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JK Mock Module 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are taken usually at bedtime which of the following example is/are an exception? I. Simvastatin II. Rosuvastatin III. Lovastatin IV. Pravastatin

a)

a. I only

b)

b. II only

c)

c. I and III

d)

d. II and IV

2.
2. A type of incompatibility that may be classified as both physical and chemical
a)
a. Precipitation
b)
b. Hydrolysis
c)
c. Insolubility
d)
d. Polymorphism
3.
3. A patient is diagnosed with meningitis which of the following drugs is used as 1st line agent for meningitis?
a)
a. Ceftriaxone
b)
b. Amphotericin B
c)
c. Pen G
d)
d. Metronidazole
4.
4. What element does the medication Polymagma R contain?
a)
a. B
b)
b. Si
c)
c. Ge
d)
d. Al
5.
5. A 20 year old patient is on Heparin therapy upon checking its aPTT, it was determined that the dose of heparin is too high. What should be given toreverse the effects of heparin
a)
a. Warfarin
b)
b. Vit K
c)
c. Fresh frozen plasma
d)
d. Protamine sulphate
6.
6. 300 proof strength is equivalent to _____ % v/v
a)
a. 150
b)
b. 600
c)
c. 200
d)
d. 100
7.
7. Which of the following teratogenic medication can cause renal tubular dysplasia?
a)
a. Methimazole
b)
b. Captopril
c)
c. Thalidomide
d)
d. Phenylephrine
8.
8. Antibiotic induced pseudomembranous colitis is most commonly treated with this medication.
a)
a. Clindamycin
b)
b. Metronidazole
c)
c. Sucralfate
d)
d. Pen G
9.

9. The medical staff in a hospital setting is/are composed of: I Pharmacists II. Physician III. Nurses IV. Medical technologists

a)

a. I and II

b)

b. II only

c)

c. I, III and IV

d)

d. I, II ,III and IV

10.
10. What is the average body surface are of an adult?
a)
a. 1.73 cm2
b)
b. 1.80 cm2
c)
c. 1.80 m2
d)
d. 1.73 m2
11.
11. Most life threatening adverse drug reactions affect the:
a)
a. Central Nervous System
b)
b. Cardiovascular and Respiratory system
c)
c. Gastrointestinal system
d)
d. Musculoskeletal system
12.
12. What medication is usually associated with the disease Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
a)
a. Amlodipine
b)
b. Methotrexate
c)
c. Rifampicin
d)
d. Isoniazid
13.
13. A 60 year old male patient is diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia a chronic pain condition that affects the trigeminal nerve, which carries sensation from your face to your brain, which of the following medication is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?
a)
a. Acetaminiophen
b)
b. Morphine
c)
c. Carbamazepine
d)
d. Phenytoin
14.
14. Which of the following needle has the smallest diameter?
a)
a. 25 gauge, 3 ¾ inches
b)
b. 24 gauge. 3 ½ inches
c)
c. 26 gauge, 3 ¾ inches
d)
d. 20 gauge, 3 ¾ inches
15.
15. What is the part of injection that is stainless steel or aluminium devices that penetrate the skin for the purpose of administering or transferring a parenteral product?
a)
a. Hypodermic needle
b)
b. Needle shaft
c)
c. Plunger
d)
d. Barrel
16.

16. What circumstances will happen when Rifampicin is taken together with Oral contraceptive pills? I. Decrease effectiveness of Rifampicin II. Increase metabolism of contraceptive pills III. Unplanned pregnancy IV. Increase effectiveness of contraceptive pills

a)

a. I and III

b)

b. II and III

c)

c. III only

d)

d. I, II and III

17.
17. Which of the following substance is present in pregnant’s urine thus it is used by the pregnancy tests kits to detect signs of pregnancy?
a)
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b)
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin
c)
c. Estrogen
d)
d. Progesterone
18.
18. If 250 mL of a suspension contains 500 mg carbocisteine, then what mass of drug is contained in a child’s dose of 1 teaspoonful of suspension?
a)
a. 15 g
b)
b. 15 mg
c)
c. 10 mg
d)
d. 25 mg.
19.
19. A patient who has a tuberculosis complains that his urine has become bright orange red. Which of his current prescription medications maybe responsible?
a)
a. Rifampicin
b)
b. INH
c)
c. Ethambutol
d)
d. Erythromycin
20.
20. How many mL of a U-100 insulin should be used to obtain 40 units of insulin
a)
a. 25 mL
b)
b. 0.4 mL
c)
c. 10 mL
d)
d. 0.5 mL
e)
e. NOTA
21.
21. Which of the following compound is used as anti-microbial and a part of combination that treat or manage peptic ulcer disease?
a)
a. Aluminum chloride
b)
b. Chloride hydrate
c)
c. Bismuth subsalicylate
d)
d. Sulfur dioxide
e)
e. A and C
22.
22. Lugols solution contains 5 g of iodine per 100 mL. How many mg of iodine are contained in a 2 liter?
a)
a. 100 mg
b)
b. 100,000 mg
c)
c. 50 mg
d)
d. 50,000 mg
23.
23. If the dose of acetaminophen is 500 mg , how many doses are contained in 10 g?
a)
a. 20 doses
b)
b. 10 doses
c)
c. 50 doses
d)
d. 30 doses
24.
24. How many mL of an Amoxicillin suspension would provide a patient with 2 tbsp bid for 8 days?
a)
a. 500 mL
b)
b. 480 mL
c)
c. 240 mL
d)
d. 300 mL
25.
25. If a liquid medicine is to be taken TID, and if 180 mL are to be taken in 4 days, how many tbsp. should be prescribed for each dose?
a)
a. 15 tbsp
b)
b. 15 mL
c)
c. 1 tbsp
d)
d. 3 tbsp
26.
26. If the adult dose of a drug is 90 mg, what should be the dose for a child with a body surface area of 0.60 sq m
a)
a. 31.21 mg
b)
b. 50.47 mg
c)
c. 25.87 mg
d)
d. 32.68 mg
27.
27. What autacoids is considered as the most potent gastric acid stimulant?
a)
a. Gastrin
b)
b. Acetylcholine
c)
c. Histamine
d)
d. Epinephrine
28.
28. The majority of serotonin is located in what type of cells?
a)
a. Mast cells
b)
b. Red blood cells
c)
c. Enterochromaffin cells
d)
d. Both A and C
e)
e. AOTA
29.
29. The histamine 1 antagonist that is withdrawn from the market because of its capacity to exhibits cardiotoxicity?
a)
a. Promethazine
b)
b. Terfenadine
c)
c. Fexofenadine
d)
d. Cyproheptadine
30.
30. How many fluidounces are there in 2.5 L?
a)
a. 90 fl.oz
b)
b. 94.55 fl.oz
c)
c. 84.55 fl oz
d)
d. 80 fl.oz
31.
31. Convert 0.125% to ratio strength
a)
a. 1:500
b)
b. 1:600
c)
c. 1:250
d)
d. 1:800
32.
32. Convert 1:250 to % strength
a)
a. 0.5 %
b)
b. 0.004%
c)
c. 0.4%
d)
d. 0.005%
33.
33. Epinephrine upon oxidation will result in:
a)
a. Pink coloration
b)
b. Yellow brown coloration
c)
c. Orange coloration
d)
d. Emerald green coloration
e)
e. Foul odor
34.
34. What type of incompatibility is present in combination of Acacia and Ferrous salts?
a)
a. Cementation
b)
b. Gelatinization
c)
c. Explosive combination
d)
d. Polymerization
35.
35. How many mL of a 10% (w/v) solution can be made from a 45 g of morphine sulfate?
a)
a. 450 mL
b)
b. 45 mL
c)
c. 4500 mL
d)
d. 4.5 mL
36.
36. A pharmacist mixes 200g of 10% hydrocortisone ointment, 450 g of 5 % ointment and 1000g simple ointment as the diluent. What is the final % of hydrocortisone cream found in the finished product?
a)
a. 3.27%
b)
b. 2.58%
c)
c. 3.58%
d)
d. 4.47%
37.
37. What is the concentration in mg/mL of a solution containing 2 meq of KCl ( MW: 74.5 ) per mL
a)
a. 0.0745 mg
b)
b. 0.149 g
c)
c. 149 mg
d)
d. 0.0745 g
38.
38. How many meq of KCl are represented in a 15 mL dose of a 10% w/v KCl elixir (MW: 74.5)
a)
a. 20.13 mEq
b)
b. 15.47 mEq
c)
c. 12.34 mEq
d)
d. 17.17 meq
39.

39. What is the probable mechanism of drug interaction existing between Amphetamines and Alkalinizing agents? I. Increase excretion of amphetamines II. Increase the therapeutic activity of amphetamines III. Decrease excretion of amphetamines IV. Increase the reabsorption of amphetamines

a)

a. I only

b)

b. II and III

c)

c. III and IV

d)

d. II and IV

40.
40. Symbicort has a generic name of:
a)
a. Budenoside + Fluticasone
b)
b. Salmeterol + Formoterol
c)
c. Budenoside + Formoterol
d)
d. Fluticasone + Salmeterol
41.
41. What enzyme is known to convert the protoenzyme/zymogen “trypsinogen” to its active form trypsin?
a)
a. Bile
b)
b. Enterokinase
c)
c. Hydrochloric acid
d)
d. Lipase
e)
e. A and C
42.
42. Sucralfate is utilized as a mucosal protective that coat injured area in the stomach, what is/are the nonadsorbable disaccharide that is/are present in sucralfate?
a)
a. Sucrose and Astatine
b)
b. Fructose and Aluminum
c)
c. Galactose and Chlorine
d)
d. Sucrose and Aluminum
43.
43. A 45 year old male patient who is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing inflammation of tongue or glossitis, which anti-rheumatic drug may cause the glossitis?
a)
a. Azathiprone
b)
b. Auranofin
c)
c. Hydroxychloroquine
d)
d. Naproxen sodium
44.
44. Histamine 1 receptor blocker are useful in the treatment of all the following conditions except ?
a)
a. Urticaria
b)
b. Rhinitis
c)
c. Insomnia
d)
d. Bronchial asthma
45.
45. An immunosuppressant drug and folic acid antagonist which can also be used as anti-rheumatic medication
a)
a. Prednisolone
b)
b. Methotrexate
c)
c. Auranofin
d)
d. Hydroxychloroquine
46.
46. A 25 year old rheumatic patient is experiencing dysgeusia or distortion of the sense of taste what is the possible medication she is currently taking?
a)
a. Auranofin
b)
b. D-penicillamine
c)
c. Colchicine
d)
d. Hydroxychloroquine
47.
47. A solution contains 5% anhydrous dextrose in water for injection. How many milliosmoles per liter are represented by this concentration?
a)
a. 250.45 mOsm
b)
b. 277.78 mOsm
c)
c. 147.68 mOsm
d)
d. 126.58 mOsm
48.
48. .How many proof gallons are there in 5 wine gallons of 75% alcohol?
a)
a. 8.5 proof gallons
b)
b. 7.5 proof gallons
c)
c. 5.6. proof gallons
d)
d. 4.9 proof gallons
49.
49. If 700 mL of a 15% (v/v) solution of methylsalicylate in alcohol is diluted to 2500 mL , what will be the percentage strength (v/v)?
a)
a. 5.5%
b)
b. 4.2%
c)
c. 3.7%
d)
d. 8.4%
50.
50. The organization which develops formulary and involves in policy development and governance of medication use process
a)
a. PTC
b)
b. PPhA
c)
c. Department of Health
d)
d. Board of Pharmacy
51.
51. If a drug weighs 10 g and occupies a volume of 8.3 mL, what is the density of the substance?
a)
a. 1.20 g/mL
b)
b. 0.85 g/mL
c)
c. 0.32 g/mL
d)
d. 0.98 g/mL
52.
52. A type of drug distribution system where in all drugs are retained in the pharmacy until the order is received, and then a multiple dose supply is dispensed to the nursing unit labeled for use by a specific patient
a)
a. Floor stock
b)
b. Emergency carts
c)
c. Patient prescription system
d)
d. Unit dose dispensing system
e)
e. Decentralized system
53.
53. What type of medications may be dispensed only after the presentation of a legal prescription?
a)
a. Over-the-counter drugs
b)
b. Counterfeit drugs
c)
c. Imported drugs
d)
d. Investigational drugs
e)
e. Legend drugs
54.
54. What is the percentage of (v/v) alcohol in a mixture if 3000 mL of 40% (v/v) alcohol, 1000 mL of 60% (v/v) alcohol and 1000 mL of 70%(v/v) alcohol?
a)
a. 75%
b)
b. 25%
c)
c. 50%
d)
d. 10%
55.
55. A pharmacists reconstitutes to 10 mL q. SWFI a vial containing 1g azlocillin sodium, to this she adds 100 mL of 5% dextrose for inj for IV inj. What is the concentration in mg/mL of azlocillin in the infusion?
a)
a. 15 mg/mL
b)
b. 9.09 mg/mL
c)
c. 5.45 mg/mL
d)
d. 8.32 mg/mL
56.
56. What substance is added to formaldehyde or formalin to retard its polymerization incompatibility?
a)
a. Ethanol
b)
b. Glucose solution
c)
c. Methanol
d)
d. Sodium hydroxide
57.
57. An IV fluid of a 1L LR injection was started on a patient @ 6 am and scheduled to run for 12 hrs, @ 2 pm , 750 L was found in the bottle. At what flow rate should the remaining fluid be regulated using an IV set that delivers 12 gtts/mL to complete the schedule time.
a)
a. 52 gtts/min
b)
b. 34 gtts/min
c)
c. 62 gtts/min
d)
d. 47 gtts/min
58.
58. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:
a)
a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life
b)
b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
c)
c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half-life
d)
d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate
59.
59. The “NO SUBSTITUTION” instruction is seen on:
a)
a. erroneous prescription
b)
b. impossible prescription
c)
c. violative prescription
d)
d. NOTA
60.
60. Vitamin C is:
a)
a. Ascorbic acid
b)
b. Cevitamic acid
c)
c. Fumaric acid
d)
d. Citric acid
e)
e. A and B
61.
61. A medication order for a patient weighing 154 lbs for 0.25 mg Amphotericin B per kg BW to be added to 500 mL of 5% dextrose injection. If the Amphotericin B is to be obtained from a reconstituted injection that contains 50 mg per 100 mL. How many mL should be added to the dextrose injection?
a)
a. 25 mL
b)
b. 35 mL
c)
c. 45 mL
d)
d. 55 mL
62.
62. An initial heparin dose of NLT 150 u/kg body weight is recommended for open heart surgery. How many mL of an injection containing 5000 heparin units/mL should be administered to a 300 lb/pt?
a)
a. 2.5 mL
b)
b. 4.09 mL
c)
c. 5.2 mL
d)
d. 7.04 mL
63.
63. Enalapril, Captopril and Lisinopril are classified as antihypertensive medication which blocks which of the following enzyme?
a)
a. HMG CoA reductase
b)
b. DNA gyrase
c)
c. Kininase II
d)
d. CYP 450
e)
e. NOTA
64.

64. Which of the following Generic-Brand medications pairs is/are incorrectly paired? I. Propranolol – Inderal II. Atenolol – Therabloc III. Carvedilol- Betacard IV. Bisoprolol- Imdur

a)

a. III only

b)

b. III and IV

c)

c. IV only

d)

d. I , III and IV

65.
65. What pregnancy risk category states that “Animal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women.”
a)
a. Category A
b)
b. Catergory C
c)
c. Category B
d)
d. Category D
66.

66. Ketoconazole which is classified as an azole antifungal agent when taken simultaneously with an antacid will result in:I . Increase absorption of Ketoconazole II. Decrease absorption and effect of antacid III. Decrease dissolution and absorption of Ketoconazole IV Increase the antifungal activity of Ketoconazole

a)

a. I and IV

b)

b. III only

c)

c. II and III

d)

d. I and II

67.
67. What type of mediation error that resulted in need for treatment or intervention and caused temporary patient harm?
a)
a. Category B
b)
b. Category A
c)
c. Category E
d)
d. Category H
68.
68. What type of study design is considered as the gold standard for experimental study which compares 2 or more treatments and placebo?
a)
a. Randomized controlled clinical trial
b)
b. Cohort/Perspective study
c)
c. Case control/Retrospective study
d)
d. Cross sectional study/Prevalence study
69.
69. The pharmacoeconomic methodologies which involves identifying and measuring all the costs of providing treatment and comparing with the benefits that results
a)
a. Cost- benefit analysis
b)
b. Cost of Illness
c)
c. Cost minimization analysis
d)
d. Cost effectiveness analaysis
70.
70. Facility where patient are admitted for minor surgical procedures and discharged afterwards
a)
a. Clinic
b)
b. Birthing Home
c)
c. Ambulatory Surgery Center
d)
d. Both A and C
71.

71. A 54 year old truck driver has a consistent allergy which of the following medication is/are suitable for the patient? I Benadryl R II. Iterax R III. Telfast R IV. Claritin R

a)

a. I and III

b)

b. III and IV

c)

c. I, II and IV

d)

d. IV only

72.
72. Which of the following therapeutic uses is approved for the drug Thalidomide?
a)
a. Nausea
b)
b. Leprosy
c)
c. Gastritis
d)
d. UTI
e)
e. NOTA
73.
73. Which of the following substances may increase the absorption of the element Selenium?
a)
a. Vit E
b)
b. Vit D
c)
c. Calcium
d)
d. Iron
74.

74. It is the hypermetabolic syndrome that occurs from excessive production of thyroid hormone with classic symptoms of weight loss despite increased appetite, nervousness, palpitation, heat intolerance and insomnia I. Hypothyroidism II. Hashimoto’s disease III. Grave’s disease IV. Hyperhyroidism

a)

a. I and III

b)

b. III only

c)

c. III and IV

d)

d. II and IV

75.
75. Insulin that can be administerd via intravenous route:
a)
a. Insulin Lispro
b)
b. Regular insulin
c)
c. Ultra lente insulin
d)
d. Insulin glargine
76.
76. Which of the following benzodiazepines medication is considered as Long acting (1-3 days) ?
a)
a. Lorazepam
b)
b. Temazepam
c)
c. Oxazepam
d)
d. Flurazepam
77.
77. Medical staff who is considered as a full time practitioner and offers patient care in exchange to training
a)
a. Courtesy
b)
b. Active
c)
c. Residents
d)
d. Consultants
78.
78. Acute intermittent porphyria or simply porphyria is classified under what type of ADR?
a)
a. Type B
b)
b. Type A
c)
c. Type D
d)
d. Type C
e)
e. NOTA
79.

79. What is/are the immunoglobulin responsible for Type B ADR – Type II Cytotoxic reaction? I. IgE II. IgM III. IgG IV. IgA

a)

a. I only

b)

b. II and III

c)

c. I and IV

d)

d. II, III and IV

80.
80. Which of the following barbiturate medication is considered to have a long acting effect/action?
a)
a. Secobarbital
b)
b. Amobarbital
c)
c. Phenobarbital
d)
d. Methohexital
81.

81. Which of the following medications would increase absorption upon the presence of food? I. Captopril II. Acarbose III. Erythormycin IV. Alendronate

a)

a. II only

b)

b. I and III

c)

c. I , II and IV

d)

d. I, II ,III and IV

82.
82. What incompatibility may result in sugar (reducing agent) and sodium nitrate (oxidizing agent) combination?
a)
a. Precipitation
b)
b. Explosive combination
c)
c. Insolubility
d)
d. Eutexia
e)
e. Polymorphism
83.
83. Which of the following iron preparations is not available in an oral dosage form?
a)
a. Ferrous fumarate
b)
b. Iron dextran
c)
c. Fergon
d)
d. Ferrous gluconate
84.
84. Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?
a)
a. HMG-CoA oxidase inhibitor
b)
b. Statin drugs
c)
c. Fibric acid derivative
d)
d. Bile acid binding resin
e)
e. Both A and B
85.
85. A small part of clot that breaks off and travels to another part of the vascular system
a)
a. Embolus
b)
b. Thrombus
c)
c. Infarction
d)
d. Ischemia
e)
e. Stroke
86.
86. Most drug is classified as:
a)
a. Non electrolye
b)
b. Strong electrolyte
c)
c. Weak electrolye
d)
d. B anc C
87.
87. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:
a)
a. Sulfonamides
b)
b. Antihistamines
c)
c. Disulfiram
d)
d. Antabuse R
e)
e. C and D
88.
88. The abbreviation “collyr.” in prescription is also known as:
a)
a. Mouthwash
b)
b. Eyewash
c)
c. Continuous use
d)
d. A and B
89.
89. Which drug is commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias?
a)
a. Phenytoin
b)
b. Profapenone
c)
c. Flecainide
d)
d. Quinidine
e)
e. Propranolol
90.
90. Imipenem is a carbapenem antibiotic which needs to be combined with _______ to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to this drug?
a)
a. Clavulanic acid
b)
b. Zinc chloride
c)
c. Cilastatin sodium
d)
d. Citrate/Citric acid
91.
91. Milk of Amnesia:
a)
a. Magnesium Hydroxide
b)
b. Aluminum Hydroxide
c)
c. Propofol
d)
d. Ketamine
e)
e. A and B
92.
92. Keppra R has a generic name of:
a)
a. Mupirocin
b)
b. Kanamycin
c)
c. Levetiracetam
d)
d. Bromcriptine
93.

93. The following are true about dimercaprol except: I. British anti-Lewisite II. Indicated for Fe poisoning III. Indicated for As poisoning IV. Chemical antagonist

a)

a. I, III and IV

b)

b. I and II

c)

c. II only

d)

d. I, II and IV

94.
94. Most of the diuretic medications tend to cause the depletion of:
a)
a. sodium ion
b)
b. potassium ion
c)
c. carbonate ion
d)
d. calcium ion
95.
95. Which of the following Non steroidal Anti-inflammatory drug is/are considered as a weak base?
a)
a. Ketorolac
b)
b. Sulindac
c)
c. Ibuprofen
d)
d. Nabumetone
96.
96. Which of the following doses of aspirin exhibits anti-inflammatory mechanism or action?
a)
a. < 0.6 g/day
b)
b. 3.2 – 4 g /day
c)
c. 0.3-2.4 g/day
d)
d. <325 g/day
97.
97. Which of the following Selective COX 2 inhibitor is/are withdrawn from the market because of Cardiovascular toxicity?
a)
a. Celebrex R
b)
b. Vioxx R
c)
c. Bextra R
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. B and C
98.
98. Continous use of steroid will result on the following circumstances except?
a)
a. Hypoglycemia
b)
b. Immuno-compromised condition
c)
c. Anti-inflammatory action
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. B and C
99.
99. Which of the following medication is the equivalent drug of Somatostatin or GHIH which is given to patients with gigantism and acromegaly?
a)
a. Somatrem
b)
b. Octreotide
c)
c. Desmopressin
d)
d. Raloxifene
100.
100. Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition in which there is a persistent opening between two major blood vessels leading from the heart. Which of the following medication is used to keep the ductus arteriousus open.
a)
a. Ibuprofen
b)
b. Indomethacin
c)
c. Alprostadil
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. B and C