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Worksheets

Physical Science Master

Total questions: 218

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which particle is located in the cloud region of the atom?

a)

electron

b)

neutron

c)

nucleus

d)

proton

2.

Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?

a)

electron

b)

neutron

c)

nucleus

d)

proton

3.

According to the table, which alkaline Earth metal has a mass number greater than 100?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Calcium

c)

Strontium

d)

Barium

4.

According to the table, which element has the LOWEST atomic number?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Calcium

c)

Strontium

d)

Barium

5.

Which element is represented by this Bohr model?

a)

lithium (Li)

b)

neon (Ne)

c)

oxygen (O)

d)

sodium (Na)

6.

The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the mass number minus the atomic number. According to this definition and the table, how many neutrons are in the nucleus of a strontium atom?

a)

20

b)

38

c)

81

d)

50

7.

A(n) ______ is matter that is composed of one type of atom.

a)

compound

b)

mixture

c)

element

d)

molecule

8.

The smallest piece of an element that still retains the properties of the element is a(n) ______.

a)

atom

b)

molecule

c)

compound

d)

plasma

9.

The nucleus of an atom is ______ charged.

a)

positively

b)

liquid

c)

variably

d)

none of these

10.

Neutrons have ______ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

variable

d)

neutral

11.

Electrons have ______ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

variable

d)

neutral

12.

Protons have ______ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

variable

d)

neutral

13.

Which element, represented by X, would have the valence electron configuration shown in the diagram?

a)

lithium (Li)

b)

boron (B)

c)

sodium (Na)

d)

phosphorus (P)

14.

The number of which type of particle determines the identity of an element?

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

protons

d)

photons

15.

The element hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes. Which of the following describes the relationship of these isotopes?

a)

different mass, different atomic number

b)

same mass, different atomic number

c)

different mass, same atomic number

d)

same mass, same atomic number

16.

An atom containing six positive charges and six negative charges has ______ charge.

a)

a strong negative

b)

a positive

c)

a negative

d)

no net

17.

The ___ of an element is the number of ______ of an atom of that element.

a)

atomic mass, electrons in the nucleus

b)

atomic number, protons in the nucleus

c)

mass number, protons plus neutrons in the outermost energy level

d)

mass number, neutrons in the nucleus

18.

______ are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons.

a)

Isotopes

b)

Beta particles

c)

Compounds

d)

Alpha particles

19.

The atomic number of Fluorine is 9. How many electrons are on its first energy level?

a)

7

b)

2

c)

9

d)

0

20.

Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. How many valence electrons does it have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

8

d)

12

21.

Leo is comparing carbon-12 and carbon-14 atoms. Which statement correctly compares the subatomic particles in the carbon atoms?

a)

The carbon-14 atom has the same number of electrons, protons, and neutrons as the carbon-12 atom but has more mass.

b)

The carbon-14 atom has two more electrons than the carbon-12 atom, but they have the same number of protons and neutrons.

c)

The carbon-14 atom has two more electrons and two more protons than the carbon-12 atom, but they have the same number of neutrons.

d)

The carbon-14 atom has two more neutrons than the carbon-12 atom, but they have the same number of electrons and protons.

22.

Holly is examining an isotope of chromium. She determines that each atom has 24 protons, 24 electrons, and 30 neutrons. What is the mass number for this chromium isotope?

a)

24

b)

48

c)

54

d)

78

23.

Selenium-79 has an atomic number of 34 and a mass number of 79 amu. How many electrons does an atom of selenium-79 have?

a)

34

b)

45

c)

79

d)

113

24.

An atom with more electrons than protons is called

a)

an anion.

b)

a cation.

c)

a photon.

d)

an alpha particle.

25.

Which statement correctly describes the valence electron configuration of fluorine (F) and chlorine (CI)?

a)

The number of valence electrons for F and Cl is the same, and the valence electrons are the same distance from the nucleus.

b)

The number of valence electrons for F and Cl is the same, but the valence electrons for Cl are farther away from the nucleus.

c)

The number of valence electrons is greater for Cl than for F, and the valence electrons are the same distance from the nucleus.

d)

The number of valence electrons is greater for Cl than for F, and the valence electrons for F are closer to the nucleus.

26.

Which particle is located in the cloud region of the atom?

a)

electron

b)

neutron

c)

nucleus

d)

proton

27.

The atoms in Group A are different from the atoms in Group B because only the atoms in Group A have ____________.

a)

their outer energy levels filled with electrons

b)

three energy levels of electrons

c)

electron arrangements typical of metals

d)

electron arrangements typical of nonmetals

28.

Alkali metals belong to a group of elements whose atoms have only one electron in their outer energy level. According to this definition, which of these is an atom of an alkali metal?

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

29.

According to this chemical formula, all of the following elements are found in phosphoric acid EXCEPT ______.

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

phosphorus

d)

potassium

30.

Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?

a)

electron

b)

neutron

c)

nucleus

d)

proton

31.

Which of these graphs best represent the data being shown?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

This chart gives the results of an experiment testing physical and chemical properties of elements. A fifth element also was tested. It did not conduct electricity, it reacted with alkali metals, and it was a gas. This element behaved most similarly to

a)

Element 1

b)

Element 2

c)

Element 3

d)

Element 4

33.

What term describes the Group 2 elements beryllium, magnesium, and calcium?

a)

alkaline earth metals

b)

alkali metals

c)

lanthanides

d)

transition metals

34.

To which major group do these elements belong?

a)

actinides

b)

lanthanides

c)

metalloids

d)

transition metals

35.

Which of the following is the most reactive of all metals?

a)

alkaline earth metals

b)

alkali metals

c)

lanthanides metals

d)

actinide metals

36.

Carbon-14 and carbon-12 have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. These different forms of the same element are called

a)

radioactive

b)

isotopes

c)

nuclei

d)

tracers

37.

The mass number of a nucleus is equal to ______.

a)

the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

b)

the number of electrons

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of neutrons

38.

The illustration shows the upper right section of the periodic table. How are the elements in the lightly shaded region to the right classified?

a)

lanthanides

b)

metalloids

c)

actinides

d)

non-metals

39.

The illustration shows the upper right section of the periodic table. What element is represented by the single box at the top?

a)

hydrogen

b)

helium

c)

neon

d)

zinc

40.

The illustration shows the upper right section of the periodic table. Which section of the table represents the metalloids?

a)

lightly shaded section to the right

b)

medium shaded section to the left

c)

dark shaded section in middle

d)

Metalloids are not located on this part of the table.

41.

Which group of elements on the periodic table is the least reactive?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 18

c)

Group 2

d)

Group 17

42.

The table lists properties of some elements. Which of these elements belong to the third period of the periodic table?

a)

all of the elements

b)

carbon, oxygen and neon

c)

chlorine only

d)

sodium and chlorine

43.

The table lists properties of some elements. Which element would you expect to be in group 18 of the periodic table?

a)

carbon

b)

neon

c)

chlorine

d)

sodium

44.

According to this information, which solid has an atomic mass greater than 200?

a)

rubidium

b)

cesium

c)

tantalum

d)

thorium

45.

Patients with heart disease and high blood pressure are often placed on a salt-free diet. They are instructed that they may use a salt substitute to season their food. A common salt substitute is potassium chloride (KCl). Its chemical formula is very similar to that of everyday table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl). Based on your knowledge of the periodic table, which statement best explains why potassium chloride probably has properties similar to those of sodium chloride.

a)

Potassium and sodium both belong to Group 1. They have the same number of valence electrons. Therefore, they form similar compounds with other elements.

b)

Potassium and sodium both belong to Period 1. They have the same number of energy levels. Therefore, they form similar compounds with other elements.

c)

Potassium and sodium both belong to Group 1. They have the same number of energy levels. Therefore, they form similar compounds with other elements.

d)

Potassium and sodium both belong to Period 1. They have the same number of valence electrons. Therefore, they form similar compounds with other elements.

46.

The substances that undergo change in a chemical reaction are called

a)

reactants.

b)

products.

c)

coefficients.

d)

elements.

47.

Which of the following does NOT state what the arrow means in a chemical equation?

a)

forms

b)

produces

c)

conserves

d)

yields

48.

Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation for the synthesis of NaBr from Na and Br?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

Which of the following is NOT always true about a synthesis reaction?

a)

One product is formed.

b)

There is only one reactant.

c)

The general formula is A + B → C.

d)

A reactant might be a compound, or it might be an element.

50.

Aluminum and copper (II) chloride react to form copper and aluminum chloride. Which list correctly identifies the reactants and products of this reaction?

a)

Al, CuCI2, Cu, and AICI3 are all ionic solids

b)

Al and Cu are metals, CuCI2, and AICI3 are ionic solids

c)

AI and CuCl2 are ions, Cu and AICl3 are ionic solids

d)

Al and Cu are ions, CuCl2 and AlCl3 are metals

51.

In aqueous solution, sodium chloride (NaCl) shows that it is made of sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). Which statement explains the formation of ions when sodium chloride is formed from sodium and chlorine?

a)

The sodium atoms each lose an electron and the chlorine atoms each gain an electron.

b)

The sodium atoms each gain an electron and the chlorine atoms each lose an electron.

c)

Both the sodium atoms and the chlorine atoms gain one electron each.

d)

Both the sodium atoms and the chlorine atoms lose one electron each.

52.

Calcium fluoride (CaF2) is an ionic solid that is a natural source of fluorine for the chemical industry. What is the charge on the calcium ion in calcium fluoride?

a)

-2

b)

-1

c)

+1

d)

+2

53.

DeWayne has these Australian coins in his collection. The penny is composed of pure lead, and the shilling is composed of sterling silver, an alloy of silver and copper. Which statement correctly identifies the type of matter for both coins?

a)

Both coins are compounds because they are both made of metal.

b)

Both coins are mixtures because they are both made of metal.

c)

The penny is made of an element because it is pure lead, and the shilling is a compound because it is made of more than one metal.

d)

The penny is made of an element because it is pure lead, and the shilling is a mixture because it is an alloy.

54.

Which element, represented by X, would have the valence electron configuration shown in the diagram?

a)

lithium (Li)

b)

boron (B)

c)

sodium (Na)

d)

phosphorus (P)

55.

All of these atoms lend electrons and form positive ions EXCEPT

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.

Which process is taking place in these chemical combinations?

a)

electron transfer

b)

electron sharing

c)

electron gain

d)

electron loss

57.

The diagram shows the oxidation numbers of certain groups in the periodic table. According to the diagram, which group is LEAST likely to combine with other elements to form compounds?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 14

c)

Group 17

d)

Group 18

58.

Which statement best describes what happens to sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) atoms when they combine to form sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a)

The sodium atom becomes a positive sodium ion, and the chlorine atom becomes a negative chloride ion.

b)

The sodium atom becomes a negative sodium ion, and the chlorine atom becomes a positive chloride ion.

c)

The sodium atom becomes a positive chloride ion, and the chlorine atom becomes a negative sodium ion.

d)

The sodium atom becomes a negative chloride ion, and the chlorine atom becomes a positive sodium ion.

59.

Which of the following is the reason why atoms of sodium and chlorine attract each other in a salt crystal?

a)

Sodium has a positive charge and chlorine has a negative charge.

b)

Sodium has a negative charge and chlorine has a positive charge.

c)

Both have a positive charge.

d)

Both have a negative charge.

60.

Ionic compounds are usually formed by ionic bonding between metals and nonmetals. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.

Which statement provides the best description of a covalent bond?

a)

A covalent bond is the attraction between atoms when they share electrons.

b)

A covalent bond is the attraction between opposite charges of ions in a compound.

c)

A covalent bond usually forms between a metal and a nonmetal.

d)

A covalent bond is usually stronger than an ionic bond.

62.

The noble gases rarely combine with other elements to form compounds because

a)

they are gases

b)

their outer energy levels are full

c)

their atoms are much too large

d)

they are nonmetals

63.

Antoine Lavoisier is credited with the discovery of the law of conservation of mass. This law states that in a chemical reaction, matter is not created or destroyed,but preserved. Which of the following equations correctly models this law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

The equation is not balanced. In order to balance the equation, a coefficient of 2 needs to be placed directly .

a)

after the symbol for magnesium on the left side of the equation

b)

before the symbol for oxygen on the left side of the equation

c)

after the symbol for oxygen on the left side of the equation

d)

before the symbol for magnesium on the left side of the equation

65.

A coefficient in the formula is _________.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

66.

The diagram shows an equation representing a chemical reaction. In this equation, which of these are the reactants?

a)

HCl and NaOH

b)

NaCl and H2O

c)

HCl and H2O

d)

NaOH and NaCl

67.

The law of conservation of mass states that in a chemical reaction the mass of the reactants equals the mass of the products. Based on this information, what mass of hydrogen (H2) was produced in this reaction?

a)

2 g

b)

4 g

c)

72 g

d)

144 g

68.

Which of these is a product?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

How many particles are in one mole of a substance?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.

Which of these is a balanced chemical equation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

71.

Which force holds protons and neutrons together in the atom nucleus?

a)

electric force

b)

gravity

c)

strong nuclear force

d)

weak nuclear force

72.

Which of these is an alpha particle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

The mass number of a nucleus is equal to ______.

a)

the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

b)

the number of electrons

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of neutrons

74.

What type of nuclear decay is represented in this illustration?

a)

beta decay

b)

gamma radiation

c)

alpha decay

d)

nuclear fusion

75.

Which happens in a nucleus during gamma decay?

a)

The number of protons increases.

b)

The number of neutrons increases.

c)

The number of protons remains the same.

d)

The total number of neutrons plus neutrons decreases.

76.

When a neutron turns into a proton in a nucleus, what sort of particle is emitted?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

photon

77.

Gamma rays _________.

a)

have no mass and no charge

b)

have mass but no charge

c)

have no mass but have charge

d)

have mass and charge

78.

What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

protons and electrons

b)

electrons and neutrons

c)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

d)

protons and neutrons

79.

Protons do not repel each other in the nucleus because of the ______.

a)

weak force

b)

electric force

c)

strong force

d)

gravitational force

80.

In a radioactive nucleus, the electric force _____ the strong force.

a)

balances

b)

overpowers

c)

is overpowered by

d)

adds to

81.

Which of these is not a type of nuclear radiation?

a)

alpha particles

b)

beta particles

c)

gamma rays

d)

microwaves

82.

How does the alpha decay of a nucleus cause the nucleus to change?

a)

Only the number of protons decreases.

b)

Only the number of neutrons decreases.

c)

The number of neutrons and the number of protons decrease.

d)

The number of protons increases and the number of neutrons decreases.

83.

Which of these is a true statement about the products of the decay compared to polonium-210?

a)

The charges are equal but the mass numbers are not equal.

b)

The mass numbers are equal but the charges are not equal.

c)

The mass numbers and charges are equal.

d)

Neither the mass numbers nor the charges are equal.

84.

A hydrogen nucleus has only one proton. How many neutrons are in a hydrogen-3 nucleus?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

85.

Which force holds protons and neutrons together in the atom nucleus?

a)

electric force

b)

gravity

c)

strong nuclear force

d)

weak nuclear force

86.

Which best represents nuclear fission?

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

87.

Which of these diagrams represents the type of nuclear reaction that produces energy in the Sun?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

88.

A high temperature is required for which to occur?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

nuclear fission

d)

nuclear fusion

89.

During nuclear fission, a nucleus _________.

a)

grows

b)

divides

c)

shrinks

d)

combines with another

90.

Only nuclei with _________ atomic numbers can undergo fission.

a)

small

b)

even

c)

odd

d)

large

91.

What is the term for an ongoing series of nuclear reactions?

a)

fission

b)

chain reaction

c)

fusion

d)

nuclear

92.

When two smaller nuclei come together, it is called ________.

a)

nuclear fission

b)

nuclear fusion

c)

chain reaction

d)

critical mass

93.

In the Sun, hydrogen atoms fuse together to form _________.

a)

helium

b)

mercury

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

94.

Nuclear fission of uranium-235 can start a chain reaction by

a)

releasing enough thermal energy to start nuclear fission in neighboring atoms

b)

producing two smaller atoms that can then strike and split neighboring atoms

c)

producing neutrons that can then strike and split neighboring atoms

d)

combining two atoms with low mass to form one large atom

95.

What type of nuclear reaction is shown?

a)

fusion

b)

fission

c)

chain reaction

d)

alpha radiation

96.

What type of relationship did Einstein state there was between energy and mass?

a)

equal

b)

inverse

c)

additional

d)

negative

97.

Force is measure with

a)

Newtons.

b)

Pounds.

c)

Kilograms.

d)

Meters per second per second.

98.

Forces are

a)

a push.

b)

a pull.

c)

a push or a pull.

d)

neither a push or a pull.

99.

Which is a measurement effected by gravity?

a)

Weight

b)

Mass

c)

Displacement

d)

Velocity

100.

Which tool would be the best for measuring the mass of an object?

a)

Digital Scale

b)

Measuring Tape

c)

Thermometer

d)

Laser Level

101.

What is the net force on the box in the diagram?

a)

1 N Right

b)

1 N Left

c)

4 N Right

d)

3 N Left

102.

A car travels along a straight road 100 m east then 50 m west. What is the displacement of the car?

a)

50 m east

b)

0 m

c)

100 m west

d)

150 m east

103.

A runner travels around rectangle track with a length of 50 meters and width of 20 meters. After traveling around the rectangle track two times, the runner back to starting point. What is the distance the runner traveled?

a)

280 m

b)

140 m

c)

200 m

d)

320 m

104.

A car travels at uniform velocity a distance of 100 m in 4 seconds. What is the velocity of the car?

a)

25 m/s

b)

400 m/s

c)

50 m/s

d)

215 m/s

105.

A sailboat is traveling north at 10 km/h, relative to the water. The water is flowing north at 5 km/h. What is the velocity of the boat relative to ground?

a)

15 km/h N

b)

15 km/h S

c)

5 km/h S

d)

5 km/h N

106.

If a sprinter runs 100 m in 10 seconds, what is his average velocity?

a)

10 m/s

b)

100 m/s

c)

1 m/s

d)

1000 m/s

107.

Acceleration describes

a)

the change in speed of a mass.

b)

the change in direction of a mass.

c)

the change in velocity of a mass.

d)

the increase in speed of a mass.

108.

Which line in the diagram shows negative acceleration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

109.

A car moving at 80 mph has a speed of 35.8 m/s. What acceleration would it have if it took 5.0 s to come to a complete stop?

a)

-7.16 m/s*s

b)

7.16 m/s*s

c)

8.84 m/s*s

d)

-8.84 m/s*s

110.

A roller coaster car rapidly picks up speed as it rolls down a slope. As it starts down the slope, its speed is 4 m/s. But 3 seconds later, at the bottom of the slope, its speed is 22 m/s. What is its average acceleration in m/s/s? (Round to the nearest tenth)

a)

6.0

b)

7.3

c)

4.75

d)

15.0

111.

Which line shows a mass with no acceleration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

112.

Which scientist defined force?

a)

Issac Newton

b)

Galileo Galilei

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Stephen Hawking

113.

Which formula is defined by the Second Law of Motion?

a)

F = ma

b)

v = d / t

c)

a = (vf-vi) / t

d)

p = mv

114.

Which measurement would NOT be used to calculate the force on an object?

a)

Mass

b)

Initial Velocity

c)

Final Velocity

d)

Volume

115.

What net force is required to accelerate a car at a rate of 2 m/s*s if the car has a mass of 3,000 kg?

a)

6,000 N

b)

1,500 N

c)

3,002 N

d)

2,998 N

116.

A 10 kg bowling ball would require what force to accelerate down an alleyway at a rate of 3 m/s*s?

a)

30 N

b)

3.3 N

c)

7 N

d)

13 N

117.

What is probably being measured in the diagram?

a)

speed

b)

engine temperature

c)

rate of tire wear

d)

gasoline mileage

118.

The horses on this carousel are accelerating because __________________________.

a)

the speed of the horses is constantly increasing

b)

the speed of the horses is constantly decreasing

c)

the direction of the horses’ motion is constantly changing

d)

the travel time is different for every ride

119.

A car travels 15 m east, then 5 m north,then 15 m west. What is the car’s displacement?

a)

35 m north

b)

5 m north

c)

20 m east

d)

10 m west

120.

If the same force is applied to each of these balls, which one will have the LEAST acceleration?

a)

baseball

b)

bowling ball

c)

golf ball

d)

tennis ball

121.

Which of the following is NOT an example of unbalanced forces acting on an object?

a)

an acorn falling from a tree

b)

a car moving at a constant speed of 55 miles per hour

c)

a motorcycle changing speed from 50 miles per hour to 70 miles per hour

d)

a truck slowing down as it approaches a red light

122.

The total amount of energy before and after a chemical reaction is the same. Thus, energy is

a)

created.

b)

destroyed.

c)

conserved.

d)

the same as mass.

123.

The property of matter that resists changes in motion is called

a)

friction.

b)

inertia.

c)

gravity.

d)

weight.

124.

Which statement correctly describes chemical energy?

a)

Chemical energy is energy stored in the bonds between atoms.

b)

Chemical energy is the kinetic energy of moving and vibrating molecules.

c)

Chemical energy is the result of mass converted to energy in the nucleus of an atom.

d)

Chemical energy is energy stored as the result of stressing or stretching a substance.

125.

A pendulum is pulled back and released. Which statement best describes the changes in the weight's potential energy (PE) and kinetic energy (KE) as it swings back and forth?

a)

Except for small losses to friction, there are no changes to the PE or KE of the weight.

b)

At the top of each swing, the weight has the maximum KE and no PE. At the bottom, it has maximum PE and no KE.

c)

At the top of each swing, the weight has the maximum PE and no KE, At the bottom, it has maximum KE and no PE.

d)

The PE and KE both increase as the weight swings down, and both decrease as the weight swings up.

126.

A force of 10 newtons is used to push a 5-kilogram object a distance of 18 meters. What is the amount of work exerted on the object?

a)

50 joules

b)

90 joules

c)

180 joules

d)

900 joules

127.

The objects in Group A are different from the objects in Group B because only the objects in Group A _________.

a)

are electrical appliances

b)

have chemical potential energy

c)

convert electrical energy to mechanical energy

d)

are fossil fuels

128.

In the diagram above, a roller coaster car starts from rest at point A and moves along the track. At which point does the roller coaster car have the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

129.

What energy change do these appliances have in common?

a)

They convert electrical energy to thermal energy.

b)

They convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.

c)

They convert mechanical energy to electrical energy.

d)

They convert thermal energy to electrical energy.

130.

The diagram shows a person swinging a golf club from point A to point D. The kinetic energy of the golf club would be greatest at

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.

The temperature is higher inside a greenhouse than outside because of the conversion of

a)

radiant energy into thermal energy

b)

thermal energy into light energy

c)

nuclear energy into thermal energy

d)

electrical energy into thermal energy

132.

The work done by the crane was most likely measured in

a)

joules

b)

meters

c)

newtons

d)

watts

133.

Approximately how much work do you do when you lift your 10.0 kg sister to a height of 1.5 m?

a)

150 J

b)

15 J

c)

15 N

d)

15 W

134.

Which sequence describes the energy conversions in a car’s engine?

a)

chemical to thermal to mechanical

b)

mechanical to thermal to chemical

c)

thermal to mechanical to chemical

d)

kinetic to potential to mechanical

135.

The kinetic energy from an object’s motion always changes when which factor changes?

a)

the object’s chemical potential energy

b)

the object’s volume

c)

the object’s direction of motion

d)

the object’s speed

136.

______ energy is the energy an object has because of its motion.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Magnetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Potential

137.

______ energy is stored energy due to position.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Magnetic

c)

Chemical

d)

Potential

138.

Anything that can fall has stored energy called ______.

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

chemical potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

139.

At what point(s) does the pendulum have maximum Gravitational Potential Energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

140.

At what point(s) does the pendulum have maximum kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

141.

Which statement best describes a capacitor?

a)

a device used to store an electric charge, consisting of one or more pairs of plates.

b)

a container consisting of one or more cells, in which chemical energy is converted into electricity

c)

a device having a designed resistance to the passage of an electric current

d)

an apparatus for reducing or increasing the voltage of an alternating current

142.

The momentum of an object is the sum of its mass and its velocity.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

When two objects collide, their momentum after the collision is explained by ______.

a)

Newton’s first law of motion

b)

Newton’s second law of motion

c)

Newton’s third law of motion

d)

the conservation of momentum

144.

A real car moving at 10 km/h has more momentum than a toy car moving at the same rate because ______.

a)

its mass is greater

b)

its mass is less

c)

it moves faster

d)

of friction

145.

What do objects increasing in velocity NOT have?

a)

Momentum

b)

Mass

c)

Balanced forces

146.

If an object with a mass of 12 kilograms is moving at 10 meters per second, what is its momentum?

a)

120 kg*m/s

b)

120 kg*m*s

c)

1.2 kg*m/s

d)

1.2 kg*m*s

147.

Newton's Second Law of Motion can be summarized by which equation?

a)

M = F/a

b)

F = ma

c)

F = m/a

148.

Which scenario would most likely occur when a cue ball strikes a pool ball that is at rest?

a)

The cue ball will stop making and also be at rest.

b)

The pool ball will accelerate in the same direction as the cue ball was initially moving.

c)

The cue ball will bounce back from the pool ball around the same velocity.

d)

The pool ball will accelerate to a velocity greater then the cue ball moving.

149.

Determine the momentum of a 0.145 kg baseball thrown at 44.7 m/s.

a)

6.4815 kg*m/s

b)

3.0827 kg*m/s

c)

30.2 kg*m*s

d)

64.82 kg*m*s

150.

A mass has a momentum of 50 kg*m/s, when its velocity doubles what happens to its momentum?

a)

The momentum doubles.

b)

The momentum quadruples.

c)

The momentum is halved.

d)

The momentum stays the same.

151.

A projectile of mass 1 kilogram traveling at 9 meters per second collides with another projectile of mass 2 kilograms traveling at 6 meters per second in the same direction. If the projectiles "stick" together after their collision, what is their velocity after colliding?

a)

7 m/s

b)

8 m/s

c)

7.5 m/s

d)

9 m/s

152.

What must occur for momentum to be transferred?

a)

Interaction between multiple masses.

b)

Interaction between a moving mass and a stationary mass.

c)

Multiple masses must combine to form one mass.

d)

Multiple masses must be moving in opposite directions.

153.

If each object is moving at the same velocity which will have the least momentum?

a)

Baseball

b)

Bowling Ball

c)

Golf Ball

d)

Tennis Ball

154.

The diagram above shows the magnetic field surrounding a bar magnet. The closer together the lines of force, the stronger the magnetic field. According to the diagram,where is the magnetic field strongest?

a)

around the north pole

b)

around the south pole

c)

around both poles

d)

in the center of the magnet

155.

Alexandra was preparing to go on a hike in the woods. She gathered the equipment she would need and placed it on the kitchen counter. By chance, she placed her compass near an electrical outlet. Although the compass was not moving, the compass needle turned because _______________.

a)

the electric current in the outlet produced a magnetic field

b)

the compass could only be used outdoors

c)

the kitchen counter was made of a magnetic substance

d)

the kitchen had a microwave oven

156.

A magnetic field exerts a force on ______.

a)

other magnets

b)

objects made of magnetic materials

c)

other magnets and objects made of magnetic materials

d)

none of these

157.

The generation of a current by a changing magnetic field is called electromagnetic______.

a)

discharge

b)

charge

c)

induction

d)

reduction

158.

Why does the north pole of a compass point toward Earth's geographic north pole?

a)

A compass does not rely on Earth's magnetic field to function.

b)

Like poles attract.

c)

Opposite poles repel.

d)

Earth's geographic north pole is a south magnetic pole.

159.

According to the diagram, which pair could both be north poles?

a)

A and B

b)

B and C

c)

A and C

d)

C and D

160.

The ______ are regions where the magnetic force exerted by a magnet is strongest.

a)

magnetic field lines

b)

anodes

c)

magnetic poles

d)

cathodes

161.

The diagram shows an electric motor and a generator. Which two areas of physical science are closely related to the development of these devices?

a)

sound and light

b)

light and magnetism

c)

electricity and sound

d)

electricity and magnetism

162.

Scientists believe that magnetism is caused by the spin of certain atomic particles called

a)

electrons.

b)

protons.

c)

neutrons.

d)

nuclei.

163.

Which of the following is found in all magnets?

a)

a geographic pole

b)

a transformer

c)

a north pole and a south pole

d)

an electric field

164.

The magnetic field that surrounds a magnet exerts _______.

a)

electric current

b)

the magnetic force

c)

air pressure

d)

resistance

165.

Which pair of magnets would result from cutting this magnet in half?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

166.

North poles of magnets always attract ________.

a)

south poles

b)

other north poles

c)

negative charges

d)

positive charges

167.

Electric current passing though a wire produces ________.

a)

a magnetic field around the wire

b)

a permanent magnet

c)

geographic poles

d)

a compass

168.

What effect does increasing the current in the wire have on an electromagnet?

a)

It decreases the strength of the magnetic field.

b)

It increases the strength of the magnetic field.

c)

It has no effect on the electromagnet.

d)

It causes it to become a permanent magnet.

169.

Which of the following is a form of electromagnetic induction?

a)

producing electric current by moving a magnet through a wire loop

b)

using an electromagnet to measure electric current

c)

producing mechanical energy by sending electric current through an electromagnet

d)

changing electrical energy to mechanical energy that produces sound

170.

In order for the electromagnetic coil in the motor to keep turning, the current must ________.

a)

continue in one direction

b)

periodically increase in strength

c)

change direction

d)

be through an ammeter

171.

A vibrating electric charge produces a(n) ______.

a)

sound wave

b)

heat wave

c)

compression wave

d)

electromagnetic wave

172.

Electromagnetic waves can behave as particles that are called ______.

a)

photons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

neutrons

173.

Joseph studied whether different materials can block certain electromagnetic waves by testing television reception in different parts of a house. At each part of the house,Joseph used a different antenna. The experiment could have been improved by_________.

a)

testing reception of a different channel during each trial

b)

using the same antenna during each trial

c)

measuring the antenna length in centimeters

d)

measuring the distance to the television station

174.

Rahim heated some leftovers in a microwave oven. He noticed that although the food got hot, the inside of the microwave oven did not. This happens because _______.

a)

the walls of the microwave oven are good heat insulators

b)

there is no air in a microwave oven

c)

the fan in the microwave oven keeps it cool

d)

microwaves heat by interacting with water molecules

175.

What is true of visible light in comparison to other kinds of electromagnetic waves?

a)

Visible light travels faster in a vacuum.

b)

Visible light has a lower frequency than X-rays.

c)

Visible light has a lower frequency than microwaves.

d)

Visible light has only one frequency.

176.

As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, its wavelength

a)

becomes larger

b)

becomes smaller

c)

stays the same

d)

does not change

177.

You can most effectively vibrate the electric fields of water molecules using

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared waves

c)

ultraviolet waves

d)

microwaves

178.

Which of the following uses radio waves?

a)

radar

b)

radiation therapy

c)

X-ray machine

d)

CD-ROM

179.

If you arranged the list of electromagnetic waves shown in order from shortest to longest wavelength, which would be last on the list?

a)

gamma rays

b)

radio waves

c)

ultraviolet rays

d)

visible light

180.

Which electromagnetic waves are most similar in length to microwaves?

a)

gamma rays

b)

infrared waves

c)

ultraviolet waves

d)

visible light

181.

Sunscreen is designed to protect your skin from exposure to too much ___________.

a)

ultraviolet radiation

b)

gamma radiation

c)

infrared radiation

d)

visible light

182.

Electromagnetic waves that can be detected by the human eye are called _________.

a)

visible light

b)

gamma rays

c)

X-rays

d)

infrared waves

183.

Scientific evidence suggests that air pollution from CFCs is damaging our atmosphere that protects us from harmful radiation. Which line on the graph supports the idea that pollution is damaging the ozone layer?

a)

Line 1

b)

Line 2

c)

Line 3

d)

Line 4

184.

The entire range of the electromagnetic wave frequencies is known as _______.

a)

ultraviolet radiation

b)

visible light

c)

the electromagnetic spectrum

d)

magnetism

185.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves can travel through matter and cause damage to cells?

a)

radio waves

b)

microwaves

c)

infrared waves

d)

gamma rays

186.

What is the term for the number of waves that pass a fixed point each second?

a)

wave speed

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

period

187.

Which of the measurements would be the most helpful in determining the wavelength?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

188.

According to the diagrams, long wavelengths ______________.

a)

travel more slowly than short wavelengths

b)

have a greater frequency than short wavelengths

c)

diffract around objects more easily than do short wavelengths

d)

are able to generate far more power than are short wavelengths

189.

The glass prism is able to bend light because _________.

a)

light is refracted as it enters a different medium

b)

the prism offers destructive interference

c)

energy is diffracted when it encounters an obstacle

d)

the glass and the light’s wavelength create resonance

190.

Which of the following is present in both drawings?

a)

compression waves

b)

diffraction

c)

destructive interference

d)

refraction

191.

Sound is a compression wave with regions of greater and lesser density. The less-dense region of a sound wave is a

a)

crest

b)

rarefaction

c)

diffraction

d)

compression

192.

In 1 second, four crests of a wave pass a certain point. What is the wave’s frequency?

a)

2 Hz

b)

3 Hz

c)

4 Hz

d)

5 Hz

193.

Which statement best explains frequency?

a)

Frequency is the number of wavelengths that pass a point per second.

b)

Frequency is the number of crests that pass a point in total.

c)

Frequency is the number of wavelengths that pass a point in total.

d)

Frequency is the amplitude per second.

194.

When a longitudinal wave travels through a medium, which way does the matter that makes up the medium move?

a)

backward

b)

in all directions

c)

in the same direction the wave travels

d)

at right angles to the direction of the wave

195.

What part of a wave is shown at F?

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

crest

d)

trough

196.

What wave property is indicated by the letter J?

a)

wavelength

b)

crest

c)

amplitude

d)

trough

197.

The distance between the rest position and the trough of a transverse wave is its _____.

a)

wave frequency

b)

wave intensity

c)

wavelength

d)

wave amplitude

198.

What type of wave is illustrated?

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

c)

seismic

d)

reflected

199.

Describe the motion of the piece of string tied to the coil.

a)

It moves up and down as the wave passes.

b)

It moves in a circular motion.

c)

It moves back and forth as the wave passes.

d)

It does not move as the wave passes.

200.

A _____is a repeating disturbance that transfers energy through matter or a vacuum.

a)

conductor

b)

frequency

c)

wave

d)

medium

201.

Which do all transverse waves have?

a)

rarefactions

b)

amplitude

c)

compressions

d)

ability to travel through space

202.

Which types of waves can travel through a vacuum?

a)

sound

b)

light

c)

seismic

d)

mechanical

203.

Which types of waves can travel through a vacuum?

a)

sound

b)

light

c)

seismic

d)

mechanical

204.

Electromagnetic waves of different wavelengths have been given different names. According to the table, which type of electromagnetic wave can have a wavelength greater than 5 m?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Microwaves

c)

Red light

d)

Blue light

205.

According to the table, which type of electromagnetic wave can have a wavelength of 0.000046 cm?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Microwaves

c)

Red light

d)

Blue light

206.

Which statement about the figure is correct?

a)

Pot A has a higher temperature than Pot B.

b)

Pot B has a higher temperature than Pot A.

c)

Pot A has more thermal energy than Pot B.

d)

Pot B has more thermal energy than Pot A.

207.

Adam placed a heated aluminum cube in a beaker of water and then measured the change in the temperature of the water.The change in temperature he recorded was most likely measured in

a)

calories

b)

degrees Celcius

c)

grams per cubic centimeter

d)

joules

208.

When you measure the temperature of an object, you are measuring _________.

a)

the average chemical energy of its particles

b)

the sum of its kinetic and potential energies

c)

the average kinetic energy of its particles

d)

the specific heat of the object

209.

____ is the thermal energy that is transferred from a material with a higher temperature to one with a lower temperature.

a)

Work

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Heat

d)

Potential energy

210.

The moving particles that make up an object have _____ energy.

a)

decreasing

b)

increasing

c)

kinetic

d)

potential

211.

If the particles that make up an object begin to move quickly, their average kinetic energy _____ and the object's temperature _____.

a)

increases, falls

b)

increases, rises

c)

decreases, rises

d)

decreases, falls

212.

_____ is the thermal energy that is transformed from a material with a higher temperature to one with a lower temperature.

a)

Heat

b)

Work

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Potential energy

213.

Which thermometer best represents the temperature 96°?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

F

e)

H

214.

Jackson heats a liquid during an experiment. What is the temperature of the liquid?

a)

50.125°C

b)

51.25°C

c)

51.5°C

d)

52.75°C

215.

Which thermometer best represents the temperature 39°?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

F

d)

H

e)

J

216.

Two objects with different temperatures are placed into a system. Which way will heat flow naturally?

a)

From the warmer object to the cooler object.

b)

From the cooler object to the warmer object.

c)

From one object to the other regardless of temperature.

d)

No flow will occur.

217.

Two objects with different temperatures are placed into a system. Which outcome is most likely to occur?

a)

The cooler object will warm to match the object with a higher temperature.

b)

The warmer object will cool to match the object with a lower temperature.

c)

The warmer object will heat the cooler object until both objects are the same temperature.

d)

The environment will absorb heat from the warmer object so it will be room temperature.

218.

What must occur for the natural flow of heat to be reversed?

a)

Work

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Temperature Conversion

d)

Create energy

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