wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PCT Exam 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Thick walled vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called:

a)

artria

b)

vein

c)

arteries

d)

none of the above

2.

The hardest tissue of the body is:

a)

cartilage

b)

bone

c)

enamel

d)

cementum

3.

The number of chambers in the human heart is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

4.

The upper chamber of the heart is called:

a)

atrium

b)

pericardium

c)

bypass

d)

ventricle

5.

The longest part of the digestive system is called the:

a)

small intestine

b)

large intestine

c)

stomach

d)

anal canal

6.

Fixed armrests on a wheelchair are recommended for users who will be:

a)

performing a lateral swinging or sliding transfer

b)

performing standing transfers

c)

going to activities

d)

in their chair all day

7.

During an interview, the assistant/technician questions the patient as follows: "describe your pain for me. How has your appetite been? How have you been sleeping?" All of these are examples of:

a)

closed questions

b)

targeted questions

c)

judgments

d)

open-ended questions

8.

when you introduced yourself to a patient and inform them of the treatment goals, desired outcome, and potential risks, this is called:

a)

orientation

b)

interview

c)

collaboration

d)

interprofessional

9.

The use of touch by a caregiver is a form of:

a)

inappropriate communication

b)

battery

c)

ineffective communication

d)

non-verbal communication

10.

A caregivers primary responsibility is for the ______ of each patient.

a)

treatment

b)

self esteem

c)

safety

d)

health

11.

Persons who are required to lift, reach, push, pull, and carry objects should be instructed to use proper:

a)

equipment

b)

directions

c)

mechanical devices

d)

body mechanics

12.

Forces that add resistance to many activities associated with lifting, reaching, pushing, and carrying an object are:

a)

stability and balance

b)

flexion and rotation

c)

gravity and friction

d)

torque and strain

13.

Ethical decision making should be based on:

a)

the patient's wishes

b)

the technician's wishes

c)

the doctor's wishes

d)

a facilities policies

14.

When can you legally use force against a patient?

a)

never

b)

only in self defense, if you have reason to believe you are being or about to be attacked

c)

if you cannot get the patient to cooperate

d)

with permission form a family member

15.

First aid treatment for a patient having a seizure is to:

a)

put in Sim's position

b)

lay flat on back

c)

notify the doctor immediately

d)

turn to a lateral position

16.

A person who is on steroid therapy should be checked frequently for:

a)

fever

b)

signs and symptoms of infection

c)

water retention

d)

diarrhea

17.

The most common side effect of Thorazine is:

a)

adverse reaction to sun exposure

b)

fever

c)

diarrhea

d)

constipation

18.

Patient taking diuretics should be encouraged to increase their intake of:

a)

water

b)

citrus fruits and juices

c)

vegetables

d)

dairy products

19.

Common side effect associated with antibiotic therapy is:

a)

constipation

b)

fever

c)

diarrhea

d)

hives

20.

Red, swollen gums with loose teeth is a symptom of which vitamin deficiency?

a)

d

b)

a

c)

b

d)

c

21.

The body's only source of nitrogen is:

a)

protein

b)

glucose

c)

fats

d)

amino acids

22.

The food with the highest protein content is:

a)

lettuce

b)

turkey

c)

eggs

d)

apple

23.

Of the following which would be evidence of a systemic infection?

a)

decreased body temperature

b)

increased body temperature

c)

wounds won't heal

d)

no appetite

24.

Type of soak you expect to put on an open, draining wound.

a)

cold

b)

cold, moist

c)

warm, dry

d)

warm, moist

25.

Which chemical is released during an inflammatory response?

a)

histamine

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

creatine

26.

Which position is best for comatose patient?

a)

on the back

b)

on the stomach

c)

side-lying

d)

with bed elevated at feet

27.

The 2 most important elements in the selection of food for most people is taste and texture.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Carbohydrates, proteins, and _______ are the macronutrients.

a)

lipids

b)

vitamins

c)

antioxidants

d)

minerals

29.

Which of the following supplies the most amount of protein?

a)

steak

b)

cantaloupe

c)

pinto beans

d)

broccoli

30.

One example of a chemical in food that is not a nutrient is:

a)

fiber

b)

selemium

c)

starch

d)

folate

31.

The diaphragm separates the:

a)

right and left pleural cavities

b)

thoracic and abdominal cavities

c)

abdominal and pelvic cavities

d)

mediastinum and pleural cavities

32.

The respiratory center is located in what part of the brain?

a)

medulla

b)

cerebrum

c)

cerebellum

d)

hypothalamus

33.

The glomerulus is:

a)

a cell

b)

a small artery

c)

a network of capillaries

d)

a lymph node

34.

The uppermost portion of the intestine is called the:

a)

colon

b)

stomach

c)

ileum

d)

duodenum

35.

The overall chemical functioning of the body is:

a)

mitosis

b)

anatomy

c)

meiosis

d)

metabolism

36.

Which of the following is the basic unit of life?

a)

cell

b)

chromosome

c)

enzyme

d)

electrolyte

37.

Which of the following provides the hereditary information that directs all cell activities and allows the cell to reproduce?

a)

DNA

b)

enzymes

c)

RNA

d)

molecules

38.

Which of the following types of tissue form a protective covering for the body, the organs and body cavities?

a)

connective tissue

b)

muscle tissue

c)

epithelial tissue

d)

nervous tissue

39.

Which of the following types of tissue provides movement, maintains posture, and produces hear?

a)

nervous tissue

b)

epithelial tissue

c)

connective tissue

d)

muscle tissue

40.

Fat, tendons, bone, blood and lymph are examples of ________ tissue.

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

nervous

d)

muscle

41.

The first line of defense against infection is the:

a)

muscles

b)

bones

c)

skin

d)

nerves

42.

Which of the following are the framework of the body?

a)

muscles

b)

bones

c)

nerves

d)

hormones

43.

A malignant abnormal growth of the skin is a:

a)

melanoma

b)

wart

c)

mole

d)

rash

44.

Which of the following is ball and socket joit?

a)

the wrist

b)

the hip

c)

the knee and elbow

d)

the spine

45.

Bending your elbow is an example of:

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

46.

How many cranial nerves are there?

a)

4 pairs

b)

8 pairs

c)

12 pairs

d)

16 pairs

47.

Which of the following are special senses?

a)

heat and cold

b)

pain and pressure

c)

vision, hearing, taste, and smell

d)

touch and body position

48.

The bones of fingers are called:

a)

navicular

b)

lunate

c)

phalanges

d)

hamate

49.

Which of the following is the name of the fluid tha heart floats in?

a)

serious fluid

b)

pericardial fluid

c)

myocardial fluid

d)

endocardial fluid

50.

Coronary circulation is the medical term describing circulation of the blood through?

a)

the lungs

b)

the body

c)

the vessels

d)

the heart

51.

Conducting away is referred to as:

a)

afferent

b)

efference

c)

efferent

d)

none of the above

52.

Sublingual glands are located:

a)

on the tip of the tongue

b)

on the thyroid

c)

on the larynx

d)

under the tongue

53.

The spleen is located in the:

a)

pericardium

b)

left hypochondriac region

c)

anal canal

d)

labyrinth

54.

Which of the following has the least pressure?

a)

arteries

b)

capillaries

c)

veins

d)

none of the above

55.

The medical term for high blood pressure is:

a)

hypertension

b)

hypotension

c)

hyperpnea

d)

dyspnea

56.

In order to get a clear EKG tracing the patient must be lying:

a)

quietly in the prone position

b)

in the Trendelenburg position

c)

in the Sims position

d)

in the supine position

57.

Where will the electrodes be placed to record the augmented leads of the 12 lead EKG?

a)

chest

b)

arms and legs

c)

head

d)

abdomen

58.

The EKG machine can pick up interference from which of the following sources?

a)

other electrical machinery

b)

electrical wall outlets

c)

the patient

d)

all of the above

59.

To measure the atrial rate on the EKG, you will count which of the following?

a)

the QRS complexes

b)

the P wave

c)

the R waves

d)

the PR intervals

60.

The U wave can be defined as which of the following?

a)

is sometimes seen, but not often

b)

it can mean an electrolyte problem (K decrease)

c)

It may be normal for that patient

d)

all of the above are true of the U wave

61.

Which of the following information must be used to label an EKG when the EKG machine does not automatically label the strip?

a)

patient name ad ID number

b)

time and date the EKG was done

c)

the EKG technician's initial

d)

all of the above

62.

Which of the following leads are recorded from the 6 chest electrodes?

a)

lead 1, lead2, lead 3

b)

AVR, AVL, AVF

c)

leads V1-V6

d)

both A and B

63.

How many leads are recorded strictly from the 4 extremities electrodes?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

12

d)

10

64.

When would the technician need to adjust the paper speed?

a)

when the heart rate is rapid

b)

when certain segments of a complex are close together

c)

always when the patient is having bradycardia

d)

both a and b

65.

V4 is considered which of the following?

a)

bipolar limb lead

b)

augmented or unipolar limb lead

c)

chest or precordial lead

d)

none of the above

66.

The standardization of the EKG machine on each machine tells the technician which of the following?

a)

testing of the amplifier sensitivity

b)

stylus response

c)

check of the instrument's settings

d)

all of the above

67.

V6 considered which of the following?

a)

bipolar limb leads

b)

augmented or unipolar limb lead

c)

chest precordial lead

d)

none of the above

68.

Which of the following is the internationally accepted standard speed for the EKG machine?

a)

50 mm/sec

b)

20 mm/sec

c)

75 mm/sec

d)

25 mm/sec

69.

Lead I is considered which of the following?

a)

bipolar limb lead

b)

augmented or unipolar limb lead

c)

chest or precordial lead

d)

none of the above

70.

Which limb is positive in the AVF lead?

a)

right arm

b)

left arm

c)

right leg

d)

left leg

71.

A rhythm strip is which of the following?

a)

is in addition to the 12 leads

b)

ordered by the color

c)

helps the doctor see the complete rhythm of the heart

d)

all of the above

72.

The vertical scale of the ECG paper measures which of the following?

a)

size

b)

time

c)

voltage

d)

all of the above

73.

In lead three which of the following electrical impulses are recorded?

a)

right and left arm

b)

right arm and left leg

c)

left arm and left leg

d)

right and left leg

74.

How many electrodes make up the 12 lead EKG?

a)

12

b)

10

c)

14

d)

8

75.

The standard leads are comprised of which of the following leads?

a)

AVR, AVL, AVF

b)

lead 1,2,3

c)

V leads

d)

both a and b

76.

When the monitor shows a straight like you should begin troubleshooting by checking which of the following?

a)

attachment of the lead wire

b)

on-off switch

c)

lead selector switch

d)

all of the above

77.

Which wave form would not be seen in a normal ECG?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS

c)

V wave

d)

T wave

78.

Which of the patient's limbs are the ground lead?

a)

right leg

b)

left leg

c)

right arm

d)

left arm

79.

A positive wave will be pointing in which of the following directions?

a)

upward

b)

downward

c)

toward the negative connection

d)

away from the negative connection

80.

Encephal means:

a)

head

b)

skull

c)

brain

d)

none of the choices

81.

The abbreviation for blood pressure is

a)

BP

b)

BLP

c)

BPR

d)

BPP

82.

The abbreviation for urine culture is:

a)

UC

b)

ur

c)

ue

d)

un

83.

Hysteropathy refers to:

a)

any uterine disorder

b)

a suture

c)

any excision

d)

none of the choices

84.

Paralysis of the lower limbs and at varying degrees of the lower trunk is called:

a)

paraplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

paresis

d)

paresthesia

85.

A condition characterized by frequent liquid stools:

a)

colitis

b)

diarrhea

c)

flatus

d)

NONE OF THE CHOICES

86.

A critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is known as:

a)

renal failure

b)

polycystic kidney

c)

pyelonephritis

d)

spastic colon

87.

A condition characterized by alternating periods of constipation and diarrhea:

a)

ulcerative colitis

b)

spastic colon

c)

pancreatitis

d)

all of the choices

88.

A bulge in an artery caused by weakening of its wall is

a)

anastomosis

b)

adenoma

c)

acrocyanosis

d)

aneurysm

89.

A deficiency of either red blood cells, or hemoglobin, or both is

a)

aneurysm

b)

adenoma

c)

acrocyanosis

d)

anemia

90.

An excess of potassium

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hyperochromic

c)

hyperkalemia

d)

hyponatremia

91.

An excess of sodium in the blood

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypernatremia

c)

hypochromic

d)

hypokalemia

92.

Resistance to disease or infection is

a)

antibody

b)

immunity

c)

inoculation

d)

none of the above

93.

Inflammation of the brain is referred to as

a)

encephalitis

b)

ancephalitis

c)

endocarditis

d)

none of the above

94.

The relaxation phase of the heart is called the

a)

systole

b)

pulse

c)

diastole

d)

cardiac cycle

95.

Which of the following can lead to an increase in the level of enzymes present in the circulation?

a)

heart damage

b)

exercise

c)

diet

d)

sitting up quickly

96.

What does the suffix "-stasis" mean?

a)

disease

b)

breakdown

c)

stopping or controlling

d)

condition

97.

A general lack of appetite is called:

a)

aphagia

b)

anorexia

c)

anaphagia

d)

bulimia

98.

The suffix "-emia" refers to

a)

pus

b)

blood

c)

urine

d)

water

99.

Three diseases that are transmitted only by direct contact with blood or body fluids are:

a)

Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis A, hepatitis c, and AIDS

c)

Scarlet fever, AIDS and hepatitis C

d)

hepatitis B, Hepatitis C and AIDS

100.

A body temperature over 105 F (fever) is called:

a)

hypothermia

b)

pyrexia

c)

continuous fever

d)

hyperpyrexia

Similar Resources on Wayground

Kompetensi Teknis HOTS

100 questions

Kompetensi Teknis HOTS

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Deloitte (Aptitude Test)

100 questions

Deloitte (Aptitude Test)

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Traffic Code

100 questions

Traffic Code

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

JK Mock Module 4

100 questions

JK Mock Module 4

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

Hacker Academy - Ethical Hacking Quiz

100 questions

Hacker Academy - Ethical Hacking Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

manajjemen Intelijen menghadapi kejahatan Siber

100 questions

manajjemen Intelijen menghadapi kejahatan Siber

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

NURSING PRACTICE 3 📌 FINAL PROOF READ MAY NLE 2022

98 questions

NURSING PRACTICE 3 📌 FINAL PROOF READ MAY NLE 2022

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development

D4(RAH) MASTER THE DAY

101 questions

D4(RAH) MASTER THE DAY

quiz

Worksheet

•

Professional Development