WorksheetsModule 4 PCOL Violet 1-100
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.
a)
A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction
b)
B. Block alpha and beta receptor
c)
C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach in the neuromuscular junction
d)
D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
e)
E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response
2.
The following are factors that affect the absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal(GI) track except.
a)
A. Surface area of absorption
b)
B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
c)
C. Physical state of the drug
d)
D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
e)
Protein binding
3.
Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
a)
A. Desensitization
b)
B. UP-regulation
c)
C. Down-regulation
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. A and C
4.
Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the binding sites of the receptor.
a)
A. Competitive antagonist
b)
B. Full agonist
c)
C. Non-competitive antagonist
d)
D. Partial antagonist
e)
E. Partial agonist
5.
This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
a)
A. Competitive antagonist
b)
B. Full agonist
c)
C. Non-competitive antagonist
d)
D. Partial antagonist
e)
E. Partial agonist
6.
In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigator are not.
a)
A. Double blind study
b)
B. Single blind study
c)
C. Masking
d)
D. Open-label
e)
E. Un-blinded study
7.
The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
a)
A. Norepinephrine
b)
B. Noradrenaline
c)
C. Acetylcholine
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. A and C
8.
The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
a)
A. Acetylcholinesterase
b)
B. Botulinum toxin
c)
C. Reserpine
d)
D. Me tyrosine
e)
E. Guanethidine
9.
All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine EXCEPT:
a)
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
b)
B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
c)
C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
d)
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
e)
E. Monoamine oxidase
10.
Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines
a)
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
b)
B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
c)
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
d)
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
e)
E. COMT
11.
All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor EXCEPT:
a)
A. Bronchoconstriction
b)
B. Uterine Relaxation
c)
C. Glycogenolysis
d)
D. Gluconeogenesis
e)
E. Bronchodilation
12.
All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
a)
A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
b)
B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
c)
C. Increase contractive force of the heart
d)
D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
e)
E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction
13.
Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the cardiovascular system?
a)
A. Vasoconstriction
b)
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
c)
C. Positive chronotropic effect
d)
D. Positive dromotropic effect
e)
E. Positive inotropic effect
14.
All of the following are naturally occurring chromonematic Alkaid EXCEPT:
a)
A. Pilocarpine
b)
B. Muscarine
c)
C. Acetylcholine
d)
D. Arecoline
e)
E. None of these
15.
Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs? I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland III. Bronchoconstriction IV. Tachycardia
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. I, II and III
d)
D. I and IV
e)
E. I, II, III and IV
16.
Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCETP:
a)
A. Asthma
b)
B. Hypothyroidism
c)
C. Coronary insufficiency
d)
D. Acid-peptic disease
e)
E. Hypertension
17.
Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4% solution.
a)
A. Epinephrine
b)
B. Eye-mo
c)
C. Pilocarpine
d)
D. Bethanecole
e)
E. Atropine
18.
Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hrs) exposure to severe motion also available as transdermal patch.
a)
A. Atropine
b)
B. Scopolamine
c)
C. Ipratropium
d)
D. Tiotropium
e)
E. Varenicline
19.
Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? I. Pilocarpine II. Edrophonium III. Tacrine IV. Atropine
a)
A. I only
b)
B. I and II
c)
C. II and III
d)
D. I, II and III
e)
E. IV only
20.
Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
a)
A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
b)
B. Stimulation followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle
c)
C. Stimulation with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the CNS
d)
D. All of these
e)
E. None of these
21.
Intoxication with an organophosphorus anti-cholinesterase agent can be treated with:
a)
A. Atropine
b)
B. Pralidoxime
c)
C. Malathion
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. B and C
22.
This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
a)
A. Edrophonium
b)
B. Atropine
c)
C. Neostigmine
d)
D. Pralidoxime
e)
E. Acetylcholine
23.
All are standard anti-cholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis EXCPT:
a)
A. Pyridostigmine
b)
B. Neostigmine
c)
C. Atropine
d)
D. Ambenonium
e)
E. Edrophonium
24.
Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
a)
A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an effect
b)
B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate adrenergic receptors
c)
C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. B and C
25.
Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neutransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement.
a)
A. Dopamine
b)
B. Serotonin
c)
C. Oxytocin
d)
D. Norepinephrine
e)
E. Noradrenaline
26.
These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)’
a)
A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
b)
B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
c)
C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
d)
D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
e)
E. Non-selective beta agonist
27.
Potent non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors
a)
A. Ipratropium
b)
B. Terbutaline
c)
C. Isoproterenol
d)
D. Prazosin
e)
E. Phenylephrine
28.
This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short term treatment of cardiac decomperisation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infraction.
a)
A. Dobutamine
b)
B. Isoproterenol
c)
C. Metaproterenol
d)
D. Albuterol
e)
E. Isoetharine
29.
Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.
a)
A. Terbutaline
b)
B. Ritodrine
c)
C. Oxytocin
d)
D. Prazosin
e)
E. Salmeterol
30.
Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems.
a)
A. Coma
b)
B. Shock
c)
C. Arrhythmia
d)
D. Heart Failure
e)
E. Kidney Failure
31.
Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominent effects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.
a)
A. Methamphetamine
b)
B. Ephedrine
c)
C. Clonidine
d)
D. Methylphenidate
e)
E. Phenobarbital
32.
Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.
a)
A. Phenoxybenzamine
b)
B. Prazosin
c)
C. Yohimbine
d)
D. Nadolol
e)
E. Metoprolol
33.
Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.
a)
A. Phenoxybenzamine
b)
B. Prazosin
c)
C. Yohimbine
d)
D. Nadolol
e)
E. Metoprolol
34.
Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secretes enormous quantities of catecholamines.
a)
A. Phenoxybenzamine
b)
B. Epinephrine
c)
C. Metoprolol
d)
D. Dopamine
e)
E. Isoxuprine
35.
Which of the following is NOT correct?
a)
A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
b)
B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
c)
C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
d)
D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
e)
E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis
36.
Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a)
A. Stimulation of renin secretion
b)
B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
c)
C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
d)
D. Uterine muscle contraction
e)
E. Skeletal muscle relaxation
37.
Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?
a)
A. Lipolysis
b)
B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
c)
C. Bronchodilation
d)
D. Tachycardia
e)
E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction
38.
Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?
a)
A. Zolpidem
b)
B. Flurazepam
c)
C. Secobarbital
d)
D. Ramelteon
e)
E. Buspirone
39.
Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
a)
A. Phenobarbital
b)
B. Zolpidem
c)
C. Flurazepam
d)
D. Secobarbital
e)
E. Ramelteon
40.
Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?
a)
A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings
b)
B. Directly activating the chloride channel
c)
C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events.
d)
D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
e)
E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor.
41.
The usual cause of adverse effect/death due to overdose of hypnoticis due to:
a)
A. Depression of the CNS
b)
B. Heart attack
c)
C. Hypothemia
d)
D. Cerebral edema
e)
E. Status epilepticus
42.
Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels? I. Phenytoin II. Carbamazepine III. Vigabatrin IV. Gabapentin
a)
A. I only
b)
B. I and II
c)
C. II and IV
d)
D. IV only
43.
Mechanism of action of Phenytoin?
a)
A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated Na channel
b)
B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the opening of the Cl-channel
c)
C. It effects on the Ca currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current
d)
D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA
e)
E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca channels presynaptically
44.
The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
a)
A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
b)
B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
c)
C. The loss of the GABAergic cells
d)
D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons
e)
E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS
45.
Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?
a)
A. Phenytoin
b)
B. Selegeline
c)
C. Haloperidol
d)
D. Fluoxetine
e)
E. Aspirin
46.
The mechanism of action of carbidopa is:
a)
A. Stimulating the synthesis release, Or reuptake of dopamine
b)
B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
c)
C. Stimulating dopamine receptors
d)
D. Inhibition of COMT
e)
E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
47.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
b)
B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
c)
C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin, MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
d)
D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
e)
E. MAO-A metabolizes metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine
48.
A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism:
a)
A. Carbidopa
b)
B. Clozapine
c)
C. Tolcapone
d)
D. Rasagiline
e)
E. Selegiline
49.
Mu receptors are associated with:
a)
A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia sedation respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
b)
B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence
c)
C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation
d)
D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
e)
E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation
50.
Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
a)
A. Morphine
b)
B. Pentazocine
c)
C. Buprenorphine
d)
D. Naloxone
e)
E. Propoxyphene
51.
Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
a)
A. Meperidine
b)
B. Buprenorphine
c)
C. Naloxone
d)
D. Butorphanol
e)
E. Morphine
52.
The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
a)
A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
b)
B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
c)
C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal crampd
d)
D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
e)
E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination
53.
Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?
a)
A. Phenylbutazone
b)
B. Ketamine
c)
C. Aspirin
d)
D. Tramadol
e)
E. Diclofenac
54.
Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except:
a)
A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
b)
B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric and duodenal ulcers
c)
C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
d)
D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
e)
E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated with a lower incidence of colon cancer
55.
A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, it also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes
a)
A. Fenofibrates
b)
B. Colestipol
c)
C. Ezetimibe
d)
D. Aton statin
e)
E. Niacin
56.
A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity.
a)
A. Dypiridamine
b)
B. Abciximab
c)
C. Clostazol
d)
D. Anistreplase
e)
E. Streptokinase
57.
The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance(PVR) and cardiac output(CO).
a)
A. Hypertension
b)
B. Blood Pressure
c)
C. Hypotension
d)
D. Vascular pressure
e)
E. Afterload
58.
Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH).
a)
A. High intake of fruits
b)
B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat and total fat
c)
C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium
d)
D. High intake of vegetables
e)
E. All of these
59.
Recommend Blood Pressure targets for patient with heart failure
a)
A. <150 / <90
b)
B. <140 / <90
c)
C. <140 / <80
d)
D. <160 / <90
e)
E. <130 / <80
60.
Increase the excretion of Na, CI and H20 by inhibiting Na/Cr ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule:
a)
A. Thiazide diuretics
b)
B. Loop diuretic
c)
C. Potassium Sparring diuretics
d)
D. Aldosterone Antagonists
e)
E. Osmotic diuretics
61.
Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance.
a)
A. Furosemide
b)
B. Amiloride
c)
C. Metoprolol
d)
D. Captopril
e)
E. Losartan
62.
Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure
a)
A. Furosemide
b)
B. Amiloride
c)
C. Metoprolol
d)
D. Captopril
e)
E. Losartan
63.
Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity
a)
A. Furosemide
b)
B. Amiloride
c)
C. Metoprolol
d)
D. Captopril
e)
E. Losartan
64.
A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron, Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders.
a)
A. Hemochromatosis
b)
B. Megaloblastic anemia
c)
C. Microcytic anemia
d)
D. Neutropenia
e)
E. Pernicious anemia
65.
A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally large results from either folate or vitamin B deficiency
a)
A. Hemochromatosis
b)
B. Megaloblastic anemia
c)
C. Microcytic anemia
d)
D. Neutropenia
e)
E. Pernicious anemia
66.
A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally small often caused by iron deficiency
a)
A. Hemochromatosis
b)
B. Megaloblastic anemia
c)
C. Microcytic anemia
d)
D. Neutropenia
e)
E. Pernicious anemia
67.
An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood patients with this condition are susceptible to serious infection
a)
A. Hemochromatosis
b)
B. Megaloblastic anemia
c)
C. Microcytic anemia
d)
D. Neutropenia
e)
E. Pernicious anemia
68.
A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B
a)
A. Hemochromatosis
b)
B. Megaloblastic anemia
c)
C. Microcytic anemia
d)
D. Neutropenia
e)
E. Pernicious anemia
69.
Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and myoglobin
a)
A. Deferoxamine
b)
B. Vitamin B12
c)
C. Folic Acid
d)
D. Ferrous sulfate
e)
E. Filgrastim
70.
Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia
a)
A. Deferoxamine
b)
B. Vitamin B12
c)
C. Folic acid
d)
D. Ferrous sulfate’
e)
E. Filgrastim
71.
An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins
a)
A. Antithrombin III
b)
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
c)
C. Clotting cascade
d)
D. Prothrombin
e)
E. A and B
72.
A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin.
a)
A. Antithrombin III
b)
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
c)
C. Clotting cascade
d)
D. Prothrombin
e)
E. A and C
73.
Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors: prolonged when drug effect is adequate
a)
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
b)
B. Clotting cascade
c)
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
d)
D. Platelets test
e)
E. Coagulase test
74.
Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, prolonged when drug effect is adequate
a)
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
b)
B. Clotting cascade
c)
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
d)
D. Platelet test
e)
E. Coagulase test
75.
Which of the following are classified as thrombolytic agents? I. Streptokinase II. Warfarin III. T-PA derivatives IV. Heparins
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. I and III
d)
D. II and IV
e)
E. IV only
76.
What is the bactericidal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in water?
a)
A. 60 – 90%
b)
B. 30 – 50%
c)
C. 70 – 99%
d)
D. 80 – 100%
e)
E. 10 – 20%
77.
It is a destruction of marked reduction in number of activity of microorganisms.
a)
A. Antisepsis
b)
B. Decontamination
c)
C. Disinfection
d)
D. Sterilization
e)
E. Pasteurization
78.
It contains 2% Iodine and 2.4% NaI in alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for intact skin
a)
A. Iodophors
b)
B. Povidone iodine
c)
C. Tincture of Iodine USP
d)
D. Iodine solution
e)
E. Both A and B
79.
A phenolic disinfectant that cause cerebral edema and convulsions in premature infants.
a)
A. O-phenyl phenol
b)
B. P-Amylphenol
c)
C. O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol
d)
D. Heptachlorophene
e)
E. Hexachlorophene
80.
The following has an excellent efficacy on infection caused by pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia except:
a)
A. Penicillin
b)
B. Dapsone
c)
C. Atrovaquone
d)
D. Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
e)
E. None of these
81.
First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by west African trypanosomiasis
a)
A. Pentamidine
b)
B. Melarsoprol
c)
C. Metronidazole
d)
D. Iodoquinol
e)
E. Tetracycline
82.
It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a side effect of alopecia and myelosuppression
a)
A. Irinotecan
b)
B. Etoposide
c)
C. Paclitaxel
d)
D. Vinblastine
e)
E. Vincristine
83.
The FDA approved a novel, oral and highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic melanoma. What drug is this?
a)
A. Lomustine
b)
B. Camustine
c)
C. Cyclophosphamide
d)
D. Vemurafenib
e)
E. Etoposide
84.
It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Steptomyces tsukabaensis
a)
A. Cyclosporine
b)
B. Tacrolimus
c)
C. Temsirolimus
d)
D. Cycloserine
e)
E. Sirolimus
85.
What class of Gastrointestinal drugs are most effective agents for the treatment of non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and extra-esophageal manifestation of reflux dieseas?
a)
A. NSADID
b)
B. H2 receptor antagonist
c)
C. Proton Pump inhibitor
d)
D. Prostaglandin analogs
e)
E. H1 receptor antagonist
86.
The following are common preparation of natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except
a)
A. Psylium
b)
B. Methyicellulose
c)
C. Polycarbophil
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. None of these
87.
It is the most commonly used osmotic laxative and should not be used for prolonged periods for patient with renal insufficiency due to the risk of hypermagnesemia
a)
A. Magnesium hydroxide
b)
B. Milk of Magnesia
c)
C. Furosemide
d)
D. A and B
e)
E. Mannitol
88.
It is effective in reducing noctumal acid but is less effective against stimulated secretion
a)
A. H2 receptor antagonist
b)
B. PPI
c)
C. Sucralfate
d)
D. Laxative
e)
E. Diuretic
89.
Ondansetron and Granisetron bloc which receptor site?
a)
A. 5HT3
b)
B. 5HT1A
c)
C. 5HT10
d)
D. 5HT1C
e)
E. 5HT4
90.
These are example of amides: I. Lidocaine II. Bupivacaine III. Cocaine IV. Prilocaine
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. I, II and III
c)
C. I, II and IV
d)
D. II, III and IV
e)
E. I, II, III and IV
91.
High Plasma concentration of local anesthetics result from rapid absorption, thus causing: I. Sedation II. Light headedness III.Auditory disturbances IV. Restlessness
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. I, II and III
c)
C. I, II and IV
d)
D. I and IV
e)
E. I, II, III and IV
92.
Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor include: I. Venlafaxine II. Sertraline III. Duloxetine IV. Citalopram
a)
A. I only
b)
B. I, II and III
c)
C. I, II and IV
d)
D. I and III
e)
E. II and III
93.
1. Which pair is mismatch? i. Butyrophenone – Haloperidol ii. Atypical antipsychotics – Clozapine iii. Thioxanthene – Thiothixene iv. Phenothiazine – Chlorpromazine
a)
A. I only
b)
B. II only
c)
C. III only
d)
D. IV only
e)
E. None of these
94.
Which of the following is NOT true about opioids?i. Opioids analgesics may prolong labor ii. Opioids contract biliary smooth muscle iii. Opioids analgesics stimulates release of ADH, Prolactin and Somatropin iv. Opioids causes mydriasis
a)
A. I, II, III and IV
b)
B. IV only
c)
C. III only
d)
D. I only
e)
E. II only
95.
Which of the following is mismatch? i. Factor I – Fibrinogen ii. Factor XII – Fibrin-Stabilizing factor iii. Factor XI – Prothrombin
a)
A. III only
b)
B. I and II
c)
C. II, III
d)
D. I, II, III
96.
The deficiency of factor IX can cause hemophilia B and Christmas Disease. Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas Disease.
a)
A. Only the 1st statement is correct
b)
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct
c)
C. Both statements are correct
d)
D. Both statement are wrong
97.
The following are non-selective COX inhibitor EXCEPT: i. Diclofenac ii. Celecoxib iii. Meloxicam iv. Ibuprofen
a)
A. I and II
b)
B. II and III
c)
C. III and IV
d)
D. I and IV
e)
E. IV only
98.
It is a peptide antibiotic and is considered as a non-biologic DMARD
a)
A. Cycloserine
b)
B. Cyclosporine
c)
C. Chloroquine
d)
D. Abatacept
e)
E. Azathioprine
99.
It is the active metabolite of phenacetin i. Acetaminophen ii. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol iii. N-acetylcysteine iv. ASA
a)
A. IV only
b)
B. I only
c)
C. I and II
d)
D. III only
e)
E. I, II, III and IV
100.
It is the most form of hyperthyroidism
a)
A. Myxedema coma
b)
B. Subacute thyroiditis
c)
C. Ophthalmopathy
d)
D. Grave’s disease
e)
E. None of these
100 %
