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Worksheets

Exam Review

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 3hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the image above, what is the percentage of the offspring has the possibility of inheriting blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

2.

Which of the following are genotypes for blood type B?

a)

IA IA and IA IB

b)

IB IB and ii

c)

IB IB and IB i

d)

IA IB and IA IB

3.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
4.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
5.

The four butterflies represent the F1 generation. Which statement best represents the phenotypes of this generation?

a)

All the butterflies are males

b)

Two of the offspring will not be able to reproduce

c)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross

d)

Two of the butterflies will have mutations

6.

A female that is homozygous recessive (aa) mates with a male that is heterozygous (Aa). Which circle graph shoes the genotype probability of the offspring?

a)

F: 50% aa and 50% Aa

b)

G: 25% aa; 25% AA; 50% Aa

c)

H: 100% Aa

d)

J: 100% aa

7.

Crossing over between nonsitster chromatids during meiosis is significant in heredity. This process most likely leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

Dominant Traits

b)

Number of gametes

c)

Polyploidy

d)

Genetic Variation

8.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring
a)
heredity
b)
genetics
c)
trait
d)
alleles
9.
This trait always shows up in an organism when the allele is present
a)
dominant allele
b)
codominance
c)
probability
d)
recessive allele
10.

An organism that has two different alleles for a trait (hybrid)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

11.

TT,tt,PP,pp,SS,ss are examples of alleles that are?

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

12.
Where, in the eukaryotic cell, is DNA located?
a)
ribosomes
b)
nucleus
c)
E.R.
d)
cytoplasm
13.
The punnett square shows a cross between two flowering plants. One parent has pink flowers (Pp) and the other parent has white flowers (pp). What percentage of pink flowers will you have? 
a)
0
b)
25
c)
50
d)
75
14.
List the following words in order from smallest to biggest. 
a)
cell- nucleus-chromosome-DNA-gene-allele
b)
allele-gene-chromosome-DNA-nucleus-cell
c)
nucleus-cell-chromosome-gene-DNA-allele
d)
allele-gene-DNA-chromosome-nucleus-cell
15.

The letters that represent the different forms of a gene.

a)

Traits

b)

Alleles

c)

Phenotype

16.

Two alleles/letters for one trait that are the same.

a)

Homozygous/ Purebred

b)

Heterozygous/ Hybrid

c)

Recessive

17.
Which describes the type of cross shown in the picture?
a)
co dominance: both homozygous alleles make up the phenotype for the heterozygous
b)
incomplete dominance: both homozygous alleles become a mixture for the heterozygous
c)
Mutation: change in the DNA
d)
Nondisjunction: chromosomes separate incorrectly
18.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
19.
A gene with a mix of alleles (Bb) is considered a _________ gene.
a)
Purebred
b)
Hybrid
c)
Homozygous
d)
Punnett
20.
A gene with two of the same alleles (DD or aa) is considered a __________ gene.
a)
Genotype
b)
Hybrid
c)
Gene
d)
Purebred
21.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

22.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
23.

Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this baby?

a)

Male

b)

Female

24.
You have 23 pairs of these rod shaped structures in your nucleus, what are they?
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Twizzlers 
d)
Gene
25.
The "Father of Genetics"
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Robert Hooke
26.

Where is DNA located?

a)

cell

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytoplasm

27.

What do the letters DNA stand for?

a)

double stranded nucleic acid

b)

dioxide nitrogenous acid

c)

deoxyribonucleic acid

d)

double negative acid

28.

When does DNA replication take place?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

S phase

d)

cell division

29.

What is Chargaff's rule

a)

DNA always has equal numbers of each of the bases

b)

DNA strands are equivalent

c)

DNA in any cell in any organism always has a 1:1 ratio

d)

The adenosine and thymine bases are always equal in quantity, as are guanine and cysteine.

30.

Which 2 scientists took diffraction x-ray photographs of DNA crystals to identify the double helix structure?

a)

James Watson and Frances Crick

b)

George Beadle and Edward Tatum

c)

Linus Pauling and Erwin Chargaff

d)

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins

31.

The three parts of a nucleotide are

a)

phosphate group, nucleotide base, ribose sugar

b)

phosphate group, hydrogen bond, bases

c)

phosphodiester bond, phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar

d)

DNA, chromosome, chromatin

32.

Watson and Crick were the first to suggest that DNA is

a)

a short molecule

b)

a DNA molecule

c)

a double helix

d)

the genetic material

33.

The bases have two different structures, they are

a)

purines and pyrimidines

b)

acids and bases

c)

helix and globular

d)

double and single bonded

34.

What is the role of hydrogen bonds in DNA

a)

Unzips the 2 strands

b)

holds the ribose and phosphate groups together

c)

holds the bases together, joining the 2 strands

d)

holds amino acids together

35.

The role of DNA helicase is to

a)

create complementary nucleotides

b)

unzips strands, breaking H bonds

c)

glues Okazaki fragments together

d)

coil the double helix up into the twisted form

36.

What is the replication fork?

a)

The enzyme responsible for replicating DNA

b)

The junction between the unwound part and the open part of the DNA strand.

c)

origin of replication where DNA is copied

d)

a fork in the DNA that tells it to go left or right.

37.

The role of DNA polymerase is to

a)

open the DNA strands for replication

b)

bind the Okazaki fragments together

c)

tell the RNA primer what to do

d)

add complementary nucleotides

38.

What binds Okazaki fragments together?

a)

ligase

b)

helicase

c)

primerase

d)

polymerase

39.

DNA polymerase only adds nucleotides to the ____________ end of a DNA strand.

a)

3'

b)

5'

c)

replication fork

d)

point of origin

40.

On which strand of DNA are Okazaki fragments formed?

a)

leading

b)

lagging

c)

complementary

d)

deoxyribose

41.

What is meant by base pairing?

a)

Nucleotides pair adenine with guanine and cytosine with thymine

b)

nucleotides pair adenine with cytosine and guanine with thymine

c)

bases pair off as they are removed from the DNA strand

d)

complementary double helixes pair off as bases

42.

What is the base pairing rule?

a)

A-C

T-G

b)

A-G

T-C

c)

A-T

C-T

d)

A-T

C-G

43.

What is the complementary sequence to the DNA strand

5' CGATT 3'

a)

3' GGTAA 5'

b)

3' CGATT 5'

c)

3' AATGC 5'

d)

3' GCTAA 5'

44.

What three things make up a Nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate, Sugar, Base

b)

Phosphate, Protein, Base

c)

Phosphate, Sugar, Lipid

d)

Sugar, Protein, Lipid

45.

When during the Cell Cycle does DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S Phase

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

46.

Who were the two scientists that got credit for discovering the structure of DNA?

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Wilkins & Watson

c)

Wilkins & Crick

d)

Franklin & Crick

47.

What is the structure of DNA called?

a)

Twisted Helix

b)

Repeating Oval

c)

Double Helix

48.

Who took Photo 51?

a)

James Watson

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Francis Crick

d)

Maurice Wilkins

49.

Which enzyme untwists and unzips DNA for replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

50.

Which enzyme adds free nucleotides and proofreads DNA during replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

51.

Which enzyme joins the segments made during replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

52.

Which scientist(s) determined the base pairing rules of DNA ?

a)

Franklin

b)

Watson & Crick

c)

Chargaff

d)

Hooke

53.

Which TWO organic compounds are our chromosomes made up of?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Protein

54.

What do you find at the END of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Telomeres

b)

Centromeres

c)

Spindle Fibers

d)

Centrioles

55.

Process of making mRNA

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

extraction

d)

transcription

56.

Enzymes, which are specialized proteins, help perform the tasks of DNA replication. Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the two strands of DNA so that replication can take place?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

Catalase

d)

Helicase

57.

A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown.

Which is a new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?

a)

methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

b)

methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

c)

methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine

d)

methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

58.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled here.

What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

59.

A student builds a model of a DNA strand.

Which of these models of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student's DNA model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

The arctic fox inhabits northern area of North America. The same arctic fox is shown in the drawing during different times of the year.

What causes this change in the fur color?

a)

the genes for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older

b)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by magic

c)

the arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth

d)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature

61.

What are the three types of DNA mutations?

a)

addition

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

substitution

62.

Which of the following are genetic disorders that can result from mutations in human DNA?

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

flu

c)

phenylketonuria

d)

breast cancer

63.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

Letter A since it is copied from 5' to 3'

b)

Letter A since it is copied from 3' to 5'

c)

Letter B since it is copied from 3' to 5

d)

Letter B since it is copied from 5' to 3'

64.

Which letter in the given picture depicts the okazaki fragments?

a)

A - lagging strand

b)

C - leading strand

c)

B - lagging strand

d)

C - replication fork

65.

The Purines are

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Thymine

66.

What did Rosalind Franklin,Maurice Walkins, James Watson,Francis Crick discover?

a)

DNA is the main component of a gene

b)

DNA is found in cells

c)

DNA consists of a double helix structure

d)

DNA is made up of 4 bases

67.

Who proposed that DNA was not a protein?

a)

Oswald Avery

b)

James Watson

c)

Martha Chase

d)

Harry Styles

68.

Who used paper chromatography to investigate the four nitrogen bases?

a)

Francis Crick

b)

Oswald Avery

c)

Erwin Chargaff

d)

21 Savage

69.

Who used x-rays to figure out the structure of DNA?

a)

Rosalind Franklin

b)

Oswald Avery

c)

A$AP Rocky

d)

Alfred Hershey

70.

Who worked along side Rosalind Franklin?

a)

James Watson

b)

Erwin Chargaff

c)

Oswald Avery

d)

Maurice Walkins

71.

What were Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase responsible for?

a)

Proved that DNA carries genetic information

b)

Discovered the 4 nitrogen bases

c)

Founded Pokemon GO

d)

Discovered that DNA is made up of a double helix

72.

Who utilized the "blender experiment" in their research?

a)

Erwin Chargaff

b)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

c)

Francis Crick

d)

Rosalind Franklin

73.

Who conducted an experiment using pneumocossus bacteria?

a)

James Watson

b)

Oswald Avery

c)

Erwin Chargaff

d)

Travis Scott

74.

Who was NOT a part of the discovering that DNA was structured in a double helix form?

a)

Oswald Avery

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Maurice Walkins

d)

James Watson

75.

What bond holds the two DNA strands together?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

76.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
77.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
78.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
79.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
80.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
81.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
82.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
83.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
84.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
85.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
86.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
87.
What are the base-pairing rules?
a)
A-G & C-T
b)
A-T & C-G
c)
C-T & A-G
d)
A-C & D-C
88.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
89.
Which of the following is a base that is NOT contained in DNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
90.
DNA and RNA are macromolecules in the category of
a)
Proteins
b)
Lipids
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Carbohydrates
91.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
92.

The names of the two molecules above are:

a)

molecule X is a carbohydrate, molecule Y is a nucleic acid

b)

molecule X is a Nucleic Acid, molecule Y is a Nucleic Acid

c)

molecule X and molecule Y are both nucleic acid

d)

molecule X and molecule Y are both carbohydrates

93.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
94.
The 'fathers' of DNA are....
a)
Mendel & Crick
b)
Watson & Crick
c)
Simon & Garfunkel
d)
Watson & Simon
95.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
96.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
97.
There are _________ bonds between Adenine and Thymine and ________ bonds between Guanine and Cytosine . 
a)
Two;Three
b)
Two;Four
c)
Three;Two
d)
Four;Two 
98.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
99.

Specialized Cells have...

a)

All of their genes switched ON

b)

All of their genes switched OFF

c)

Some of their genes switched OFF

d)

I don't know they like can choose?!?!

100.

Which are external factors that influence gene expression?

Select two answers

a)

Mutations

b)

Temperature

c)

Gender

d)

Genetics

e)

Drugs

101.

Processing of eukaryotic mRNA occurs in the

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi

102.

Alternative splicing allows the inclusion/exclusion of exons in the mRNA. Which of the following is not a possibility of alternative splicing?

a)

Selective splicing

b)

Alternative 5' donor site

c)

Alternative 3' acceptor site

d)

Selective intron splicing

e)

Alternative polyadenylation site

103.

Alternative promoters play a role in tissue and cell specificity

a)

True

b)

False

104.

There are two major classes of RNA found in eukaryotes

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Which of the following is the protein-coding RNA?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

miRNA

106.

Which of the following are non-protein coding RNAs

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

miRNA

e)

siRNA

107.

A primer is necessary in RNA and DNA synthesis

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Unlike DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis does not have to copy the entire genome. It only copies what it needs.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

The information on the template strand is read out in the 5' to 3' direction and the synthesizes in the 3' to 5' direction.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

RNA polymerase binds to which part of the DNA?

a)

Operator

b)

Promotor

c)

5' Cap

d)

Primer

111.

In DNA, there is the coding strand as well as the template strand. The mRNA that is being transcribed will be identical to the template strand

a)

True

b)

False

112.

There are three forms of DNA dependant RNA polymerases (I, II, and III). Which of the following is responsible for producing mRNA, lncRNA, miRNA, and snRNA

a)

RNA Polymerase I

b)

RNA Polymerase II

c)

RNA Polymerase III

d)

All of the above can code for these RNA types

113.

In eukaryotic cells, transcriptions and translation occur simultaneously.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

What are the steps of RNA synthesis Select all that apply.

a)

Initiation

b)

Replication

c)

Elongation

d)

Repair

e)

Termination

115.

Which of these most accurately explains the elongation phase?

a)

The RNA molecule begins forming in the 5' to 3' direction antiparallel to the template strand.

b)

The RNA molecule begins forming in the 3' to 5' direction antiparallel to the template strand

c)

The RNA molecule begins forming in the 5' to 3' direction antiparallel to the coding region

d)

The RNA molecule begins forming in the 3' to 5' direction antiparallel to the coding region

116.

Which of the following is the enzyme used in the process of transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

117.

Which of the following describes the process of alternative RNA splicing?

a)

Different mRNA molecules are made from different sections of DNA

b)

Different mRNA molecules are made from cutting out different exons from the same pre-mRNA

c)

Different mRNA molecules are absorbed from the environment for recombination

d)

Different mRNA molecules are absorbed from the mitochondria for translation

118.

Where on the DNA does the enzyme responsible for transcription bind?

a)

Promoter

b)

Enhancer

c)

Polyadenylation sequence

d)

Start codon

119.

Which of the following describes the correct mRNA sequence from the template strand of 5' - CGGTTA - 3'?

a)

5' - GCCAAT - 3'

b)

5' - GCCAAU - 3'

c)

5' - UAACCG - 3'

d)

5' - TAACCG - 3'

120.

Which of the following enhance the binding of the enzyme responsible for transcription?

a)

Transcription factors

b)

TATA box proteins

c)

Inhibitors

d)

Protons

121.

What is gene expression regulation and why is it important in biology?

a)

Gene expression regulation is important in biology because it allows cells to mutate and become cancerous

b)

Gene expression regulation is not important in biology because it only affects non-essential functions

c)

Gene expression regulation is not important in biology because it has no impact on the organism's overall health

d)

Gene expression regulation is important in biology because it allows cells to respond to their environment, differentiate into specific cell types, and maintain proper functioning of the organism.

122.

Describe the process of DNA replication and its significance in biology.

a)

DNA replication only occurs in non-living organisms.

b)

DNA replication is the process of making an identical copy of a DNA molecule. It ensures genetic continuity and allows for the transmission of genetic information from one generation to the next.

c)

DNA replication has no significance in biology and is just a random occurrence.

d)

DNA replication is the process of creating a completely different DNA molecule.

123.

What are the key enzymes involved in DNA replication and what are their functions?

a)

Protein helicase, Protein polymerase, and Protein ligase

b)

ATPase, GTPase, and UTPase

c)

DNA helicase, DNA polymerase, and DNA ligase

d)

RNA helicase, RNA polymerase, and RNA ligase

124.

What is the role of RNA polymerase in the process of transcription?

a)

It repairs damaged DNA strands

b)

It regulates gene expression

c)

It synthesizes RNA from a DNA template.

d)

It converts RNA into DNA

125.
Translation is performed by:
a)
Ribosomes 
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum 
126.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

127.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

128.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

129.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

130.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base is added

to the DNA sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Substitution Mutation

d)

Chromosomal Mutation

131.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

132.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

133.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

134.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation

135.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
136.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
137.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
138.
original chromosome
ABC-DEF
mutated chromosome
AC-DEF
This is a _____________ mutation.
a)
frameshift
b)
point
c)
deletion
139.
original chromosome
ABC-DEF
mutated chromosome
ABBC-DEF
a)
duplication
b)
point
c)
frameshift
140.
original chromosome
ABC-DEF
mutated chromosome
AED-CBF
a)
duplication
b)
translocation
c)
inversion
141.

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Insertion Mutation

142.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base but still forms the same protein?

a)

Nonsense Mutation

b)

Missense Mutation

c)

Inversion Mutation

d)

Silent Mutation

143.

What type of mutation causes a premature stop codon to appear in the amino acid sequence?

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Nonsense Mutation

c)

Missense Mutation

d)

Silent Mutation

144.

What type of mutation is shown in the picture?

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Insertion Mutation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Missense Mutation

145.

What type of mutation is shown in the picture?

a)

Silent Mutation

b)

Insertion Mutation

c)

Missense Mutation

d)

Nonsense Mutation

146.

In molecular cloning, a __________ is used to insert a fragment of DNA into the host cell.

a)

plasmid

b)

DNA fragment

c)

bacterium

d)

virus

147.

In reproductive cloning, the egg cell of one organism is used by removing the __________ nucleus and then combining the __________ nucleus from a cell from a second individual. Once the cell starts to divide, it is placed in a surrogate mother.

a)

DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA

c)

haploid, diploid

d)

diploid, haploid

148.

Organisms that have foreign DNA inserted from a different species are called

a)

transgenic

b)

transmutated

c)

adenoviruses

d)

haploid

149.

What cell organelle carries its own DNA passed down from the mother and is used to trace genealogy?

a)

ribosome

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondria

d)

vesicles

150.

In order to manipulate genetic material, DNA must be extracted from cells. What is the correct order of the process used to manipulate DNA?

a)

enzymes inactivate proteins, buffering compounds break-down cell, alcohol to bring out DNA

b)

gelatinous mass of DNA broken down using buffering compounds, alcohol to remove DNA, enzymes to inactivate proteins

c)

buffering compounds to break-down cell, enzymes to inactivate proteins, alcohol to bring out DNA

d)

none of the choices are correct

151.

The process where an electric current is used to separate nucleic acids based on size and is used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

transgenic manipulation

d)

PCR

152.

The process used to make copies of DNA when not much is available and is often used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

PCR

d)

transgenics

153.

The vector used in genetic engineering is a(n)

a)

bacterium

b)

adenovirus

c)

bacteriophage

d)

transgenic donator

154.

Polymerase Chain Reaction

a)

Is used to make copies of specific regions of DNA

b)

Uses a special form of DNA polymerase and primers to copy DNA

c)

is used in crime scenes and paternity cases to compare DNA samples

d)

All of the choices are correct

e)

some of the choices are correct

155.

The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to

a)

Make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA

b)

Insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids

c)

Incorporate genes into viruses

d)

Make DNA from RNA

156.

A desired DNA segment is inserted into small circular DNA from prokaryotes called a __________ and then is inserted into a bacterial host and the resulting combination is called ____________.

a)

Virus, a eukaryote

b)

Plasmid, a eukaryote

c)

Plasmid, recombinant DNA

d)

Virion, recombinant DNA

157.

Proteins that suppress the transcription of a gene are called

a)

plasmids

b)

vectors

c)

inducers

d)

repressors

158.

The term for when all of the genes needed to synthesize a particular protein are located in the same location on a chromosome.

a)

operon

b)

inducer

c)

vector

d)

repressor

159.

When there is an over abundance of an amino acid present in a cell, a molecule will bind the the operator and RNA synthesis is blocked preventing the production of more of this amino acid. This process is called

a)

RNA synthase

b)

Negative regulation

c)

Positive regulation

d)

TRP operon

160.

This produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gene cloning

c)

DNA ligase

d)

gel electrophoresis

161.

This seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gene cloning

c)

DNA ligase

d)

reverse transcriptase

162.

This cuts DNA molecules at specific locations

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

DNA ligase

c)

polymerase

d)

ATP

163.

Genetically engineered plants

a)

are more difficult to engineer than animals

b)

include a transgenic rice plant that could help prevent vitamin A deficiency

c)

are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method to develop new plants

d)

are banned throughout the world

164.

Bacterial DNA that is often circular or in the shape of a ring is called a:

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Fragment

d)

Recombinant DNA

165.
What does PCR stand for?
a)
Polymerase Chronic Reagent
b)
Principle Chorionic Reliability
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Probably Cannot React
166.
Which of the following best describes the role of primers?
a)
Frame the beginning and end of the target sequence
b)
Copy the DNA 
c)
Cause DNA strands to separate
d)
Heat the sample

167-171.

Answer the questions below after watching the video

167.

Why is gene regulation necessary in human cells?

a)

To ensure that all genes are expressed in every cell

b)

To increase the production of hydrochloric acid in stomach cells

c)

To prevent the expression of unnecessary genes in certain cells

d)

To decrease the overall DNA content in each cell

168.

What is an operon?

a)

A cluster of genes regulated together

b)

A type of enzyme that breaks down lactose

c)

A sequence of DNA that stops gene expression

d)

A protein that enhances gene expression

169.

What role does RNA polymerase play in the operon model?

a)

It acts as a repressor to prevent gene expression

b)

It binds to the promoter to initiate transcription

c)

It breaks down lactose into simpler sugars

d)

It binds to the operator to block gene expression

170.

What happens when lactose is not present in the environment of a bacterium?

a)

The repressor is inactivated, allowing gene expression

b)

RNA polymerase is blocked by the repressor, stopping gene expression

c)

Lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape

d)

The operon is removed from the bacterium's DNA

171.

How does the presence of lactose affect the Lac Operon?

a)

It activates the repressor, which then blocks the operon

b)

It binds to the repressor, preventing it from blocking the operon

c)

It increases the degradation rate of mRNA

d)

It decreases the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter