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UNIT 6 Review AP BIO

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
2.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
3.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
4.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
5.

Epigenetics modulates genetic expression:

a)

differently in each cell in the body.

b)

by altering the genome.

c)

in response to only intracellular processes.

d)

consistently throughout an individual's life.

6.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

7.

Transcription factors are produced by:

a)

coding DNA.

b)

structural genes.

c)

non-coding DNA and structural genes.

d)

non-coding DNA.

8.

A traumatic event experienced by an organism can affect the health of its children and grandchildren. This can happen through inherited:

a)

epigenetic tags.

b)

polypetide chains.

c)

transcription factors.

d)

DNA nucleotide patterns.

9.
Which factor can affect the epigenome?
a)
nutrition
b)
exercise
c)
stress 
d)
all of these factors can affect the epigenome
10.

A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to "turn off" genes:

a)

Operon

b)

Inducer

c)

Promoter

d)

Repressor

e)

Corepressor

11.

A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to "turn off" genes:

a)

Operon

b)

Inducer

c)

Promoter

d)

Repressor

e)

Corepressor

12.

A mutation within the promoter region has occurred. What would potentially happen to transcription rate?

a)

Mutated promoters decrease the rate of transcription.

b)

Mutated promoters increase the rate of transcription.

c)

Mutated promoters can increase or decrease the rate of transcription.

d)

Mutated promoters cease transcription of the adjacent gene.

13.

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

a)

there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

b)

the cyclic AMP levels are low.

c)

there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

d)

the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

e)

the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

14.

Attachment of ______ groups to ______ will cause promotion of gene expression due to looser DNA.

a)

acetyl, DNA

b)

methyl, DNA

c)

acetyl, histones

d)

methyl, histones

15.

The noncoding sequence of DNA located within the promoter where RNA polymerase will bind is called the (a)   .

16.

A type of control element that acts with transcription factors to promote initiation may be perceived as a distal control element. This control element is called a(n):

(a)  

17.

All of the following occur before mature RNA is formed except:

a)

Addition of a poly-A tail

b)

Addition of a 3' cap

c)

Addition of a release factor

d)

Removal of introns

e)

Alternative splicing

18.

The protein that functions in unwinding DNA strands before replication occurs is called:

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Single-strand binding proteins

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

e)

Spliceosome

19.

A type of hereditary pattern exhibited by the coat colors of Labrador retrievers shows a phenotypic ratio of 9:7. This type of pattern is known as:

a)

Polygenetic inheritance

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Codominance

d)

Incomplete dominance

e)

Epistasis

20.

What type of gene control is shown in this image?

a)

processing control

b)

transcriptional control

c)

post translational control

d)

mRNA stability control

21.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
22.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
23.

What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA

b)

to indicate the site of translational termination

c)

to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA

d)

to help protect the mRNA from degradation and exist longer in the cytoplasm

24.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
25.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

26.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

27.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

28.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

intron removal

c)

poly-A tail

d)

TATA box

29.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

30.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
31.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
32.
When a gene does not transcribe unless turned on by activator , it is considered _____ control
a)
positive
b)
negative
33.
Two types of negative control are
a)
repressible & inducible
b)
repressible & active
c)
active & inactive
d)
repressible & corepressible
34.
All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the DNA
b)
enzymes add a methyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
35.
In eukaryotes, a cluster of proteins that assemble on the promoter is called the
a)
transcription initiation complex
b)
control element
c)
activator
d)
protein blobby thing
36.

In the trp operon, __ acts as a __ and helps the repressor bind to the operator.

a)

tryptophan, corepressor

b)

tryptophan, inducer

c)

lactose, corepressor

d)

lactose, inducer

37.

Which of the following are types of post-transcriptional control of genes in eukaryotes?

a)

alternative RNA splicing or processing

b)

gene silencing through RNA interference

c)

destruction of ubiquitin tagged proteins

d)

all of the above

38.

Alternative RNA splicing involves

a)

removing introns and splicing the same exons together

b)

removing exons and splicing the same introns together

c)

removing introns and splicing different exons together

d)

removing exons and splicing different introns together

39.

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the following

mRNA sequence:

AUG GUU AAA CGA CAA UCC

a)

Val, Lys, Phe, Gly, Ser

b)

Met Asp, Phe, Ala, Arg

c)

Met, Val, Lys, Arg, Gln, Ser

d)

Ile, Gln, Lys, Asp, Gln, Ser

40.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
41.

In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?

a)

Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.

b)

Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.

42.

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.

Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

a)

12%

b)

24%

c)

31%

d)

38%

43.

Based your answer on the figure: A mutation results in a defective enzyme A. Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?

a)

an accumulation of A and no production of B and C

b)

an accumulation of A and B and no production of C

44.

RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?

a)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the template strand

b)

3ʹ → 5ʹ along the coding (sense) strand

45.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

a base insertion only.

b)

either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

c)

a base deletion only.

46.

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the Figure?

a)

ligase

b)

a restriction enzyme

47.

The segment of DNA shown in the figure has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?

a)
b)
48.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
49.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation