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Worksheets

Day 1 - Pre Course Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Objective 1.1: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications?

a)

Application layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Network layer

d)

Session layer

2.

Objective 1.1: In which layer of the OSI model do switches and bridges operate?

a)

Physical layer

b)

Data Link layer

c)

Network layer

d)

Transport layer

3.

Objective 1.1: Which encapsulation protocol is commonly used in virtual private network (VPN) implementations?

a)

HTTP

b)

SSL/TLS

c)

PPP

d)

UDP

4.

Objective 1.2: Which network topology uses a central connecting point to which all network devices are connected?

a)

Bus

b)

Ring

c)

Star

d)

Mesh

5.

Objective 1.2: Which network type typically covers a small geographic area, such as a single building or campus?

a)

LAN (Local Area Network)

b)

WAN (Wide Area Network)

c)

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

d)

PAN (Personal Area Network)

6.

Objective 1.2: What is a characteristic of a mesh network topology?

a)

Low fault tolerance

b)

Centralized control

c)

Redundant paths

d)

Limited scalability

7.

Objective 1.3: Which cable type is commonly used for long-distance data transmission and is often used in WAN connections?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6

c)

Fiber optic

d)

Coaxial

8.

Objective 1.3: Which connector type is commonly used for terminating twisted pair Ethernet cables?

a)

RJ45

b)

LC

c)

ST

d)

BNC

9.

Objective 1.3: Which cable type is typically used to connect networking devices within a building or office environment?

a)

Coaxial

b)

Fiber optic

c)

Cat 5e

d)

HDMI

10.

Objective 1.4: What is the subnet mask for the IP address 192.168.1.0/24?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

255.255.255.255

11.

Objective 1.4: What is the default gateway for the IP address 10.0.0.15/24?

a)

10.0.0.1

b)

10.0.0.254

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

127.0.0.1

12.

Objective 1.4: In a scenario where a company needs to divide its network into four subnets, which subnet mask should be used?

a)

/25

b)

/26

c)

/27

d)

/28

13.

Objective 1.5: Which protocol is commonly used for secure file transfer over a network?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

SSH

d)

SNMP

14.

Objective 1.5: Which port does the SMTP protocol typically use?

a)

25

b)

53

c)

80

d)

443

15.

Objective 1.5: Which protocol is used for resolving domain names to IP addresses?

a)

HTTP

b)

DNS

c)

DHCP

d)

FTP

16.

Objective 1.6: What network service translates domain names into IP addresses?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

SMTP

d)

FTP

17.

Objective 1.6: Which network service assigns IP addresses dynamically to devices on a network?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

SNMP

d)

FTP

18.

Objective 1.6: What network service provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

SNMP

d)

RADIUS

19.

Objective 1.7: In a traditional three-tier network architecture, what is the function of the access layer?

a)

Provides connectivity to end-user devices

b)

Aggregates traffic from multiple access switches

c)

Routes traffic between different VLANs

d)

Provides high-speed connectivity between distribution switches

20.

Objective 1.7: Which network architecture provides fault tolerance and high availability by eliminating single points of failure through redundant components?

a)

Bus topology

b)

Ring topology

c)

Mesh topology

d)

Star topology

21.

Objective 1.7: In a datacenter network architecture, what is the purpose of a top-of-rack (ToR) switch?

a)

Provides connectivity to end-user devices

b)

Aggregates traffic from multiple access switches

c)

Provides high-speed connectivity between distribution switches

d)

Provides connectivity to servers within a rack

22.

Objective 1.8: What is a characteristic of a public cloud deployment model?

a)

Shared infrastructure for exclusive use by a single organization

b)

Infrastructure managed and operated solely by the cloud provider

c)

Infrastructure shared by multiple organizations with varying levels of control

d)

Dedicated infrastructure managed by a third-party service provider

23.

Objective 1.8: Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources over the internet on a pay-as-you-go basis?

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

d)

Function as a Service (FaaS)

24.

Objective 1.8: What is a benefit of using a hybrid cloud deployment model?

a)

Reduced control over data security

b)

Limited scalability and flexibility

c)

Ability to leverage both public and private cloud resources

d)

Higher operational costs compared to other deployment models

25.

Objective 2.1: Which network device operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model and makes routing decisions based on IP addresses?

a)

Switch

b)

Repeater

c)

Hub

d)

Router

26.

Objective 2.1: Which network device is used to connect multiple devices within the same broadcast domain and operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

Repeater

27.

Objective 2.1: In a network topology, which device is typically used to extend the reach of a network segment by amplifying signals?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Repeater

d)

Hub

28.

Objective 2.1: Which routing protocol uses hop count as the primary metric for making routing decisions?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

EIGRP

d)

BGP

29.

Objective 2.1: Which Ethernet switching feature is used to prevent loops in a network topology?

a)

VLANs

b)

Port mirroring

c)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

d)

Link aggregation

30.

Objective 2.2: Which routing protocol typically uses the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm to calculate the best path to a destination?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

31.

Objective 2.2: Which routing protocol is commonly used between autonomous systems on the internet?

a)

OSPF

b)

RIP

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

32.

Objective 2.2: Which bandwidth management concept ensures that certain types of network traffic are prioritized over others?

a)

QoS (Quality of Service)

b)

Load balancing

c)

Bandwidth shaping

d)

Route aggregation

33.

Objective 2.2: Which routing protocol uses hop count as its metric and employs the split horizon and poison reverse techniques to prevent routing loops?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

34.

Objective 2.2: Which routing protocol uses a hybrid approach incorporating aspects of distance vector and link-state routing algorithms?

a)

RIP

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

EIGRP

35.

Objective 2.3: Which Ethernet switching feature allows a single physical switch to operate as multiple logical switches?

a)

VLANs

b)

Port mirroring

c)

Trunking

d)

Link aggregation

36.

Objective 2.3: In a switched network, which feature is used to dynamically assign MAC addresses to specific switch ports?

a)

VLANs

b)

Port security

c)

Trunking

d)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

37.

Objective 2.3: Which Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) variant provides faster convergence and is an improvement over the original STP?

a)

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

b)

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

c)

Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol (PVSTP)

d)

Common Spanning Tree Protocol (CSTP)

38.

Objective 2.3: What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?

a)

To connect different VLANs together

b)

To prevent broadcast storms

c)

To segment a single broadcast domain into multiple broadcast domains

d)

To provide redundancy in the event of link failures

39.

Objective 2.3: In a Layer 2 switch, what is the purpose of the MAC address table?

a)

To map IP addresses to MAC addresses for routing purposes

b)

To store information about connected devices and their associated MAC addresses

c)

To facilitate communication between devices in different VLANs

d)

To perform packet forwarding based on IP addresses

40.

Objective 2.4: Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHz frequency range and provides higher data rates than 802.11b/g?

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11b

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11n

41.

Objective 2.4: What is the primary purpose of SSIDs (Service Set Identifiers) in a wireless network?

a)

To authenticate users connecting to the network

b)

To encrypt data transmitted over the network

c)

To uniquely identify different wireless networks

d)

To manage Quality of Service (QoS) for network traffic

42.

Objective 2.4: Which wireless security protocol provides the highest level of security by utilizing dynamic encryption keys?

a)

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)

b)

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)

c)

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)

d)

None of the above

43.

Objective 2.4: What is the purpose of configuring multiple SSIDs on a single access point?

a)

To increase the range of the wireless network

b)

To provide separate network access for different user groups or purposes

c)

To improve the data transfer speed of the wireless network

d)

To enhance the security of the wireless network

44.

Objective 3.1: What network monitoring tool is commonly used to measure network bandwidth utilization over time?

a)

ping

b)

ipconfig

c)

netstat

d)

SNMP

45.

Objective 3.1: In a network environment, what does the term "jitter" refer to?

a)

A sudden increase in network latency

b)

The fluctuation in packet arrival times

c)

The amount of time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination

d)

The total amount of data transferred over the network

46.

Objective 3.1: What does the term "CRC errors" refer to in the context of network interfaces?

a)

Errors that occur during cable installation

b)

Errors detected during the CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) process on received frames

c)

Errors related to IP address conflicts

d)

Errors caused by network congestion

47.

Objective 3.1: What does the term "duplex" refer to in the context of network interfaces?

a)

The number of cables used for network connections

b)

The speed of data transmission over the network

c)

The ability of a network interface to transmit and receive data simultaneously

d)

The method used to route packets between networks

48.

Objective 3.1: Which network statistic/sensor would be most appropriate for monitoring the temperature within a server room?

a)

Bandwidth utilization

b)

Network latency

c)

CPU usage

d)

Environmental sensors

49.

Objective 3.2: What is the primary purpose of a remote access policy in an organization?

a)

To define the acceptable use of company-owned devices

b)

To regulate the use of personal devices on the corporate network

c)

To establish guidelines for accessing the network from external locations

d)

To determine the allocation of network bandwidth among different departments

50.

Objective 3.2: What document outlines the steps required to restore critical network services after a catastrophic event?

a)

Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

b)

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

c)

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

d)

Change Management Policy

51.

Objective 3.2: What is the primary purpose of a data loss prevention (DLP) policy?

a)

To regulate the use of personal devices on the corporate network

b)

To establish guidelines for accessing the network from external locations

c)

To prevent unauthorized access to confidential data and prevent data leaks

d)

To determine the allocation of network bandwidth among different departments

52.

Objective 3.2: What document outlines the steps required to restore critical network services after a catastrophic event?

a)

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

b)

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

c)

Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

d)

Change Management Policy

53.

Objective 3.2: What is the primary purpose of a service-level agreement (SLA) between a company and its network service provider?

a)

To define the responsibilities and expectations of both parties

b)

To outline the company's security policies and procedures

c)

To specify the acceptable use of company resources by employees

d)

To establish guidelines for employee performance evaluations

54.

Objective 3.3: What is the primary goal of implementing a hot site in a disaster recovery plan?

a)

To provide temporary workspace for employees during a disaster

b)

To store backup data offsite in a secure location

c)

To maintain continuous operations with minimal downtime during a disaster

d)

To archive historical network logs and configurations

55.

Objective 3.3: Which metric measures the average time it takes to repair a network service after a failure occurs?

a)

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

b)

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

c)

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

d)

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

56.

Objective 3.3: What is the primary goal of implementing a warm site in a disaster recovery plan?

a)

To provide temporary workspace for employees during a disaster

b)

To store backup data offsite in a secure location

c)

To maintain continuous operations with minimal downtime during a disaster

d)

To archive historical network logs and configurations

57.

Objective 3.3: Which metric measures the average time it takes for a network service to fail?

a)

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

b)

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

c)

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

d)

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

58.

Objective 3.3: What is the primary purpose of implementing redundant hardware or clusters in a network infrastructure?

a)

To provide additional network bandwidth for increased performance

b)

To ensure data integrity and prevent unauthorized access to confidential data

c)

To maintain continuous operations and minimize downtime in case of hardware failures

d)

To optimize network traffic and improve network efficiency

59.

Objective 3.3: What is the purpose of a recovery time objective (RTO) in disaster recovery planning?

a)

To define the maximum tolerable downtime for critical network services

b)

To establish guidelines for network performance monitoring and management

c)

To outline the procedures for recovering data from backup storage

d)

To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and industry standards

60.

Objective 4.1: What does the principle of "least privilege" refer to in the context of network security?

a)

Allowing users access to only the resources they need to perform their job functions

b)

Providing unrestricted access to all network resources for increased efficiency

c)

Encrypting all data transmissions to prevent interception by unauthorized users

d)

Implementing multiple layers of security to protect against various types of threats

61.

Objective 4.1: Which authentication method requires users to provide multiple pieces of evidence to verify their identity?

a)

LDAP

b)

Kerberos

c)

Multifactor authentication

d)

Single sign-on (SSO)

62.

Objective 4.1: What is the purpose of conducting a vulnerability assessment?

a)

To identify potential security risks and threats to an organization's network

b)

To actively attempt to exploit weaknesses in a network's defenses

c)

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity and potential breaches

d)

To determine the overall security posture of an organization's network infrastructure

63.

Objective 4.1: Which security concept involves implementing multiple layers of defense mechanisms to protect against various types of threats?

a)

Least privilege

b)

Role-based access control

c)

Zero Trust

d)

Defense in depth

64.

Objective 4.2: Which type of attack involves flooding a network or system with excessive traffic to overwhelm its capacity and disrupt normal operations?

a)

Denial-of-service (DoS)/distributed denial-of-service (DDoS)

b)

DNS poisoning

c)

ARP spoofing

d)

Social engineering

65.

Objective 4.2: What is the primary objective of a phishing attack?

a)

To flood a network with excessive traffic

b)

To impersonate a legitimate website to steal sensitive information

c)

To intercept and modify DNS resolution requests

d)

To compromise user credentials by tricking them into disclosing personal information

66.

Objective 4.2: Which type of attack involves an attacker intercepting and altering communication between two parties without their knowledge?

a)

Ransomware

b)

VLAN hopping

c)

On-path attack

d)

MAC spoofing

67.

Objective 4.2: What type of attack involves creating a fraudulent wireless access point that mimics a legitimate network to intercept data transmitted by unsuspecting users?

a)

Evil twin

b)

Brute-force

c)

MAC spoofing

d)

Deauthentication

68.

Objective 4.3: In a corporate network environment, the IT department wants to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to network switches and compromising security. Which network hardening technique should the IT department implement to achieve this objective?

a)

Router Advertisement (RA) Guard

b)

Port security

c)

Patch and firmware management

d)

Firewall rules

69.

Objective 4.3: A network administrator is concerned about potential ARP spoofing attacks on the company's network. Which network hardening technique should the administrator implement to mitigate the risk of ARP spoofing?

a)

Dynamic ARP inspection

b)

Wireless client isolation

c)

Role-based access

d)

MAC filtering

70.

Objective 4.3: A small business owner wants to improve the security of their wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which network hardening technique should the owner implement to control access to the wireless network based on the MAC addresses of wireless client devices?

a)

Geofencing

b)

Private VLANs

c)

MAC filtering

d)

Captive portal

71.

Objective 4.3: A network administrator wants to enhance the security of their organization's network infrastructure by enforcing strict access control policies. Which network hardening technique should the administrator implement to control access to network resources based on user roles and permissions?

a)

Access control list

b)

Wireless client isolation

c)

Router Advertisement (RA) Guard

d)

Geofencing

72.

Objective 4.4: In a corporate network environment, employees need to securely access the company's internal network resources from remote locations. Which remote access method should the IT department implement to establish a secure connection for individual users without requiring the installation of client software?

a)

Site-to-site VPN

b)

Remote desktop connection

c)

Client-to-site VPN

d)

Remote desktop gateway

73.

Objective 4.4: A network administrator needs to remotely manage network devices located in a secure datacenter. Which remote access method should the administrator use to securely access and manage the network devices through an encrypted channel?

a)

Virtual network computing (VNC)

b)

Remote desktop gateway

c)

SSH

d)

Virtual desktop

74.

Objective 4.4: An organization wants to provide remote access to internal network resources for employees using personal devices while maintaining security. Which remote access method should the organization implement to allow secure access without requiring the installation of VPN client software?

a)

In-band management

b)

Remote desktop connection

c)

Clientless VPN

d)

Site-to-site VPN

75.

Objective 4.4: A network administrator needs to remotely manage network devices located in a branch office using a dedicated management network separate from the production network. Which remote access method should the administrator use to ensure secure out-of-band management of network devices?

a)

Remote desktop connection

b)

In-band management

c)

Remote desktop gateway

d)

Site-to-site VPN

76.

Objective 4.5: An organization is concerned about unauthorized access to its server room. Which physical security prevention method should the organization implement to control access to the server room entrance?

a)

Camera

b)

Motion detection

c)

Access control vestibule

d)

Employee training

77.

Objective 4.5: A company wants to enhance the physical security of its network equipment stored in a datacenter. Which prevention method should the company implement to secure the network equipment from unauthorized access?

a)

Tamper detection

b)

Smart lockers

c)

Asset tags

d)

Biometrics

78.

Objective 4.5: A company wants to improve its asset management practices to prevent unauthorized removal of network equipment. Which detection method should the company implement to track the physical location of network assets?

a)

Employee training

b)

Motion detection

c)

Asset tags

d)

Tamper detection

79.

Objective 5.1: A user reports that they are unable to access the internet from their workstation. What is the first step in the troubleshooting methodology to address this issue?

a)

Gather information

b)

Identify symptoms

c)

Question users

d)

Determine if anything has changed

80.

Objective 5.1: After identifying the symptoms of a network problem, what should be the next step in the troubleshooting methodology?

a)

Establish a theory of probable cause

b)

Implement the solution

c)

Verify full system functionality

d)

Document findings

81.

Objective 5.1: A network administrator observes that several users are experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. Which step in the troubleshooting methodology involves testing theories to determine the cause of the problem?

a)

Identify the problem

b)

Establish a plan of action

c)

Test the theory

d)

Implement the solution

82.

Objective 5.2: A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two devices connected via Ethernet cable. The technician notices that the LED status indicators on both devices are not lit. Which common cable issue is most likely causing this problem?

a)

Attenuation

b)

Interference

c)

Incorrect pinout

d)

Open/short

83.

Objective 5.2: A network administrator is troubleshooting a slow network connection issue between two offices connected via fiber optic cables. Which tool would be most appropriate for identifying the location of the issue and measuring the signal loss along the fiber optic cable?

a)

Cable crimper

b)

Multimeter

c)

Optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR)

d)

Spectrum analyzer

84.

Objective 5.2: A network technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue and suspects that incorrect pinout on an Ethernet cable may be the cause. Which tool can the technician use to verify the pinout configuration of the cable?

a)

Cable tester

b)

Punchdown tool

c)

Tone generator

d)

Loopback adapter

85.

Objective 5.2: A network engineer is troubleshooting a network segment experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. The engineer suspects interference from nearby electrical devices may be causing the problem. Which cable consideration is relevant to this scenario?

a)

Shielded and unshielded

b)

Plenum and riser-rated

c)

Rollover cable/console cable

d)

Crossover cable

86.

Objective 5.3: A network administrator suspects that a specific network device is experiencing high latency. Which network software tool would be most appropriate for measuring latency between the administrator's workstation and the target device?

a)

WiFi analyzer

b)

Protocol analyzer/packet capture

c)

Bandwidth speed tester

d)

ping

87.

Objective 5.3: A network technician needs to identify the IP addresses and MAC addresses of devices connected to a local network segment. Which command line tool would be most appropriate for this task?

a)

arp

b)

ipconfig

c)

dig

d)

tracert

88.

Objective 5.3: A network engineer suspects that a particular network port on a router may be blocked by a firewall. Which network software tool can the engineer use to scan for open ports on the router?

a)

WiFi analyzer

b)

Bandwidth speed tester

c)

Port scanner

d)

ifconfig

89.

Objective 5.3: A network administrator needs to perform a packet capture to analyze network traffic between two devices. Which network software tool is most suitable for this task?

a)

WiFi analyzer

b)

Bandwidth speed tester

c)

Protocol analyzer/packet capture

d)

iperf

90.

Objective 5.3: A network technician needs to check the routing table on a router to troubleshoot a connectivity issue. Which command line tool should the technician use?

a)

ping

b)

ifconfig

c)

traceroute

d)

route

91.

Objective 5.4: A user reports intermittent connectivity issues with their wireless device in a particular area of the office. Which troubleshooting step should be taken first to address this problem?

a)

Check the device's battery level

b)

Verify the SSID and passphrase settings

c)

Perform a site survey

d)

Restart the wireless access point (AP)

92.

Objective 5.4: A network technician observes that multiple wireless access points (APs) in a building are all configured to use the same wireless channel. What is the likely cause of poor wireless performance in this scenario?

a)

Antenna cable attenuation/signal loss

b)

Encryption protocol mismatch

c)

Channel overlap

d)

Insufficient wireless coverage

93.

Objective 5.4: A user is unable to connect to the company's wireless network despite entering the correct SSID and passphrase. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

a)

RF attenuation/signal loss

b)

Incorrect encryption protocol

c)

Insufficient wireless coverage

d)

Antenna cable attenuation/signal loss

94.

Objective 5.4: A network administrator suspects that interference from nearby electronic devices is causing wireless connectivity issues in a particular area. Which troubleshooting step should be taken to address this problem?

a)

Adjust the AP's power settings

b)

Perform a site survey

c)

Check for channel overlap

d)

Install a repeater

95.

Objective 5.4: A user reports experiencing slow wireless speeds despite being in close proximity to the wireless access point (AP). What should the network technician check first to troubleshoot this issue?

a)

Received signal strength indication (RSSI) signal strength

b)

Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)/power settings

c)

Channel utilization

d)

Antenna placement

96.

Objective 5.5: A user reports intermittent connectivity issues when accessing resources on the company network. After reviewing the device configuration, the network technician notices that the subnet mask is set incorrectly. Which common issue does this misconfiguration likely cause?

a)

Duplicate IP address

b)

Incorrect DNS

c)

Asymmetrical routing

d)

Incorrect gateway

97.

Objective 5.5: A network administrator suspects that a broadcast storm is occurring on the network due to excessive traffic. Which tool or command can the administrator use to identify the source of the broadcast storm?

a)

ping

b)

netstat

c)

traceroute

d)

Protocol analyzer/packet capture

98.

Objective 5.5: A user is unable to access the internet despite having a valid IP address and successful connectivity to the local network. After troubleshooting, the network technician discovers that the DNS settings on the user's device are incorrect. Which common issue does this misconfiguration likely cause?

a)

Incorrect gateway

b)

Incorrect subnet mask

c)

DNS issues

d)

IP setting issues

99.

Objective 5.5: A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two remote sites. After reviewing the routing tables, the administrator notices that there is no route to the destination network. Which common issue does this misconfiguration likely cause?

a)

Missing route

b)

Incorrect VLAN

c)

Routing loops

d)

Duplicate MAC address

100.

Objective 5.5: A network technician observes unusually high CPU usage on a router during peak hours, leading to degraded network performance. Which common issue does this observation likely indicate?

a)

Collisions

b)

Hardware failure

c)

Multicast flooding

d)

Rogue DHCP server