WorksheetsJK Mock Module 4
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. The dominant functionalization phase reactions is:
a)
a. Hydrolysis
b)
b. Glucoronidation
c)
c. Oxidation
d)
d. Acetylation reaction
2.
2. The minimum dose that produces the maximum achievable response is known as
a)
a. Potency
b)
b. ED50
c)
c. LD50
d)
d. Ceiling dose
e)
e. Minimum Effective dose
3.
3. The first requirement for a drug to be absorbed is:
a)
a. It has to be in a suitable formulation
b)
b. The Active ingredients should be in solution
c)
c. Proper route and manner of administration
d)
d. Proper hydration
4.
4. A type of transport in which the movement of drug/substance is through water filled pores
a)
a. Active Transport
b)
b. Ion Pair Transport
c)
c. Convective Transport
d)
d. Facilitated diffusion
5.
5. This type of receptor is also known as the 7 transmembrane spanning receptor and has a role in signal transduction.:
a)
a. Type II receptors (Metabotropic)
b)
b. Type I receptors (Ionotropic)
c)
c. Type IV receptor
d)
d. Type III receptor
6.
6. Factors that Increase Gastric Emptying Time except:
a)
a. Stress
b)
b. Heavy Exercise
c)
c. D2 antagonists
d)
d. Presence of gastric ulcer
7.
7. Which of the following is considered as the only biopharmaceutic process?
a)
a. Liberation
b)
b. Absoprtion
c)
c. Metabolism
d)
d. Excretion
8.
8. The study of the rational use of drugs in management of diseases
a)
a. Pharmacotherapeutics
b)
b. Pharmacodynamics
c)
c. Pharmacokinetics
d)
d. Clinical Pharmacology
9.
9. Which of the following organ has the greatest surface for absorption in humans?
a)
a. Stomach
b)
b. Small Intestine
c)
c. Kidney
d)
d. Liver
10.
10. Pre Ganglionic Neurotransmitter of Sympathetic Nervous System
a)
a. Ach
b)
b. NE
c)
c. Dopamine
d)
d. Serotonin
11.
11. Rate Limiting step of Catecholamine synthesis
a)
a. Tyrosine to DOPA
b)
b. DOPA to Dopamine
c)
c. Vesicular storage/uptake of dopamine
d)
d. Intravesicular conversion of Dopamine
12.
12. Which of the following drug listed has a colligative mechanism or mass effect?
a)
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b)
b. Dimercaprol
c)
c. Mannitol
d)
d. Penicillamine
e)
e. A and B
13.
13. These are toxins that are obtained from spoiled foods
a)
a. Ciguartoxins
b)
b. Scromboid
c)
c. Tetrodotoxin
d)
d. Ptomaines
14.
14. Final metabolite of Epinephrine and NE
a)
a. Vanillyl mandelic acid
b)
b. 3 methoxy 4 hydoxy mandelic acid
c)
c. Homovanillic acid
d)
d. Both A and B
e)
e. AOTA
15.
15. The primary mechanism of neurotransmitter release is accomplished by what process?
a)
a. Diffusion
b)
b. Carrier-mediated
c)
c. Active transport
d)
d. Facilitated transport
e)
e. Exocytosis
16.
16. What is the amino acid precursor utilized in the synthesis of serotonin?
a)
a. Phenylalanine
b)
b. Tryptophan
c)
c. Tyrosine
d)
d. Tryptamine
e)
e. Glutamic acid
17.
17. Ethanol and higher doses of aspirin are examples of drugs which have both have a characteristic pharmacokinetic process of elimination compared to the elimination of most drugs. What is the pharmacokinetic process?
a)
a. Zero order reaction
b)
b. First order reaction
c)
c. Second order reaction
d)
d. NOTA
18.
18. In the adrenal medulla, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by the action of which enzyme?
a)
a. DOPA decarboxylase
b)
b. Tyrosine hydroxylase
c)
c. Cathecol-0- nethyl transferase
d)
d. Monoamine oxidase
e)
e. Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase
19.
19. Reserpine, an alkaloid from Rauwolfia, can lower the blood pressure and depress the CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by Reserpine to bring about these effects?
a)
a. DOPA decarboxylase
b)
b. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicles
c)
c. Release of Norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals
d)
d. MAO enzymes
e)
e. Uptake-1 mechanism
20.
20. Stimulation of Dopamine 2 receptor will result in:
a)
a. ↓Gastro intestinal motility
b)
b. ↑Gastro intestinal motility
c)
c. Modulation of motor activity
d)
d. A and C
e)
e. B and C
21.
21. In terms of mechanism of action, which of the following drugs most closely resembles that of Clonidine?
a)
a. Phenylphrine
b)
b. Reserpine
c)
c. Guanethidine
d)
d. Methyldopa
e)
e. Amlodipine
22.
22. What is the hypothetical volume/apparent volume of body fluid that is necessary to dissolve a given dose or amount of drug to a concentration equal to that achieved in plasma.
a)
a. Volume of Distribution
b)
b. Regional Blood flow volume
c)
c. Plasma volume
d)
d. Volume of Absorption
23.
23. Which of the following medication is most useful in the management of shock stages complicated by decrease renal function (↑serum creatinine )
a)
a. Epinephrine
b)
b. Norepinephrine
c)
c. Dopamine
d)
d. Dobutamine
e)
e. Digitalis
24.
24. Which of the following beta-blockers is considered cardio selective?
a)
a. Labetalol
b)
b. propanolol
c)
c. pindolol
d)
d. Esmolol
e)
e. Timolol
25.
25. Rate Limiting Step of Acetylcholine Biosynthesis
a)
a. Exocytotic release of Ach
b)
b. Vesicular storage/uptake of Ach
c)
c. Active uptake of Ach
d)
d. Acetyl CoA + Choline
26.
26. Rate Limiting step of acetylcholine biosynthesis can be inhibited by:
a)
a. Vesamicol
b)
b. Hemicholinium
c)
c. Botulinum toxin
d)
d. Esmolol
27.
27. Clidinium, Dicyclomine, and Glycopyrrolate are clinically useful for which of the following conditions?
a)
a. Management of Neuromuscular blocker toxicity
b)
b. Gastrointestinal hypermotility and urinary incontinence
c)
c. Angina due to coronary artery vasospasm
d)
d. Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease
e)
e. Diagnosis and Treatment of Myasthenia gravis
28.
28. New drug of choice for Atropine Toxicity
a)
a. Physostigmine
b)
b. Neostigmine
c)
c. Betanechol
d)
d. Carbachol
29.
29. Which of the following agents is used primarily for its sedating property as the active ingredient of an OTC sleeping aid called Unisom?
a)
a. Carbinoxamine
b)
b. Doxylamine
c)
c. Hydoxyzine
d)
d. Meclizine
e)
e. Tripelenamine
30.
30. What class of H1-antihistamines include drugs that are used as components of OTC “cold” medications
a)
a. Alkylamines
b)
b. Phenothiazine
c)
c. Piperazine
d)
d. Ethanolamine
e)
e. Ethylaminediamine
31.
31. Which of the following H1-antihistamines has significant blocking effects on 5-HT receptors?
a)
a. Promethazine
b)
b. Cyproheptadine
c)
c. Pyrilamine
d)
d. Carbinoxamine
e)
e. Cetirizine
32.
32. Which of the following H1-antihistamines has significant anti-cholinergic effect to be useful for the management of dytonia and pseudoparkinsonism associated with the use of neuroleptic agents?
a)
a. Diphenhydramine
b)
b. Brompheniramine
c)
c. Promethazine
d)
d. Cyproheptadine
e)
e. Cyclizine
33.
33. Epoprostenol, a drug that is being used in the management of primary pulmonary hypertension is an analogue of which eicosanoid?
a)
a. PGD2
b)
b. PGI2
c)
c. PGE1
d)
d. PGE2
e)
e. PGF2-alpha
34.
34. Dipivefrin is the pivalic acid ester of Epinephrine, it used medically to treat patients with?
a)
a. Tachyarrhythmia
b)
b. Asthma
c)
c. Glaucoma
d)
d. Obesity
35.
35. Which of the following agents is a strong full agonist of opioid receptors
a)
a. Hydromorphone
b)
b. Hydrocodone
c)
c. Codeine
d)
d. Propoxyphene
e)
e. Pentazocine
36.
36. A patient is suffering from a condition in which the ductus arteriosus does not close , which Indole derivative medication can be used for the management of this condition?
a)
a. Indomethacin
b)
b. Ibuprofen
c)
c. Piroxicam
d)
d. Nabumetone
e)
e. A and B
37.
37. It is the least potent H2 receptor blocker
a)
a. Pepcid R
b)
b. Tagamet R
c)
c. Axid R
d)
d. Zantac R
e)
e. Both A and B
38.
38. Which of the following drugs used for gout produces its effect by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
a)
a. Allopurinol
b)
b. Colchicine
c)
c. Indomethacin
d)
d. Probenecid
e)
e. Sulfinpyrazone
39.
39. Which of the following Benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life and a rapid onset of action?
a)
a. Lorazepam
b)
b.Triazolam
c)
c. Oxazepam
d)
d. Diazepam
e)
e. Prazepam
40.
40. A 30 year old epileptic women experiences seizures exacerbations at the time of menses. Which of the following drugs classified as diuretics maybe useful in the patient?
a)
a Hydrochlorothiazide
b)
b. Metolazone
c)
c. Acetazolamide
d)
d. Chlorthalidone
e)
e. Torsemide
41.
41. The following are side effects of Thiazide diuretics except.
a)
a. Hypoglycemia
b)
b. Hyperlipidemia
c)
c. Hypokalemia
d)
d. Hypercalcemia
e)
e. A and B
42.
42. Disopyramide is an antiarrhytmic , it is classified as what class?
a)
a. Class II
b)
b. Class I
c)
c. Class IV
d)
d. Class III
43.
43. What subclass of Class I antiarryhtmic is used for patient who has a Post Myocardial Infarction condition?
a)
a. Class Ia
b)
b. Class Ib
c)
c. Class Ic
d)
d. Class Id
44.
44. Which of the availabe nitrovasodilators has a bioavailabilty of about 100%?
a)
a. Isosorbide mononitrate
b)
b. Isosorbide dinitrate
c)
c. Amyl nitrite
d)
d. Glyceryl trinitrate
e)
e. None, all undergo significant first pass effect when given orally
45.
45. This drug is used as vasodilator and exhibits a side effect which is known as hypertrichosis?
a)
a. Minoxidil
b)
b. Disopyramide
c)
c. Hydralazine
d)
d. Amlodipine
46.
46. A 10 year old boy is diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder which of the following medication is the drug of choice for ADHD?
a)
a. Amphetamine
b)
b. Lorazepam
c)
c. Methylphenidate
d)
d. Diazepam
47.
47. Site of Action for Acetazolamide:
a)
a. Thick Ascending Limb of Loop of Henle
b)
b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
c)
c. Distal Convoluted Tubule
d)
d. Cortical Collecting Tubule
48.
48. 1 kg of tumor has an estimation of:
a)
a. 1 billion cancer cells
b)
b. 1 trillion cancer cells
c)
c. 1 million cancer cells
d)
d. 1 cancer cells
e)
e. NOTA
49.
49. Vincristine from Catharantus roseus is medically used as an anti-cancer drug, Which of the following is the side effect of Vincristine when administered?
a)
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b)
b. Hemorrhagic cystitis
c)
c. Pulmonary Fibrosis
d)
d. Cardiotoxicity
50.
50. Hemorrhagic cystitis is a condition wherein the patient is experiencing symptoms including hematuria and irritative voiding symptoms, this condition is also a side effect of what anti cancer drug?
a)
a. Cisplatin
b)
b. Cyclophosphamide
c)
c. Busulfan
d)
d. Transtuzumab
51.
51. Catecholamine that has the capability of inhibiting prolactin release
a)
a. Dopamine
b)
b. NE
c)
c. Serotonin
d)
d. Epinephrine
52.
52. A women who is suffering from hyperthyroidism is currently taking Methimazole as treatment but upon knowing that the patient is pregnant the physician change the medication. This is because methimazole can cause what type of condition?
a)
a. Aplasia cutis
b)
b. Phocomelia
c)
c. Abortion
d)
d. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
53.
53. It is considered as the most cardiotoxic sulfonylurea:
a)
a. Acetohexamide
b)
b. Tolbutamide
c)
c. Tolazamide
d)
d. Chlorpropamide
54.
54. This class of insulin sensitizers exhibits a side effect of METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
a)
a. Biguanides
b)
b. Thiazolidediones
c)
c. Sulfonylureas
d)
d. Incretin analogs
e)
e. C and D
55.
55. A 23 year old patient is suffering from septic shock, which medication is used as the drug of choice for the patient?
a)
a. Epinephrine
b)
b. Norepinephrine
c)
c. Dopamine
d)
d. Clopidogrel
56.
56. Which of the following medication listed is/are used as the drug of choice for Carcinoid syndrome?
a)
a. Phenoxybenzamine
b)
b. Phentolamine
c)
c. Phenylephrine
d)
d. Propoxyphene
e)
e. A and C
57.
57. Fibrate derivatives are considered as first line agent for what type of condition?
a)
a. Hypertriglyceridemia
b)
b. Hypercholesterolemia
c)
c. Acute gout
d)
d. Raynaud’s disease
e)
e. A and B
58.
58. A 75 year old women is suffering from hypercholesterolemia which drug should be used as the 1st line agent for the women’s condition?
a)
a. Fibrate derivatives
b)
b. Niacin
c)
c. HMG-CoA oxidase inhibitor
d)
d. Statin drugs
e)
e. Both c and d
59.
59. A patient is diagnosed with prolactimona a condition in which a noncancerous tumor of the pituitary gland in your brain overproduces the hormone prolactin. Which of the following medication is most likely to be prescribed for the treatment of prolactinoma?
a)
a. Dobutamine
b)
b. Bromocriptine
c)
c. Oxytropium
d)
d. Amyl nitrite
60.
60. Enzyme inhibited by Colchicine to exhibit its anti-gout action
a)
a. Xanthine oxidase
b)
b. DNA gyrase
c)
c. Alpha glucosidase
d)
d. Both A and C
e)
e. NOTA
61.
61. Patients who are poor Dextromethorphan metabolizers have decreased activity of which enzyme system?
a)
a. CYP 1A2
b)
b. CYP 2C9
c)
c. CYP 2D6
d)
d. CYP 2D4
e)
e. CYP 2C8
62.
62. A drug which polymerizes in stomach acid and coats ulcer bed resulting in accelereated healing and reduction of symptoms.
a)
a. Docusate sodium
b)
b. Mineral Oil
c)
c. Sucralfate
d)
d. Omeprazole
63.
63. Treatment for Isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy?
a)
a. Vit B6
b)
b. Vit B1
c)
c. Vit C
d)
d. Vit D
64.
64. Enzyme poorly expressed in neonates
a)
a. Glucoronosyl acyltrasferase
b)
b.N acetyltransferase
c)
c. Acetyl CoA
d)
d. Methyltransferase
65.
65. Choline Esters are considered as a direct acting parasymphathomimetic drug which bind to and stimulate cholinoreceptors. Betanechol an example a choline ester stimulate what type of receptors? I. Nicotinic II. Muscarinic III. Beta 2 IV. Alpha 1
a)
a I only
b)
b. II only
c)
c. I and II
d)
d. I, II, and IV
e)
e. II, III and IV
66.
66. Historically, a “universal antidote” was employed in the management of poisoning. Recent studies have shown that the two of the components of this so-called universal antidote have no significant efficacy. What are the components of this so-called “universal antidote”?
a)
a. activated charcoal, calcium oxide, tannic acid
b)
b. activated charcoal, magnesium oxide, tannic acid
c)
c. activated charcoal, milk of magnesia, milk
d)
d. Milk of magnesia, tannic acid, strong tea
e)
e. activated charcoal, milk, ipecac
67.
67. Toxidrome consisting of CNS depression followed by severe metabolic acidosis, blindness with initial “snowstorm-like” visual disturbance, and coma is most consistent with which of the following toxicants?
a)
a. Nitrates
b)
b. Warfarin
c)
c. Ethanol
d)
d. Methanol
e)
e. Ethylene glycol
68.
68. What is considered as the most common mode of exposure to poisons?
a)
a inhalation
b)
b. Dermal exposure
c)
c. Ingestion
d)
d Ophthalmic
e)
e. Bites
69.
69. A 30 year old male is suffering from Zollinger Ellison syndrome which of the following drug is considered as the drug of choice to use for the patient condition?
a)
a. PPI
b)
b.Sucralfate
c)
c. Aluminum hydroxide
d)
d. Corticosteroids
70.
70. Which of the following Narcotic Analgesic lacks Peripheral and Biliary action?
a)
a. Morphine
b)
b.Apomorphine
c)
c. Meperidine
d)
d.Fentanyl
71.
71. What is the antidote of choice for a substance who test positive for Marsh test and considered to be a lewisite metal?
a)
a. BAL
b)
b. Amyl nitrite
c)
c. Deferoxamine
d)
d. Penicillamine
72.
72. What is the characteristic symptom for Cyanide poisoning?
a)
a. Wrist drop/Foot drop
b)
b.Bitter almond odor
c)
c. Hepatotoxicity
d)
d. Mees line
73.
73. Deferoxamine is primarily indicated for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following metals?
a)
a Lead
b)
b. Mercury
c)
c. Iron
d)
d. Copper
74.
74. Penicillamine, as a chelating agent, is primarily used for the treatment of poisoning with which of the following metals?
a)
a. Lead
b)
b. Mercury
c)
c. Iron
d)
d. Copper
e)
e. Arsenic
75.
75. In developing a fetus as well as in a young child, what is considered as the most sensitive target organ for Lead’s toxic effect?
a)
A. Active bone marrow
b)
B. Kidneys
c)
C. Immature reproductive organs
d)
D. Gastrointestinal tract
e)
e. Developing central nervous system
76.
76. Which of the following substance is also known as blue heaven:
a)
a. Sildenafil Citrate
b)
b. Viagra R
c)
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d)
d. Ethyl alcohol
e)
e. A and B
77.
77. Which of the following is the common complication associated with the alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
a)
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b)
b. Flatulence
c)
c. Congestive heart failure
d)
d. Hepatotoxicity
e)
e. Interstitial Nephritis
78.
78. MAOI + Tyramine Rich Foods will not result in
a)
a. Hypotension
b)
b. Hypertension
c)
c. Increase in catecholamine level
d)
d. B and C
e)
e. NOTA
79.
79.What classification of Hypouricemic drug converts uric acid to allantoin?
a)
a. Uricases
b)
b. Urate Oxidases
c)
c. Urate Decarboxylase
d)
d. A and B
e)
e AOTA
80.
80. What Propionic acid derivative drug is used also as an antipyretic for fever of malignancy?
a)
a. Ibuprofen
b)
b. Mefenamic acid
c)
c. Naproxen
d)
d. Ketoprofen
81.
81. Dobutamine is also used as a diagnostic agent in Pharmacologic stress test together with what drug?
a)
a. Dipyridamole
b)
b. Epinephrine
c)
c. Terbutaline
d)
d. Ritodrine
82.
82. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanism?
a)
a. Alteration of ph
b)
b. Complexation
c)
c. Adsorption
d)
d. Alteration of motility rate
e)
e. Alteration of metabolism
83.
83. Which of the following drugs should NOT be taken simultaneously with milk or food? I. Tetracycline II. Doxycycine III. Minocycline
a)
a.I only
b)
b.II only
c)
c.I & II
d)
d.II & III
e)
e.I, II ,III
84.
84. The absorption of the following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors is/are altered by food:
a)
a. Captopril
b)
b. Enalapril
c)
c. Lisinopril
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. AOTA
85.
85. Teratogenic drugs causer physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is characterized if adequate, well- controlled studies in pregnant women have not shown an increased risk of fetal abnormalities.
a)
A. Category A
b)
B. . Category B
c)
C. . Category C
d)
D. . Category D
e)
E. . Category X
86.
86. A positive Coombs’ test develops in 25% of the patients who take this drug:
a)
a. Captopril
b)
b. Metoprolol
c)
c. Methyldopa
d)
d. Clonidine
e)
e. Nifedipine
87.
87. This drug is has an off labelled used as a diagnostic agent in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma
a)
a Captopril
b)
b. Metoprolol
c)
c. Methyldopa
d)
d. Clonidine
e)
e. Nifedipine
88.
88. This is the considered as the most toxic aminoglycoside that can result to both auditory and vestibular damage
a)
a. Tobramycin
b)
b. Gentamicin
c)
c. Streptomycin
d)
d. Netilmicin
e)
e. Amikacin
89.
89. A 20 year old male patient has a condition called Absence seizure which medication is currently used to control/treat the patient condition?
a)
a. Lorazepam
b)
b. Phenobarbital
c)
c. Ehtosuximide
d)
d. Thioridazine
90.
90. Which of the following beta-blockers is considered as the most cardio selective?
a)
a. Esmolol
b)
b. Nebivolol
c)
c. Metoprolol
d)
d. Betaxolol
91.
91. Malignant Hyperthermia a condition wherein there is a hypersecretion of calcium ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum that result in muscle rigidity. It is manageable by the use of which drug?
a)
a. Dantrolene
b)
b. Atracurium
c)
c. Succinylcholine
d)
d. Scopolamine
92.
92. What combination of drugs will result to a condition often called as ‘twilight sleep” ?
a)
a. Morphine + Heroin
b)
b. Morphine + Scopolamine
c)
c. Morphine + Codeine
d)
d Morphine + Paracetamol
93.
93. Benztropine has a brand name of :
a)
a. Cogentin R
b)
b. Akineton R
c)
c. Artane R
d)
d. Benzomax R
94.
94.Precursor drug of Naloxone:
a)
a. Morphine
b)
b. Thebaine
c)
c. Nubain
d)
d. Nalidixic acid
95.
95. The metabolite of morphine that has an analgesic action
a)
a. Morphine-6- glucoronide
b)
b. Morphine 5 glucoronide
c)
c. Morphine 4- glucoronide
d)
d. Morphine 3- glucoronide
96.
96. Buspirone is classified as:
a)
a.5HT1A partial agonist
b)
b. 5HT1A partial antagonist
c)
c. 5HT 1B/1D Agonist
d)
d. 5HT 2A Agonist
e)
e. A and B
97.
97.This drug is used as to control asthma through stabilizing mast cell.
a)
a. Cromolyn
b)
b. Tiotropium
c)
c. Salmeterol
d)
d. Terbutaline
98.
98. Spiriva has a generic name of
a)
a. Salmeterol
b)
b. Salbutamol
c)
c. Tiotropium
d)
d. Lodoxamide
99.
99. Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations:
a)
a. Black Book
b)
b. Blue Book
c)
c Orange Book
d)
d.Pink Book
100.
100.Griseofulvin unlike the other transport processes needs to be in micelle form as a requirement for this transport process.
a)
a. Phagocytosis
b)
b. Convective Transport
c)
c. Pinocytosis
d)
d. Facilitated diffusion
100 %
