing?
a)
A with G
b)
G with T
c)
A with U
d)
A with T
59.
After DNA is unzipped in the nucleus, this is the enzyme that binds to a specific section where an mRNA will be synthesized.
a)
RNA Polymerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
60.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
61.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
62.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
63.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
64.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
65.
Which is a difference between DNA and RNA
a)
RNA is double stranded
b)
RNA is not made of nucleotides
c)
RNA contains Uracil instead of Thymine
d)
RNA does not contain a sugar
66.
Which of these enzymes is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds which "unzips" the DNA molecule?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
Primase
c)
Helicase
d)
zippase
67.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
68.
What is the structure of DNA?
a)
A single helix
b)
Nitrogen bases
c)
A double helix
d)
It has no structure
69.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
70.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
71.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
72.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
73.
Nuclear membrane forms around chromosomes and begins to separate.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
74.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
75.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
76.
A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the
a)
nucleolus
b)
deep furrow
c)
centromere
d)
centriole
77.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
78.
the two halves of the doubled chromosome structure
a)
centromeres
b)
sister chromatids
c)
spindle
d)
tissues
79.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
80.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
81.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
82.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome
83.
The cell membrane pinches in, dividing the cytoplasm into 2 cells
a)
Metaphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telephase
d)
Cytokinesis
84.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
85.
The time between cell divisions in the life cycle of the cell is called
a)
anaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
86.
A chromosome is a single, long DNA molecule in a compact formation
a)
True
b)
False
87.
These are the 3 parts of a DNA nucleotide.
a)
base, sugar, histone
b)
base, phosphate, ATP
c)
sugar, histone, glucose
d)
phosphate, sugar, base
88.
The building block(monomer) for DNA is a ____.
a)
nucleic acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
chromatid
d)
chromosome
89.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
90.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
91.
Which statement correctly describes meiosis?
a)
cells divide only once
b)
meiosis does not occur in reproductive cells
c)
the cells produced at the end of meiosis are genetically identical to the parent cell
d)
The cells produced at the end of meiosis contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
92.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
93.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
94.
Based only on the sex chromosomes in typical human egg and sperm cells at fertilization, the probability of producing a female is
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
90%
95.
Body cells of fruit flies contain 8 chromosomes. Scientists used studies of flies to discover how egg and sperm are formed. What did they observe?
a)
Body cell of offspring flies have 16 chromosomes
b)
Sperm cells have 8 chromosomes
c)
Egg cells have 4 chromosomes
d)
Body cells of offspring have 4 chromosomes
96.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather thna from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
97.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
98.
You inherited...
a)
most of your chromosomes from your mother
b)
most of your chromosomes from your father
c)
a random number of chromosomes from each parent
d)
half your chromosomes from your mother and half from your father.
99.
What are chromosomes?
a)
different versions of genes
b)
condensed DNA
c)
uncoiled DNA
100.
How many sperm are produced through the process of meiosis?
a)
Two that are identical.
b)
Two that are unique.
c)
Four that are identical.
d)
Four that are unique.
101.
How many cells are created during Telophase II?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
102.
_____________________ is a process that produces cells with half the chromosomes.
a)
Budding
b)
Fragementation
c)
Regeneration
d)
Meiosis
103.
Adenine always pairs with ________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Thymine
104.
Guanine always pairs with _______.
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Thymine
105.
Sexual Reproduction has how many parents?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
106.
Asexual Reproduction has how many parents?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
107.
products of mitosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
108.
number of divisions in mitosis
a)
1
b)
2
109.
number of divisions in meiosis
a)
1
b)
2
110.
why is mitosis important for life
a)
reproduction
b)
growth and repair
111.
Phase of mitosis following metaophase during which the spindle fiber splits and the centromere and the chromatids move to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
anaphase
b)
telephase
c)
metaphase
d)
prophase
112.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
113.
This picture shows which process?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
the cell cycle
114.
Cells containing two alleles for each trait are described as
a)
haploid
b)
heredity
c)
diploid
d)
homozygous
115.
A dog's phenotype can be determined by ___________
a)
looking at the dog's parents
b)
examining the dog's chromosomes
c)
mating the dog and examining its offspring
d)
looking at the dog
116.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
117.
What phase is shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
118.
This produces sex cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
119.
How many times does meiosis go through P-M-A-T?
a)
5
b)
0
c)
1
d)
2
120.
What term is associated with crossing over?
a)
Dependent assortment
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Independent assortment
121.
What did Gregor Mendel find out from his experiments?
a)
Pea plants only reproduce sexually
b)
There must be two sets of instructions for each characteristic
c)
Each parent gives two sets of genes to the offspring
122.
Genes are found on
a)
sex cells
b)
alleles
c)
chromosomes
d)
ribosomes
123.
What is the definition of phenotype?
a)
An organisms appearance or other detectabe characteristics.
b)
The traits of an organism and how the organism grows
c)
Dominant and reccessive alleles
d)
The genetic makeup of an organism/ the combo of genes for one or more specific traits
124.
What combines to make either XX or XY?
a)
DNA splits into x's
b)
egg and sperm
c)
meiosis
125.
Are recessive traits shown with capital or lowercase letters?
a)
Capital
b)
Lowercase
126.
An organism's appearance is known as it's....
a)
genotype
b)
allele
c)
gene
d)
phenotype
127.
What are the possible combinations of a pea plant with the alleles PP and a male pea plant with the alleles pp.
P= purple
p= white
P= purple
p= white
a)
all Pp
b)
all PP
c)
Pp,PP,Pp,PP
d)
all pp
128.
The plant will be
a)
purple
b)
white
129.
The mathematical chance that something will happen is known as...
a)
chance
b)
luck
c)
probability
130.
RR and Mm are
a)
phenotypes
b)
genotypes
131.
A recessive trait will only show up if the allele combination has two recessive alleles.
a)
True
b)
False
132.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
133.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
134.
father of genetics
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
James Watson
c)
Dr. Robbins
d)
Francis Crick
135.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
136.
What is the genotypic ratio here
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
137.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
138.
___________________________ is the study of how traits are passed on, or inherited.
a)
dominant traits
b)
ratio
c)
phenotype
d)
genetics
139.
The dominant trait is
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
140.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white. What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
141.
How many pairs of chromosomes are in your cells?
a)
23
b)
19
c)
12
d)
10
142.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
143.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
144.
A heterozygous yellow pea plant's genotype would be:
a)
YY
b)
yy
c)
Yy
d)
Yg
145.
Polygenic means that _____________________ control a characteristic
a)
many genes
b)
single genes
c)
3 genes
d)
no genes
146.
Red/green color blindness is a recessive trait. A woman who is a carrier for this allele marries a normal-vision male. What is the probability that they will have a child who is color blind?
a)
1/4
b)
1/2
c)
3/4
d)
1
147.
An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
a)
recessive allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
hidden allele
d)
present allele
148.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the phenotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
149.
One of a number of different forms of a gene.
a)
gene
b)
gamete
c)
fertilization
d)
allele
150.
The process by which all organisms change slowly over time because of slight gene variations is called
a)
natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
evolution
d)
gene pool
151.
Who observed variations in the characteristics of plants and animals on different islands of the Galapagos?
a)
James Hutton
b)
Charles Lyell
c)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
d)
Charles Darwin
152.
In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called
a)
fossils
b)
adaptations
c)
homologies
d)
vestigial structures
153.
Based on the adaptations Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galapagos, he wondered
a)
if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species
b)
if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species
c)
if all birds on the different islands were finches
d)
why all tortoises on the different islands were identical
154.
Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection?
a)
natural variation found in all populations
b)
unrelated species living in different locations
c)
changes in the inherited characteristics of a population over time
d)
struggle for existence undergone by all iving things
155.
Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
156.
Which process produced the two different types of beaks in the ground finch and the tree finch?
a)
artificial selection
b)
geographical distribution
c)
natural selection
d)
disuse of the beak
157.
If coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have produced the graph below?
a)
disruptive selection
b)
stabilizing selection
c)
directional selection
d)
genetic equilibrium
158.
Natural selection acts directly on ______, not ______. However phenotypes depend on genotypes, so natural selection may affect allele frequencies in gene pool
a)
genotypes, phenotypes
b)
chromosomes, phenotypes
c)
phenotypes, genotypes
d)
alleles, organisms
159.
Favors the middle of the population.
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
160.
The entire curve moves in one direction or the other.
a)
Stabilizing selection
b)
Disruptive selection
c)
Directional selection
161.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
162.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
163.
Which of the following explains how natural selection causes a trait to become predominant in a population?
a)
Individuals with traits that are favorable to the environment reproduce more.
b)
Traits of an individual change in order to adapt to changes in enviornment.
c)
organisms select which traits they wish to inherit
d)
all of these answers
164.
the hind leg bones in a whale are examples of
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossils
d)
vestigals
165.
What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
natural selection
b)
inheritance
c)
artificial selection
d)
descent withOUT modification
166.
Modern whales developed their traits through natural selection. What occurs during the process of natural selection?
a)
Organisms choose mates from other species to create new species
b)
Breeders selectively cross organisms with desired traits
c)
Only the fittest organisms can survive and reproduce
d)
Organisms remain exactly the same over time.
167.
Scientists studied a population of tree ants in a forest. The forest is near a large factory. At first there were many more brown ants than gray ants. The factory was slowly polluting the water, and the tree bark in the forest changed from brown to grey. At the end of the study, there were more gray ants than brown ants. What might explain this?
a)
a. The gray ants killed the brown ants
b)
b. The brown ants were killed by pollution
c)
c. The gray ants were better adapted to the polluted tree bark
d)
d. The scientists did not count the number of gray ants correctly
168.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures. These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
169.
what did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations of the Galapagos Islands off the coast of South America?
a)
different species on different islands
b)
all species on one of the islands
c)
identical species on all the islands
d)
the same species as North America
170.
How would you describe this evolution?
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Structural adaption
d)
Functional adaption
171.
In natural selection, the selective agent is the
a)
humans
b)
mutations
c)
breeders
d)
environment
172.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
173.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
174.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
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