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PRELIM BB

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male donor:

a)

12.0 g/dL

b)

12.5 g/dL

c)

13.5 g/dL

d)

15.0 g/dL

2.

A cause of permanent deferral on blood donation is:

a)

History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

b)

Residence in an endemic malaria region

c)

Diabetes

d)

History of jaundice of uncertain cause

3.

Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

a)

32-year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously

b)

19-year old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his medication 9 months previously

c)

45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and still taking antibiotics.

d)

22-year old college student who has a temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) and state that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

4.

Which one of the following constitute permanent rejection status of a donor?

a)

2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

b)

Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

c)

A tattoo 5 moths previously

d)

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

5.

According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

a)

Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

b)

Traveled to an endemic area for malaria 9 moths previously

c)

Spontaneous abortion 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

d)

Resides with a known hepatitis B patient

6.

Prior to blood donation the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a solution containing

a)

Sodium Hypochlorite

b)

10% Bleach

c)

Isopropyl alcohol

d)

PVP iodine complex

7.

All donor blood testing must include

a)

Serological test for syphilis

b)

Direct antiglobulin test

c)

Anti-CMV testing

d)

Complete Rh phenotyping

8.

Rejuvenation of a unit red blood cells is a method used to:

a)

Remove antibody attached to RBCs

b)

Inactivate viruses and bacteria

c)

Restore 2, 3 DPG and ATP normal levels

d)

Filter blood clots and other debris

9.

The loss of ATP leads to:

a)

An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability

b)

An increase in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability

c)

A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and a loss of membrane deformability

d)

A decrease in phosphorylation of spectrin and an increase of membrane deformability

10.

The majority of normal adult hemoglobin consists of:

a)

Two alpha chains and two beta chains

b)

Two alpha chains and two gamma chains

c)

Two alpha chains and two delta chains

d)

Four beta chains

11.

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means:

a)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to anincrease in 2,3-DPG

b)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG

c)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to adecrease in 2,3-DPG

d)

Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases owing to anincrease in 2,3-DPG

12.

Which of the following anticoagulant-preservatives provide a storage time of 21 days at 1–6C for units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added?

a)

ACD

b)

CP2D

c)

CPD

d)

All of the above

13.

Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?

a)

21

b)

42

c)

35

d)

7

14.

A unit of whole blood or packed RBCs in an adult should increase the hematocrit level by _____or the hemoglobin level by _________.

a)

3%, 10-15 g/L

b)

3%, 1.0-1.5 g/L

c)

10-15 g/L, 3%

d)

1.0-1.5 g/L, 3%

15.

It binds ionized calcium and serves as an anticoagulant

a)

Adenine

b)

Glucose

c)

Citrate

d)

Oxalate

16.

How frequent does FDA inspects blood banks?

a)

once a year

b)

twice a year

c)

quarterly

d)

None of the above

17.

This process involve testing if the blood drawn from donor could potentially transmit a disease to recipient

a)

Donor history questionnaire

b)

Physical examination

c)

Donor Screening

d)

Compatibility testing

18.

It Involves withdrawal, processing and reinfusing of blood to the individual simultaneously and does not involve cycles or passes.

a)

Continuous flow centrifugation

b)

Intermittent Flow Centrifugation

c)

Filtration

d)

Filtration and centrifugation

19.

This is used to treat patients who have abnormally elevated platelet counts such as in the case of polycythemia vera.

a)

Neocytopheresis

b)

Leukapheresis

c)

Erythrocytapheresis

d)

Plateletpheresis

20.

Color label which indicates biohazard:

a)

Red

b)

Purple

c)

Gray

d)

Green

21.

Color which may indicate that the blood is not for transfusion.

a)

Gray

b)

Green

c)

Orange

d)

Purple

22.

For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be atleast:

a)

150, 000

b)

200, 000

c)

250, 000

d)

300, 000

23.

The most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:

a)

anti-HBc

b)

anti-HCV

c)

Anti-HAV

d)

HBsAg

24.

The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:

a)

anti-HBc

b)

Anti-HTLV1 and II

c)

ALT

d)

Anti-HIV 1 and II

25.

A common screening method for HIV detection is:

a)

Latex agglutination

b)

Radioimmunoassay

c)

Thin-layer chromatography

d)

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

26.

The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood cells is:

a)

-80 C

b)

-20 C

c)

-12C

d)

4C

27.

What is the minimum pre-transfusion testing requirements for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?

a)

ABO and Rh typing

b)

ABO, Rh type, antidoy screen

c)

ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch

d)

No pre-transfusion is required for autologous donations

28.

These individual defined the fourth group AB.

a)

Landsteiner and Wiener

b)

Descatello and Sturli

c)

Landsteiner and Blundell

d)

Jean Baptiste Dennis and Emmerez

29.

SITUATION: A 53-year-old woman donates blood at her place of employment. She weighs 150 lb and has a hemoglobin of 13 g/dL. She is currently on warfarin and vitamin B12. Is she an acceptable donor?

a)

Yes

b)

No, she is on warfarin

c)

Yes, for red cells only

d)

No, her hemoglobin is too low

30.

Which of the following donors could be accepted for whole-blood donation?

a)

A construction worker who was incarcerated for

opiate abuse

b)

A triathlete with a pulse of 45

c)

A man who is currently taking finasteride (Propecia)

d)

A woman in her 14th week of pregnancy

31.

Type of deferral: People who are taking insulin from cows

a)

3 years

b)

1 year

c)

No deferral

d)

Permanent Deferral

32.

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.

a)

Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not a reason to discontinue a donation

b)

Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer ammonia

c)

Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag

d)

Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to her forehead

33.

Recipient of anthrax vaccine.

a)

No deferral

b)

Permanent deferral

c)

1 month

d)

2 weeks

34.

How much anticoagulant would have to be removed from the collection bag given a donor who weighs 90 lb?

a)

12 mL

b)

15 mL

c)

20 mL

d)

23 mL

35.

Age requirements for autologous donor.

a)

16 years old at least

b)

No age requirements

c)

17 years old to 65 years old atleast

d)

18 years old above

36.

Donors who have ingested/takingAccutane proscar is deferred for ______ starting from the last dose.

a)

Permanently deferred

b)

Not deferred

c)

1 month deferred

d)

1 year deferred

37.

It serves as source of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG) which promotes oxygen release to tissues.

a)

Mannitol

b)

Glucose

c)

Saline

d)

Phosphate

38.

He suggested in 1941 that blood groups shall be made the basis for selection of donors for blood transfusion.

a)

Blundell

b)

Denisse

c)

Hektoen

d)

Landsteiner

39.

Whole blood/RBCs can be stored in CPDA-1 at 1C–6C for how many days?

a)

42 days

b)

35 days

c)

21 days

d)

2 days

40.

Those recipient of rubeola vaccine are deferred for:

a)

1 month

b)

2 weeks

c)

No deferral

d)

1 year

41.

It was considered the principal obstacle for blood transfusion during the early times.

a)

Anti-coagulant

b)

Clotting

c)

Lack of transfusion apparatus

d)

Lack of component separation machine

42.

His work on ABO blood grouping won a Nobel Prize in the 20th Century.

a)

Landsteiner

b)

Wiener

c)

Sturli

d)

Susumu Tonegawa

43.

The pre-donation process consists of three (3) steps or processes which includes all of the following except?

a)

Abbreviated Physical Examination

b)

Donor History Questionnaire

c)

Donor Reaction Assessment

d)

Educational Materials

44.

The 10% of ATP needed by the RBC is provided by the ?

a)

Embden-Meyerhoff pathway

b)

Aerobic Pathway

c)

Anaerobic Pathway

d)

Luebebering Pathway

45.

Which of the following does not match:

a)

Karl Landsteiner-ABO Blood Group

b)

Dr. Charles Drew-RH Blood group

c)

Jean Baptiste Denis-Animal to Animal Transfusion

d)

Coombs-Antiglobulin Testing

46.

He determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts.

a)

Dr. Charles Drew

b)

Coombs

c)

Landois

d)

Rous and Turner.

e)

Lewishon

47.

Which of the following ion is more predominant outside than inside the RBC Cell?

a)

Calcium

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Phosphate

48.

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.

a)

Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

b)

Remove the needle immediately and discontinue the donation

c)

Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

d)

Withdraw the needle and perform a second venipuncture in the other arm

49.

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation?

a)

A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

b)

A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

c)

A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia

d)

A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

50.

Recipients of German measles vaccines are deferred for?

a)

2 weeks

b)

Not deferred

c)

1 month

d)

3 months

51.

Autologous donor who is pregnant should be deferred for?

a)

6 months after post-partum

b)

1 year

c)

3 months after post-partum

d)

6 weeks after post-partum

e)

No deferral unless proven risky to the donor.

52.

The gel technology was discovered by Dr. Yves Lapiere in ______.

a)

1980

b)

1985

c)

1890

d)

1895

53.

Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected?

a)

33 minutes

b)

25 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

13 minutes

54.

In blood banking, the commonly used cryoprotective agent that allows freezing of blood for long-term storage is?

a)

Rejuvesol

b)

Citrate

c)

Glycerol

d)

Mannitol

55.

The three areas of RBC biology that are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival and function are the following except?

a)

RBC metabolism

b)

Hemoglobin structure and function

c)

Normal erythropoietin function

d)

Normal chemical composition and structure of the RBC membrane

56.

Main lipid component of the RBC membrane.

a)

Triglycerides

b)

Lipoproteins

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Phospholipids

57.

The RBC zeta potential is maintained by?

a)

Spectrin

b)

Protein Band 4.1

c)

Ankyrin

d)

Glycophorin A

e)

Glycophorin B

58.

RBC viability/shelf-life?

a)

100 days

b)

120 days

c)

110 days

d)

90 days

59.

Major extracellular anion of the RBC membrane?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Chloride

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

60.

The aerobic/oxidative pathway of RBC metabolism provides reduced glutathione that is important to?

a)

prevent denaturation of hemoglobin

b)

preserve the RBC membrane

c)

promote electrolyte exchange between the ICF and ECF

d)

All of the above

61.

Which hemoglobin determination method is commonly used during blood donation?

a)

POCT

b)

Drabskin Method

c)

Copper Sulfate method

d)

CBC

62.

A specific gravity of 1.053 is equivalent to _______ of hemoglobin.

a)

125 g/L

b)

13.5 g/dL

c)

120 g/L

d)

12.0 g/dL

63.

A 450 unit of whole blood has a standard anticoagulant content of?

a)

70 mL

b)

14 mL

c)

63 mL

d)

60 mL

64.

All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection except:

a)

The hematocrit must be at least 38%

b)

The weight for a female is at least 150 lb

c)

The height for a male is at least 5 ft 1 in.

d)

The deferral period following collection is 16 weeks

65.

Serological testing for whole blood donation utilizes:

a)

Yellow stoppered tubes

b)

EDTA tubes

c)

Red tube

d)

Gray tube

66.

What is the right thing to do if if low volume unit is withdrawn and no adjustment done on the volume of anticoagulant?

a)

Accept the unit

b)

Discard the unit

c)

Use the unit as control for blood bank

d)

Donate the unit to other laboratories to be used for creating known A and B cells to prevent wastage

67.

Recommended storage of platelet.

a)

Room temperature

b)

Body temperature

c)

Ref temperature

d)

Any of the above as long as they follow the recommended storage days

68.

Platelet concentrates are prepared using?

a)

heavy spin followed by soft spin/light spin

b)

Soft spin followed by hard spin

c)

Either of the two

d)

hard spin only

e)

Soft spin only

69.

The ABO Blood Group should be printed in?

a)

white

b)

black

c)

Red

d)

Blue

70.

Can an autologous donor donate blood on Monday, if he is having surgery on Friday?

a)

Yes, he or she can donate up to 72 hours before surgery

b)

No, he or she cannot donate within 7 days of surgery

c)

Yes, he or she can donate, but only a half a unit

d)

No, he or she cannot donate within 5 days of surgery

71.

Blood is collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site and it is re-infused with or without processing via a microaggregate filter to screen out any debris.

a)

Intra-operative Collection

b)

Post-operative Collection

c)

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

d)

Pre-operative Collection

72.

This drug is administered to the donors 12- 24 hours before pheresis to increase the number of circulating granulocytes by pulling them from the marginal pool .

a)

Sedimenting Agent

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Pooling drug

d)

All of the above

73.

A common sedimenting agent used for granulocyte collection which causes red cells to form rouleaux thus following WBCS to be harvested more efficiently.

a)

Glycerol

b)

Mannitol

c)

hydroxyethyl starch

d)

Corticosteroids

74.

Leukapheresis can be used as therapeutic method for all of the following conditions except?

a)

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

b)

Acute Myelogeneous Leukemia

c)

Hairy Cell leukemia

d)

Thalassemia

75.

Common replacement fluids used in therapeutic plasmapheresis are:

a)

NSS

b)

NSA

c)

PPF

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

76.

To remove the offending agent in the plasma causing symptoms in cases of multiple myeloma and waldenstrommacroglobulinemia, which pheresis method should be performed?

a)

Erythrocytapheresis

b)

Leukapheresis

c)

Therapeutic plasmapheresis

d)

Neocytopheresis

77.

Platelet content of a platelet concentrate obtained via plateletpheresis?

a)

3.0x 1011

b)

5.5 x1010

c)

3.0 x 1010

d)

5.5 x1011

78.

1 unit of platelet concentrate obtained via plateletpheresis is equivalent to how many units of platelet obtained from whole blood?

a)

8-10 units

b)

6-8 units

c)

4-6 units

d)

4-8 units

79.

What is the method used to detect the specific malarial species found on donor's blood?

a)

Thin smear

b)

Thick smear

c)

Both

d)

Either of the two

80.

A male cancer patient with a hemoglobin of 6 g/dL was admitted to the hospital with acute abdominal pain. Small bowel resection was indicated, but the attending physician wanted to raise the patient’s hemoglobin to 12 g/dL before surgery. How many units of RBCs would most likely be required to accomplish this?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

8

81.

Which of the following is not a viable method for removing leukocytes from red blood cells?

a)

Pre-storage filtration

b)

Bedside filtration

c)

Post-storage filtration

d)

Buffy coat removal

82.

Four units of packed RBCs were brought to the nurses’ station at 10:20 a.m. Two units were transfused immediately, and 1 unit was transfused at 10:40 a.m. The remaining unit was returned to the blood bank at 11:00 a.m. The units were not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank. What problem (s) is (are) present in this situation?

a)

The only problem is with the returned unit; the 30-minute limit has expired and the unit cannot be used.

b)

The unit should not have been transfused at 10:40 a.m. because the time limit had expired; this unit and the remaining unit should have been returned to the blood bank.

c)

The returned unit may be held for this patient for 48 hours but cannot be used for another patient.

d)

No problems; all actions were performed within the allowable time limits.

83.

Which of the following is acceptable according to AABB standards?

a)

Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within 3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation

b)

Frozen RBCs must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and may be used within 10 year

c)

Irradiated RBCs must be treated within 8 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours

d)

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs must be prepared within 6 hours of collection and transfused within 6 hours of preparation

84.

What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?

a)

FFP

b)

Granulocytes

c)

Cryoprecipitate

d)

RBCs

85.

All of the following statements regarding FFP are true, except:

a)

FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection

b)

After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours

c)

Storage temperature for FFP with a 1-year shelf life is ≤−18°C

d)

When thawed, FFP must be stored between 1°C–6°C

86.

What may be done to RBCs before transfusion to a patient with cold agglutinin disease in order to reduce the possibility of a transfusion reaction?

a)

Irradiate to prevent graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD)

b)

Wash with 0.9% percent saline

c)

Warm to 37°C with a blood warmer

d)

Transport so that temperature is maintained at 20°C–24°C

87.

A unit of packed RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit?

a)

Must be issued within 24 hours

b)

Must be issued within 48 hours

c)

Must be irradiated

d)

Must retain the original expiration date

88.

What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit?

a)

Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered

b)

Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on the release form

c)

Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue

d)

Do not issue the unit

89.

Which of the following component(s) is (are) indicated or appropriate for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies?

a)

Whole blood

b)

Packed RBCs

c)

Washed or deglycerolized RBC

d)

Granulocytes

90.

FFP can be transfused without regard for:

a)

ABO type

b)

Rh type

c)

Antibody in product

d)

All of these options

91.

Which of the following is true regarding granulocyte concentrates?

a)

The product must contain a maximum of 1.0 × 1010 granulocytes

b)

The pH must be 6.0

c)

The product must be crossmatched

d)

The product must be irradiated

92.

What course of action should be taken if a medical laboratory scientist?

a)

Issue the unit

b)

Discard the unit

c)

Change the expiration date; then issue the unit

d)

Note on the irradiation sticker that the unit was irradiated twice and issue

93.

What components(s) may be shipped together with FFP?

a)

Frozen RBCs and cryoprecipitate

b)

Platelets

c)

Packed RBCs and granulocytes

d)

Double red cell

94.

A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If one unit is thawed at 5:00 p.m., when must it be dispersed from the blood bank?

a)

Before 9:00 p.m.

b)

Before 11:00 p.m.

c)

Before 12:00 a.m.

d)

Before 5:00 p.m. the next day

95.

All of the following are true regarding washed RBCs, except:

a)

RBCs are washed with 1–2 L of normal saline

b)

Volume is 180 mL

c)

Shelf life is extended

d)

Leukocytes are removed

96.

All of the following are advantages of using single donor platelets as opposed to random donor platelets, except:

a)

Less preparation time

b)

Less antigen exposure for patients

c)

May be HLA matched

d)

No pooling is required

97.

SITUATION: A cancer patient recently developed a severe infection. The patient’s hemoglobin is 8 g/dL owing to chemotherapy with a drug known to cause bone marrow depression and immunodeficiency. Which blood products are indicated for this patient?

a)

Liquid plasma and cryoprecipitate

b)

Crossmatched platelets and washed RBCs

c)

Factor IX concentrates and FFP

d)

Irradiated RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes

98.

Which of the following is true regarding apheresis platelets?

a)

The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 1011, pH must be ≥6.0

b)

The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 1010, pH must be ≤6.2

c)

The minimum platelet count must be 3.0 × 1011, pH must be ≥6.2

d)

The minimum platelet count must be 5.5 × 1010,

pH must be ≤6.0

99.

A unit of whole blood is collected at 10:00 a.m. and stored at 20°C–24°C. What is the last hour platelet concentrates may be made from this unit?

a)

4:00 p.m

b)

6:00 p.m

c)

7:00 p.m

d)

8:00 p.m

100.

How does irradiation prevent transfusion associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD)?

a)

Gamma rays and x-rays destroy the lymphocytes’ ability to divide

b)

X-rays cause lysis of the lymphocytes

c)

Gamma rays enhance lymphocyte reactivity

d)

Ultraviolet radiation induces apoptosis of lymphocytes