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Dr. Potts EOC Review (Units 1-5)

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 5hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What type of cell has a nucleus? 
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic 
2.

PROKARYOTIC cells do NOT have

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

3.
Chloroplasts are...
a)
A type of pigment used for photosynthesis
b)
The location inside a plant cell where photosynthesis happens
c)
The location where cellular respiration happens
d)
Green beans
4.

I am the "brain" of the cell or the "control center" for everything happening within the cell. I am a...

a)

Golgi Body/Apparatus

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Lysosome

5.

I provide plant cells their rigid shape. I am the...

a)

Basketball that Nic Quarne left in Mr. Woller's room last week

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cell Wall

6.

This is the part of the nucleus where ribosomes are made...

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Chromatin

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Rough ER

7.

This part of a plant cell gives plants their green color and helps gather sunlight for photosynthesis.

a)

Capsule

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Chlroplasts

d)

Chromosomes

8.
Which one of these is NOT one of the characteristics of living things?
a)
All living things eat.
b)
All living things reproduce.
c)
All living things require energy for life processes.
d)
All living things respond to the environment/stimuli.
9.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
10.

Antibiotics can cure...

a)

viral infection

b)

bacterial infections

c)

viral or bacterial infections

d)

anything

11.

Which answer best describes how viruses replicate/reproduce?

a)

They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.

b)

They kill a cell and reproduce inside it

c)

They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material and make copies of the virus

d)

They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things

12.

What is one of the three products of cellular respiration?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

glucose

d)

ATP

13.
Cellular respiration occurs in 
a)
chloroplasts 
b)
mitochondria
c)
golgi aparatus 
d)
thylakoid 
14.
Organisms that make energy from the sun are called..
a)
hetertrophs 
b)
autotrophs 
c)
carbohydrates 
d)
consumer 
15.

What is the equation for photosynthesis?

a)

O2+ H2O → C6H12O6 + CO2

b)

CO2+ Light → C6H12O6 + O2

c)

CO2+ H2O+ light → C6H12O6 + O2

16.

Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are considered to be....

a)

the same equation

b)

opposites of one another

c)

unique in every way

d)

not important at all!

17.

Energy is released from ATP when:

a)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

b)

a phosphate group is broken

c)

adenine bonds to ribose

d)

a phosphate group is added

18.

Fermentation is an anaerobic process for releasing energy from glucose. Anaerobic means it takes place in:

a)

An oxygen-rich environment.

b)

an environment devoid of light

c)

an environment devoid of oxygen

19.

What is the primary goal of Photosynthesis?

a)

To produce energy in the form of light

b)

to produce oxygen

c)

to produce chloroplasts

d)

to produce glucose for the plant

20.

What is the primary purpose of cellular respiration?

a)

to release oxygen from air molecules

b)

To release energy from ATP molecules

c)

To break down glucose and transfer its energy to ATP molecules

d)

To transfer the sun energy into glucose

21.
This is the second step of cellular respiration.
a)
Calvin Cycle
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Glycolysis
22.
Which macromolecule is made of simple and complex sugars?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
23.
DNA and RNA are examples of...
a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
24.

The parts of a nucleotide are:

a)

nitrogen, sulfur, phosphate group

b)

DNA, RNA, ATP

c)

nitrogenous base, ATP, glucose

d)

nitrogenous base, 5-carbon sugar, phosphate group

25.

What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction? (This is what an enzyme is)

a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
26.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
27.
What goes in box 6
a)
AaBB
b)
AABB
c)
aaBB
d)
AAbb
28.

A roan cow shows codominance in fur color (brown and white). What is the phenotype ratio expected in offspring a female roan and a male roan mate together?

a)

All four would be brown and White

b)

Half would be orange, half would be white

c)

2 Brown: 2 Brown and White: 0 White

d)

1 Brown: 2 Brown and White: 1 White

29.

How many daughter cells are made during meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
31.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
32.

What are some advantages of asexual reproduction are: (select all that apply)

a)

it only requires one organism

b)

it takes less energy than sexual reproduction

c)

offspring are already well-adapted for the environment

d)

there is a lot of genetic variety

33.
During natural selection, the organisms with the best adaptations..
a)
survive better in their environment
b)
have higher fitness
c)
pass down their traits more often
d)
All of these are correct
34.

Why does high genetic diversity/variation help populations survive?

a)

high genetic diversity means a bigger population

b)

high genetic diversity means a smaller population

c)

lower chance that some organisms will survive in a changing environment

d)

higher chance that some organisms will survive in a changing environment

35.
change in allele frequency that results from migration of a small population is called?
a)
natural slection
b)
genetic equilibrium
c)
the founder effect
d)
Hardy-Weinberg principle
36.
The American flying squirrel and the flying phalanger of Australia live in similar environments and look very similar. However, they are not closely related. Their resemblance is most likely an example of 
a)
 sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
37.
Like all flowering plants, the snapdragon must be pollinated to reproduce, but its flowers are closed. A bumblebee has just enough weight to open a snapdragon flower by landing on it. This adaptation is an example of 
a)
convergent evolution
b)
coevolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation.
38.
a)
The image shows analogous structures.
b)
The image shows convergent evolution.
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation. 
d)
The image shows organisms that are not closely related.
39.
Five hundred years after the deer had established a flourishing population in the park, a few of them venture back to their original woods and have babies with the deer there.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Mutations
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Gene flow
40.

Similar structures with different purposes found in different species are known as _____

a)

vestigial structures

b)

DNA

c)

homologous structures

d)

the fossil record

41.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
42.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
43.
What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
helium
d)
nitrogen
44.
Where are denitrifying bacteria found?
a)
In the soil
b)
Root nodules
c)
In dead things
d)
In the atmosphere
45.

The population size that the environment can sustain.

a)

Carrying Capacity

b)

Limited resources

c)

Mutation

d)

Polygenic Trait

46.

A type of relationship when one species uses another species as a food source; this usually ends in the death of the organism

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Predation

c)

Competition

d)

Parasitism

47.

Organization of the environment have a specific order. Which shows the correct order?

a)

Organism, community, population, ecosystem, biome, biosphere

b)

Organism, population, biome, ecosystem, population, biosphere

c)

Organism, biome, community, ecosystem, population, bioshpere

d)

Organism, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere

48.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
49.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
50.
A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
 I. inhabiting the same general area
II. individuals belonging to the same species
 III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion
a)
I only
b)
III only
c)
I &11 Only
d)
II &III only
51.
The most common kind of dispersion in nature is
a)
clumped
b)
uniform
c)
random
d)
inderminate
52.

What does the graph represent?

a)

Emigration

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Immigration

d)

Logistic Growth

53.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
54.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
55.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
56.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
57.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

58.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
59.
The different forms of a gene are called
a)
traits
b)
pollinators
c)
alleles
d)
hybrids
60.

What goes in box 15

a)

aabb

b)

AABB

c)

aaBB

d)

AAbb

61.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
62.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

63.

What is the genotype for a pea plant homozygous for round seeds (R), and heterozygous for yellow seeds?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRyy

c)

RRYy

d)

rryy

64.

Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change? (they have the ability to change whenever they want)

a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
65.

All the animals to the right of the salamander would have the common characteristic of...

a)

Fur

b)

Claws or nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Jaws

66.

What is the human most closely related to?

a)

Fish

b)

mouse

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

67.

A bird's wing and a butterfly's wing have the same function, but they have very different structures. These structures are classified as follows:

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryological homologues

68.

Two organisms that are closely related would have

a)

very similar DNA sequence

b)

exactly the same DNA sequences

c)

no proteins in common

d)

completely different DNA sequence

69.

A forest fire ignites and kills many members of a population of rattlesnakes. This is an example of:

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

mutation

70.
 Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in... 
a)
aquatic populations
b)
small populations
c)
terrestrial populations
d)
older populations
71.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
gene pool 
b)
founder effect
c)
bottleneck
d)
mutation
72.
Ten years ago, in a small population of ducks, two sizes of eyes were observed, large and small. Three ducks have large eyes and 7 have small.  2 of the large-eyed ducks are randomly hit by cars and killed. Today, no large-eyed ducks are present in the population.
a)
gene flow
b)
bottleneck
c)
mutation
d)
founders
73.

Mutations are important because they bring about

a)

death of the organism in which they develop

b)

genetic variation needed for a population to evolve

c)

benefits for the individual, not for the population

d)

changes in genotype, but not phenotype

74.

Match the following

a)

Mutation

1.

Change in DNA sequence

b)

Gene Flow

2.

Increases genetic variation

c)

Genetic Drift

3.

Usually decreases genetic variation

d)

Bottle Neck

4.

Population gets smaller (Natural Disaster)

e)

Founders Effect

5.

Starting a new population

75.

Male peacocks have beautiful blue and green plumage. However, this coloration makes them easier for tigers to hunt and kill. Why might they have these colors?

a)

Sexual preference by female peacocks

b)

Peacocks mated with parrots a long time ago

c)

Genetic drift randomly killed off all brown peacocks

d)

There is no reason - it's a horrible mutation with no advantage

76.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
Virus 
b)
Plant Cell 
c)
Bacteria 
d)
Animal Cell 
77.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
78.
A rigid layer that lies outside the cell's  membrane is...
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Cilia
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Flagella
79.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
80.

What molecules are in nucleotides?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Protein

c)

Sugar

d)

lipid

e)

Nitrogenous base

81.

Which molecules make up the "backbone" of DNA and RNA?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Nucleotide base

82.

Thymine will bond with...

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

83.

Adenine can bond with... (CAREFUL!!!)

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

84.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

85.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

86.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

87.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

88.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
89.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
90.
What is the location in the cell for transcription?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria
91.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

92.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

93.

The two broad categories of cell transport are ...........

(select all correct answers)

a)

passive transport

b)

road transport

c)

food transport

d)

active transport

94.
What process occurs when WATER diffuses across a membrane?
a)
endocytosis
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
nuclear fission 
95.
What does “high concentration area” mean?
a)
Spread out
b)
Tightly packed together
c)
Uncrowded
d)
Spacious
96.
Why is diffusion and osmosis important to cells?
a)
It allows them to take in materials without using energy.
b)
It allows them to reproduce.
c)
It allows them to absorb sunlight.
d)
It allows cells to use all energy.
97.
What does selectively-permeable mean?
a)
The cell controls what passes in and out of the cell
b)
Nothing gets through
c)
The cell lets only large substances through
98.
Where is there a low concentration of dye?
a)
at the bottom of cup
b)
in the color
c)
at the top of cup 
d)
no concenteraion gradient
99.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
100.
Solutes move against the concentration gradient, therefore energy is needed. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
101.
Which of the following is not a type of passive transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
102.
In which solution will water move into a cell?
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Equilibrium
103.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
104.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Diffusion
d)
Sodium-Potassium Pump
105.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Diffusion
106.
What type of organelle is used during endocytosis and exocytosis?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Vesicle
d)
Lysosome
107.

Which type of solution has the same solute concentration inside of and outside of the cell?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

108.

The cell shrunk in size, which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

109.

The cell expanded in size to the point of lysing (bursting), which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

110.

The cell shows water moving in and out equally, which means it was placed in a ___ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

111.

Which of the following best describes "genome"?

a)

A section of DNA

b)

A bundle of DNA

c)

Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of genes

d)

All of the genetic material in an organism

112.

Which of the following best describes "restriction enzymes?"

a)

Enzymes that cut DNA

b)

Enzymes that build DNA

c)

Enzymes that dissolve DNA

d)

Enzymes that turn DNA into RNA

113.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following best describes "stem cells?"

a)

A cell without a job

b)

A cell with a specific job in your body

c)

A cell that can turn into ANY type of cell in your body

d)

A cell that has procured a viral infection

114.

Which of the following best describes "gel electrophoresis?"

a)

A tool for separating chunks of DNA

b)

A tool for editing someone's genes

c)

A tool for adding genes from a new species into an organism's DNA

d)

Copying DNA to make an identical organism

115.

Which of the following might scientists use gel electrophoresis for?

a)

Solve crimes

b)

Edit diseased genes

c)

Replace diseased cells

d)

Identify fathers

e)

Determine how related 2 species are

116.

Which of the following best describes "DNA Fingerprinting?"

a)

Means the same thing as "gel electrophoresis"

b)

Used to edit someone's genes

c)

Used to move genes from one organism into another

d)

Used to copy an organism's genome

117.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO's) are:

a)

Organisms whose genes / DNA have been edited

b)

Organisms who have received new stem cells to cure a disease

c)

Organisms whose DNA has been copied

d)

Organisms whose entire genome has been sequenced

118.

Gene therapy is when:

a)

A person's genes are edited

b)

New genes are added to a person's genome

c)

Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the human genome

d)

Stem cells are used to cure a disease

119.

Which of the following best describes "cloning?"

a)

Copying an organism's DNA to make an identical organism

b)

Editing genes to cure a disease / change a trait

c)

Adding genes from one species into another's DNA

d)

Sequencing an organism's entire genome

120.

Which of the following best describes "recombinant DNA?"

a)

DNA that has genes from different organisms

b)

DNA that has been combined with RNA

c)

DNA that is used to make carbohydrates instead of proteins

d)

DNA that has genes that have never been edited

121.

"Five green and speckled frogs, sitting on a speckled log, eat some most delicious bugs."


Which level of organization is this?

a)

Individual

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

122.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor?

a)

Grass

b)

Spider

c)

Turtle

d)

Rock

123.

What type of growth is demonstrated in the graph?

a)

Exponential

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Linear

d)

Negative

124.

Leveling off of the population after the maximum number the environment can support has been reached.

a)

Exponential

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Linear

d)

Negative

125.

Match the following

a)
1.

Predation

b)
2.

Symbiosis

c)
3.

Commensalism

d)
4.

Parasitism

126.
What is the carrying capacity of the graph?
a)
around 500
b)
more than 500
c)
less than 500
d)
around 600
127.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
128.

What will happen if all of the frogs in a population die?

a)

The frogs' predators will decrease and the frogs' prey will increase

b)

The frogs' predators will increase and the frogs' prey will decrease

c)

We better all pray because there isn't anymore frogs.

129.
What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
130.

Two arctic fox are fighting with a polar bear for a sea lion carcass. One fox distracts the bear while the other eats. What type of limiting factor is the polar bear?

a)

Predator-Prey Relationships

b)

Competition

c)

Herbivory Effect

d)

Weather

131.

A group of elephants gets stuck in mud at the edge of the river from a recent mud slide. A lion waits for an elephant to get tired before it attacks. What is the limiting factor to the elephant population?

a)

Predator-Prey Relationships

b)

Natural Disaster

c)

Herbivory Effect

d)

Competition

132.

When resources are not available a population will _____________ in size.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

133.
How is the burning of fossil fuels related to global warming?
a)
Magic
b)
Fuels are hot
c)
Greenhouse effect
d)
Photosynthesis
134.

If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon in the atmosphere would _________.

a)

Stay the same

b)

Increase

c)

Decrease

135.

Which describes the relationship between plants and animals in the carbon cycle?

a)

Plants produce and release oxygen that animals need

b)

Plants produce and release carbon dioxide that animals need

c)

Animals produce and release oxygen that plants need

d)

Animals produce oxygen that plants turn into carbon dioxide

136.

Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring when bacteria convert ammonium to nitrite and then into nitrate?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

137.

Which of these nitrogen cycle processes converts atmospheric nitrogen to a soil form of nitrogen that is usable by plants?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

138.
Organisms that need nitrogen to survive
a)
only plants
b)
only animals
c)
only bacteria
d)
all living organisms
139.
If the atmosphere is 78% N2, why can't we just get our nitrogen by breathing?
a)
We have no mechanism to break the triple bond of nitrogen between the atoms.
b)
Our lungs would be damaged by the N2.
c)
We need Oxygen for cellular respiration.
d)
The legumes take it up first.
140.
After plants and animals contain nitrogen, what puts it back into atmosphere and soil?
a)
decomposition
b)
precipitation
c)
condensation
d)
bacteria
141.
What is the process of combining nitrogen gas with other elements to make nitrogen into usable compounds?
a)
nitrogen composition
b)
ammonia 
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
denitrification
142.
How much of the atmosphere is composed of nitrogen gas?
a)
87%
b)
38%
c)
78%
d)
21%
143.

According to this diagram, plants use nitrogen to make _________________________

a)

bacteria

b)

animals

c)

proteins

d)

decomposers

144.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be

a)

air -> animals -> plants -> bacteria

b)

animals -> air -> bacteria -> plants

c)

bacteria -> air -> plants -> animals

d)

air -> bacteria -> plants -> animals

145.

____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.

a)

Nucleus and cell membrane

b)

Chloroplast and mitochondria

c)

Mitochondria and nucleus

d)

Cell wall and chloroplast

146.

The theory of Endosymbiosis explains

a)

The origin of eukaryotes

b)

How bacteria live

c)

How species develop

d)

Why cells rely on one another

147.
Theory that says eukaryotic cells formed from symbiosis among several different prokaryotes.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Biogenesis Theory
c)
Evolutionary Theory
d)
Endosymbiotic Theory
148.

Which of the following is evidence to support the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is similar to prokaryotic DNA.

b)

Fossil evidence shows that the first forms of life were prokaryotic cells.

c)

All eukaryotic cells have a double-layered membrane composed of phosplipids and proteins.

d)

Prokaryotes have the same number and types of enzymes as eukaryotes.

149.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?

a)

growth and development

b)

ability to maintain homeostasis

c)

ability to talk

d)

ability to reproduce

150.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
151.
Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
152.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
153.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

beneficial only

c)

harmful only

d)

neutral only

154.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

155.

Is this individual male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

156.

Pairs of similar chromosomes are called...

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

157.

Which set of chromosomes represents a female?

a)

XX

b)

XY

158.

Cells that contain 2 sets of chromosomes are called ...

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

159.

How many pairs of autosomes do human cells contain?

a)

22

b)

1

c)

46

160.

How many total chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

23

b)

46

161.

Reorder the phases of mitosis

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

1)
2)
3)
4)
162.

Reorder the phases of meiosis

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

e)

Prophase II

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
163.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
164.
What phase is this?
a)
Interphase II
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
165.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which genes are exchanged

166.

Why is biodiversity important to ecosystems?

a)

It helps populations adapt to ecological changes.

b)

It increases at each level of the food chain.

c)

It provides more abiotic factors for the ecosystem.

167.
Which habitat exhibits the greatest biodiversity?
a)
A habitat with 15 different species with about 300 individuals each
b)
A habitat with 10 different species with about 75 individuals each
c)
A habitat with 4 different species with about 150 individuals each
d)
A habitat with only one species with about 2000 individual
168.

Define genetic diversity

a)

variation of genes within a species or population in a given area

b)

variety of ecosystems in a given area

c)

system made up of all the living and nonliving things in a given area

d)

disturbance in the environment conditions that cause genetic changes to occur in organisms

169.

Which statement best describes an example of low species diversity?

a)

A population of frogs has a wide variety of skin colors

b)

A marsh ecosystem is covered by a single species of cattail bulrushes

c)

A state park includes multiple forest, wetland, and freshwater ecosystems

170.

A ski resort installed a wind turbine  similar to those represented below to  supply some of  its energy needs. This turbine was most likely installed because wind power is:

a)

Renewable and does substantial  damage to the atmosphere.

b)

Renewable and does minimal  damage to the atmosphere.

c)

Nonrenewable and does substantial damage to the atmosphere.

d)

Nonrenewable and does minimal damage to the atmosphere

171.

Salt water is an abundant resource but unusable for irrigation and drinking. As demands on freshwater sources increase, the use of desalination processes to remove salt from ocean water is increasing. A concern of desalinating water is the large amounts of recovered salts that are returned to the ocean. Which of the following describes the most likely impact of desalination on the surrounding ocean environment?

a)

Methane gas would pollute the ocean environment as shoreline organisms begin to die and decay.

b)

Alteration in ocean salt levels would cause loss of species and unbalanced populations in marine food webs.

c)

Nonrenewable resources in the ocean environment would become depleted and upset the ecosystem's balance.

d)

Increased levels of salts and minerals in the ocean would result in overpopulation of marine bivalves due to strengthened shells.

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