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ICEV- Animal Science- ALL Questions

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which year were the first livestock animals brought over to the New World?

a)

1400s

b)

1500s

c)

1492

d)

1493

e)

1462

2.

The Brahman breed would be an example of ___________ cattle.

a)

Bos taurus

b)

Bos indicus

c)

Humped

d)

Slick

e)

Haired

3.

When animals are being used to pull loads, these animals are commonly referred as __________ animals.

a)

Draft

b)

Strong

c)

Haul

d)

Heavy

e)

Sturdy

4.

Horses evolved from a foot tall, swamp dwelling, four toed, drawn horse, called the __________.

a)

Equus

b)

Merychippus

c)

Oligohippus

d)

Pilohippus

e)

Eophippus

5.

With the use of ______________, breeders are able to prevent injuries to animals as well as control the progeny.

a)

Natural Cover

b)

Embryo Transfer

c)

Artificial Insemination

d)

Embryo Transfer and AI

e)

Natural Cover and AI

6.

CAFO stands for ______________________________.

a)

Careful animal feeding operations

b)

Concise about feeding others

c)

Considerate animal feeding operations

d)

Concentrated animal feeding operations

e)

Caring about feeding others

7.

Originally, fairs and shows were done in order for farmers to _____________

a)

Show their animals

b)

Sell their animals

c)

Breed their animals

d)

Both show their animals and sell their animals

e)

Both show their animals and breed their animals

8.

All leftover fat and meat from the carcasses are referred to as ___________

a)

Waste

b)

Trash

c)

Trim

d)

Extras

9.

Plants which _________ meat are marked by an offensive odor and are often far from people and towns.

a)

Render

b)

Process

c)

Cook

d)

Fabricate

e)

None of the answer choices

10.

Intramuscular fat is more commonly referred to as ____________.

a)

Gristle

b)

Connective Tissue

c)

Marbling

d)

Fat

e)

All of the answer choices

11.

The process of giving birth to an animal is called

a)

Gestation

b)

Partuition

c)

Conception

d)

Fertilization

12.

What should newborn mammals consume immediately after birth?

a)

Water

b)

Feed

c)

Colostrum

d)

Both water and colostrum

13.

A gestation period is the length of time from

a)

Insemination to birth

b)

Insemination to fertilization

c)

Conception to birth

d)

Birth to one year of age

14.

Artificial insemination is the primary breeding method used with

a)

Turkeys

b)

Pigs

c)

Dairy Cows

d)

All of the above

15.

A cow has a gestation period of approximately

a)

283 days

b)

365 days

c)

150 days

d)

147 days

16.

Bos indicus cattle are characterized by

a)

Long ears

b)

Excess dewlap

c)

Humped-neck

d)

All of the above

17.

A castrated bull is called a

a)

Heifer

b)

Steer

c)

Calf

d)

Cow

18.

Cattle have a

a)

Single compartment stomach

b)

2 compartment stomach

c)

3 compartment stomach

d)

4 compartment stomach

19.

Female cattle that have not calved are called

a)

Calves

b)

Cows

c)

Heifers

d)

Bulls

20.

Cattle from feedyards are taken to a processing plant when they reach an average weight of

a)

1,100-1,200 pounds (499-544 kg)

b)

1,500-1,600 pounds (680-726 kg)

c)

700-800 pounds (318-363 kg)

d)

900-1,000 pounds (408-454 kg)

21.

Horses are used for

a)

Recreational riding

b)

Racing

c)

Ranching operations

d)

All of the above

22.

A castrated male horse is called a

a)

Stallion

b)

Gelding

c)

Filly

d)

Colt

23.

An uncastrated male horse, at least four years of age, is called a

a)

Stallion

b)

Gelding

c)

Filly

d)

Colt

24.

The process of a mare giving birth to a foal is called

a)

Birthing

b)

Foaling

c)

Gestation

d)

None of the above

25.

A female horse, at least four years of age, is called a

a)

Colt

b)

Filly

c)

Mare

d)

Gelding

26.

Mohair comes from the A. Kashmir goat

a)

Kashmir goat

b)

Boer goat

c)

Angora goat

d)

Nubian goat

27.

A goat known for its meat production is the

a)

Boer goat

b)

Nubian goat

c)

Angora goat

d)

Kashmir goat

28.

A sheep younger than one year of age is a

a)

Lamb

b)

Ewe

c)

Doe

d)

Yearling

29.

A castrated male goat is a

a)

Buck

b)

Kid

c)

Ram

d)

Wether

30.

Lanolin is produced from which part of the sheep?

a)

Fat from by-products

b)

The skin

c)

The wool

d)

Both A and C

31.

The average litter size for swine is

a)

One to three piglets

b)

Two to five piglets

c)

Six to eight piglets

d)

Nine to 12 piglets

32.

A female pig that has not had a litter of piglets is a

a)

Sow

b)

Barrow

c)

Gilt

d)

Hog

33.

What is the term used when a sow or gilt gives birth to a litter of piglets?

a)

Farrowing

b)

Birthing

c)

Calving

d)

Foaling

34.

A hog’s internal organs closely resemble those of a

a)

Human

b)

Goat

c)

Sheep

d)

Both B & C

35.

Hogs are taken to the processing plant when they reach

a)

Three to four months of age

b)

Four to six months

c)

Nine months of age

d)

One year of age

36.

Poultry refers to bird species such as

a)

Chickens

b)

Turkeys

c)

Ducks and Geese

d)

All of the above

37.

A chicken between the ages of six and eight weeks is a

a)

Pullet

b)

Broiler or fryer

c)

Hen

d)

Chicken

38.

A female chicken that lays eggs is a

a)

Pullet

b)

Hen

c)

Rooster

d)

Capon

39.

The primary by-product from chickens is

a)

Blood

b)

Bones

c)

Variety meats

d)

Feathers

40.

A male chicken, at least eight months of age, is a

a)

Rooster or cock

b)

Capon

c)

Pullet

d)

Broiler or fryer

41.

What is the name of the highest point on most four legged animals?

a)

Distal

b)

Caudal

c)

Cranial

d)

Dorsal

42.

Where is the most common place to put a tag which identifies an animal?

a)

Auricle

b)

Nares

c)

Skin

d)

Vibrissae

43.

Which part of the skin houses the hair follicles?

a)

Keratine

b)

Caudal

c)

Epidermis

d)

Dermis

44.

Keratin is found in which of the following locations?

a)

Hair

b)

Hooves

c)

Feathers

d)

All of the answer choices

45.

Which of the following is NOT an anatomical location term?

a)

Ventral

b)

Caudal

c)

Cranial

d)

Vibrissae

46.

Which of the following terms is also known as vibrissae?

a)

Skin

b)

Tail

c)

Nails

d)

Whiskers

47.

Which of the following refers to the region of the body towards the head?

a)

Cranial

b)

Proximal

c)

Distal

d)

Dorsal

48.

Which of the following is NOT a layer of the skin?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Mesodermis

c)

Dermis

d)

Hypodermis

49.

Which of the following terms is the Latin word for tail?

a)

Distal

b)

Cauda

c)

Venter

d)

Proximus

50.

Which external component can be used for defense?

a)

Bone

b)

Hair

c)

Horns

d)

Dewclaw

51.

Prehension is a term referring to

a)

how an animal gathers food

b)

eating feed or forage

c)

chewing food

d)

digesting food

52.

What is different in the mouth structure of cattle, sheep and goats compared to horses?

a)

there is no difference

b)

horses do not have upper incisors

c)

cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors

d)

attle, sheep and goats do not have a true tongue

53.

What is the horse's organ of prehension?

a)

Lips

b)

Teeth

c)

Hoof

d)

Tail

54.

What is the chicken's organ of prehension?

a)

Tongue

b)

Beak

c)

Crop

d)

Claw

55.

What is a human's organ of prehension?

a)

Mouth

b)

Teeth

c)

Hand

d)

Eye

56.

What is colic?

a)

an enzyme that helps digest food

b)

a digestive disorder

c)

a medication given to ease abdominal pain

d)

an additive included in most animal feed

57.

In horses, most digestive disturbances result from

a)

Underfeeding

b)

Overfeeding grains

c)

Too much water

d)

Overchewing hay

58.

What type of digestive systems do cattle, sheep and goats have?

a)

Single

b)

Prehension

c)

Monogastric

d)

Ruminant

59.

Which of the following animals would have a reticular groove?

a)

Colt

b)

Calf

c)

Lamb

d)

Both colt and lamb

e)

Both calf and lamb

60.

What are two important structures of a horse's digestive system?

a)

Stomach

b)

Reticulum

c)

Proximal colon

d)

Both stomach and proximal colon

e)

Both reticulum and proximal colon

61.

What is the cecum?

a)

A blind sack

b)

A site of microbial digestion

c)

A thin-walled structure

d)

All of the choices

62.

Which of the following terms refers to the rear of an animal?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Dorsal

d)

Ventral

63.

What is the chicken's true stomach?

a)

Gizzard

b)

Proventriculus

c)

Crop

d)

Cloaca

64.

Anterior refers to what part of an animal's body?

a)

Rear

b)

Belly

c)

Head

d)

Back

65.

How many ceca do chickens have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

66.

The cecum is comparable to what human organ?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Pancreas

c)

Liver

d)

Appendix

67.

Hairballs are

a)

Comprised mainly of hair

b)

Undesirable

c)

Found in rumens

d)

All of the answer choices

68.

What is the function of the esophagus in ruminants?

a)

Carry material down

b)

Carry material back up

c)

None of the choices

d)

Both carry material down and back up

69.

Material leaving the reticulum would enter into what structure?

a)

Abomasum

b)

Omasum

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

70.

What causes hairballs?

a)

certain feeds

b)

no one knows

c)

animals are born with them

d)

animals licking themselves

71.

How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

72.

What does mastication mean?

a)

Eating

b)

Chewing

c)

Breathing

d)

Smelling

73.

The teeth of what animal continue to grow throughout its life?

a)

Horse

b)

Cow

c)

PIg

d)

Sheep

74.

If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine or proximal colon

c)

Stomach

d)

Gallbladder

75.

Monogastric animals

a)

Ruminants

b)

Have two stomachs

c)

Have Simple stomachs

d)

Have complex stomachs

76.

What is another term used for proximal colon?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Rumen

d)

Reticulum

77.

What structure aids milk in passing directly from the mouth to the abomasum in pre-ruminants?

a)

Reticular groove

b)

Omasum

c)

Rumen

d)

Cecum

78.

Which of the following is produced by the liver, stored in the gallbladder and secreted into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion?

a)

gizzard

b)

bile

c)

saliva

d)

mucus

79.

Which compartment is the true stomach of a ruminant?

a)

rumen

b)

reticulum

c)

omasum

d)

abomasum

80.

The gizzard is

a)

a highly muscular organ

b)

found in chickens

c)

used to grind feed

d)

all of the above

81.

The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is

a)

Nutrition

b)

Nutrients

c)

Diet

d)

Ration

82.

A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrients to an animal is a

a)

Diet

b)

Feed

c)

Food

d)

Ration

83.

Nutrients consumed by humans in breads and vegetables are

a)

Feed

b)

Foods

c)

Diet

d)

Ration

84.

Food for animals is a

a)

Ration

b)

Diet

c)

Feed

d)

Food

85.

Which of the following is an example of a monogastric?

a)

Steer

b)

Horse

c)

Lamb

d)

Deer

86.

The most important nutrient is

a)

Protein

b)

Water

c)

Fat or oil

d)

Carbohydrates

87.

For every pound of feed consumed by the animal

a)

two to five pounds of water will be consumed

b)

six to nine pounds of water will be consumed

c)

10-14 pounds of water will be consumed

d)

15-18 pounds of water will be consumed

88.

Water can be provided to animals by

a)

Bowl waterers

b)

Automatic waterers

c)

Nipple waterers

d)

All of the above

89.

What is fed to provide amino acids, but generally not used to provide energy?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Fats

d)

Nutrients

90.

Minerals can be divided into

a)

one group

b)

two groups

c)

three groups

d)

four groups

91.

Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are usually fed to provide

a)

Fat

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Oill

92.

The most common and abundant cereal grain is

a)

Wheat

b)

Corn

c)

Rye

d)

Barley

93.

The crude protein content of corn is a. four to six percent b. 8-10 percent c. 14-16 percent d. 17-20 percent

a)

8-10 percent

b)

14-16 percent

c)

four to six percent

d)

17-20 percent

94.

Triticale is a cross between

a)

Rye and wheat

b)

Rye and corn

c)

Wheat and corn

d)

Wheat and barley

95.

The crude protein of grain sorghum is

a)

four to six percent

b)

8-12 percent

c)

13-15 percent

d)

16-20 percent

96.

Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of

a)

Processing

b)

Extrusion

c)

Rations

d)

Diets

97.

The composition of the feed an the manufacturers location

a)

would not be listed anywhere

b)

would be listed on the feed tag

c)

would be listed on the sack

d)

would be listed at the store

98.

Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of feed for

a)

Horses

b)

Cattle

c)

Dogs and cats

d)

Sheep

99.

Processing

a)

improves nutrient availability

b)

is not commonly used for livestock feed

c)

saves time in preparing rations

d)

decreases the nutrient availability

100.

Feed can be provided to the animal through

a)

Feeders

b)

Lick tanks

c)

Range cubes

d)

All of the above

101.

Daily supply of feed or food is a

a)

Diet

b)

Ration

c)

Basic Nutrient

d)

Essential nutrient

102.

Which of the following is an example of a ruminant?

a)

Steer

b)

Horse

c)

Pig

d)

Chicken

103.

The crude protein content of rye is

a)

five to seven percent

b)

12-13 percent

c)

15-17 percent

d)

18-20 percent

104.

The nutrient composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is

a)

Protein

b)

Water

c)

Fat

d)

Carbohydrates

105.

The crude protein content of wheat is

a)

8-10 percent

b)

six to seven percent

c)

13-14 percent

d)

16-18 percent

106.

Dietary essential nutrients would include

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Some amino acids

d)

All of the above

107.

The major source of energy for animals is

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Vitamins

d)

Minerals

108.

Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?

a)

Grain sorghum

b)

Corn

c)

Wheat

d)

Barley

109.

The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is

a)

Grain sorghum

b)

Wheat

c)

Oats

d)

Barley

110.

Genetics is the science of heredity and variation.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Genetics has a much greater effect on animals than their environment.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

When crossbred pea plants are self-pollinated, the offspring show a three short to one tall ratio.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Each parent contributes one gamete or sex cell to each of its offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

All animals have the same number of chromosomes

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Which of the following is essential to cell functions and contains nuclear sap from which chromosomes arise?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Nucleus

c)

Gametes

d)

Allele

116.

Which of the following is a complex solution outside the cell nucleus contained by a cell membrane?

a)

Allele

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Gametes

d)

Chromatin

117.

What is the material found in the nucleus which forms chromosomes?

a)

Chromatine

b)

Nuclear pores

c)

Nuclear envelope

d)

Nuclear lamina

118.

Which of the following is the molecule in which genes are located.?

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Nucleus

119.

Which of the following types of cell division results in two identical daughter nuclei?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Oogenesis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Spermatogenesis

120.

Mitosis is defined as the division of a sex cell and results in four identical daughter cells.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

The letter "G" in G1 and G2 stands for "genetic."

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of cell division?

a)

G1 Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

Meiosis

d)

M Phase

123.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of M phase?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

124.

Which of the following structures forms attachments with the chromosomes during pro-metaphase?

a)

Mitotic apparatus

b)

Centrosome

c)

Gametes

d)

Nucleus

125.

Which of the following is NOT a step when designing a breeding program?

a)

Setting goals

b)

Choosing and weighing traits

c)

Choosing offspring

d)

Devising a strategy for selecting parents

126.

For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable?

a)

Days to 250 and Backfat

b)

Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area

c)

Backfat and Pounds of Lean

d)

Pounds of Lean and Days to 250

127.

Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program?

a)

Grading up

b)

Visual Selection

c)

Pedigree

d)

Expected Progeny Differences

128.

Which of the following is NOT a result of inbreeding?

a)

Surfacing of deleterious gene

b)

increase uniformity

c)

Noticeable improvement of fourth generation

d)

Reduction in performance

129.

Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds?

a)

Grading up

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Linebreeding

130.

What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is?

a)

Inbreeding coefficient

b)

Inbreeding measurement

c)

Inbred ration

d)

Inbreeding results

131.

What is the value of an animal as a parent?

a)

Grading up

b)

Breeding value

c)

Hybrid Vigor

d)

Inbreeding coefficient

132.

Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Linebreeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Grading up

133.

The composite breeding system combines desirable traits of how many breeds of cattle?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Two or more

d)

There is no such thing as a composite breeding system

134.

Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring?

a)

Rotational crossbreeding system

b)

Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system

c)

Static crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

135.

How does the modified static system differ from the static system?

a)

Produces replacement females

b)

Produces replacement males

c)

Produces terminal sires

d)

Produce terminal dams

136.

In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B?

a)

First generation; Breed B

b)

Second generation; Breed A

c)

Third generation; Breed B

d)

Fourth generation; Breed A

137.

In a static crossbreeding system, which of the following is true regarding replacement females?

a)

Purchased or produced in a separate population

b)

Purchased or produced in same operation

c)

Produced in a rotational crossbreeding system

d)

Purchased from a composite breeding system

138.

Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of embryo transfer?

a)

Greater use of genetically superior females

b)

Decreases time and supervision of female herd

c)

Fast way to acquire offspring for progeny testing

d)

Allow females with long gestation periods to meet their genetic material

139.

Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following?

a)

Commercial breeders

b)

Purebred breeders

c)

Inbreeding breeders

d)

Small operations

140.

What is the first step in the process of AI?

a)

Select the bull

b)

Detect when female is in heat

c)

Introduce semen into uterus

d)

Collect semen

141.

Which mating system results in maximum breeding by a superior male?

a)

Pen mating

b)

Stud mating

c)

Hand mating

d)

Embryo transfer

142.

What is the process by which semen from the male is placed in the reproduction tract of the female through methods other than natural service?

a)

Hand mating

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Stud mating

d)

Artificial Insemination

143.

What is the first step in developing a breeding program?

a)

Setting goals

b)

Choosing and weighing traits

c)

Determining measurement

d)

Devising a strategy for selecting parents

144.

What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Impure breeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Multi- breeding

145.

In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased from or produced in a separate environment?

a)

Rotational crossbreeding system

b)

Static crossbreeding system

c)

Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

146.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?

a)

Decrease spread of disease

b)

Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire

c)

Identifies the sire for fertility

d)

Increases the number of sires needed

147.

What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals?

a)

Inbreeding

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Pure breeding

d)

Multi-breeding

148.

Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?

a)

Sire selection

b)

Dam Selection

c)

Selection of both parents is equally important

d)

Selection of parents is not important

149.

If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?

a)

Second generation

b)

Third generation

c)

Fourth generation

d)

Fifth generation

150.

What is hybrid vigor? A. Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

a)

Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

b)

The value of an animal as a parent

c)

The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam

d)

The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

151.

What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry?

a)

Inbreeding and linebreeding

b)

Crossbreeding and inbreeding

c)

Crossbreeding and linebreeding

d)

Half breeding and full breeding

152.

What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent?

a)

Artificial breeding

b)

Stud mating

c)

Pen mating

d)

Hand mating

153.

Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as _____________.

a)

Control Birthing

b)

Ovulation sequence

c)

Selective mating

d)

Estrus synchronization

e)

None of the above

154.

CIDR stands for_____________.

a)

Compound Implant Does Recipient

b)

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release

c)

Controlled Intramuscular Does Release

d)

Compound Implant Drug Recipient

155.

Producers use a _____________ to determine ovulation in sheep and goats

a)

Scalpel

b)

Stethoscore

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Laparoscope

e)

Ultrasound and Laparoscope

156.

Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method in her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Natural selection

d)

Cloning

e)

Embryo Transfer & Natural Selection

157.

When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at ______________.

a)

38°C (100°F)

b)

35°F (2°C)

c)

45°F (7°C)

d)

43°C (109°F)

158.

Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering?

a)

Appearance

b)

Concentration

c)

Morphology

d)

Motility

e)

All of the above

159.

Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Electroejaculation

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

160.

How is artificial insemination performed on horses?

a)

Surgically

b)

Microscopically

c)

Both surgically and microscopically

d)

Vaginally

e)

None of the above

161.

The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called ____________.

a)

Incubation

b)

Electrofusion

c)

Electroporation

d)

Cell manipulation

e)

Hybridoma

162.

Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?

a)

Cloning

b)

Artificial Insemination

c)

Embryo Transfer

d)

All technologies utilize gene banking

e)

None of the above

163.

Which of the following pathogens can NOT reproduce without a host and consists of DNA and RNA?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

164.

Which of the following pathogens lives in soil, air, water and plants?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protozoa

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

165.

Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders?

a)

Respiratory System

b)

Integumentary System

c)

Immune System

d)

Endocrine System

166.

Which of the following systems pumps and delivers blood to organs throughout the body?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

167.

What is the average respiration rate for swine?

a)

10 to 30

b)

8 to 13

c)

12 to 20

d)

8 to 20

168.

Which of the following diseases is also known as gastritis?

a)

Hardware disease

b)

White muscle disease

c)

Milk fever

d)

Lactic acidosis

169.

Which of the following is also known as hypocalcemia?

a)

Lactic acidosis

b)

Colic

c)

Milk Fever

d)

Overeating Disease

170.

Which of the following is the general term used for abdominal pain?

a)

Colic

b)

Milk Fever

c)

White Muscle Disease

d)

Enterotoxemia

171.

Which of the following is a serious and often fatal metabolic disorder caused by low levels of magnesium in the blood?

a)

Colic

b)

Grass Tetany

c)

Milk Fever

d)

Bloat

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