WorksheetsJk Mock Module 6
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. What is the % purity of 0.1025 g Sodium chloride if it used 11.70 mL of 0.1155 N Silver Nitrate?
a)
a. 76.47%
b)
b. 54.35%
c)
c. 100.00%
d)
d. 57.12%
2.
2. What indicator should used in Weak Acid + Strong Base?
a)
a. Methyl Red
b)
b. Methyl Orange
c)
c. Phenolphthalein
d)
d. Bromocresol green
3.
3. What is the normality of Sulfuric acid if 0.5432 g Sodium Carbonate requires 21.5 mL of the standard solution?
a)
a. 0.0530 N
b)
b. 0.4785 N
c)
c. 0.5247 N
d)
d. 0.7892 N
4.
4. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxide.
a)
a. Benzoic acid
b)
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c)
c. Sodium carbonate
d)
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
5.
5. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom.
a)
a. Monodentate
b)
b. Bidentate
c)
c. Tridentate
d)
d. Tetradentate
e)
e. A and B
6.
6. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
a)
a. Solubilizing agent
b)
b. Change in pH of the solution
c)
c. As preservative
d)
d. All of the choices
7.
7. What color of the complex results from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline?
a)
a. blue
b)
b. red
c)
c. pink
d)
d. violet
8.
8. What indicator will be used in iodometric method of analysis?
a)
a. KMnO4
b)
b. Methyl red TS
c)
c. Methyl orange TS
d)
d. Starch TS
9.
9. What is the indicator utilized in redox titration using KMnO4?
a)
a. Starch TS
b)
b. KMnO4
c)
c. Methyl red TS
d)
d. Methyl orange
10.
10. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely used
a)
method for determining nitrogen in substance.
b)
a. Non-aqueous titrimetry
c)
b. Precipitation
d)
c. Redox itration
e)
d. Kjeldahl method
11.
11. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is:
a)
a. Desiccator
b)
b. Separatory funnel
c)
c. Furnace
d)
d. Incubator
12.
12. Calculate the magnesium oxide content of milk of magnesia, 12.3255 g which was dissolved in 50 mL of 1.0340 N sulphuric acid producing a mixture that required 24.60 mL of 1.1255 N NaOH
a)
a. 5.21 %
b)
b. 3.90 %
c)
c. 2.52%
d)
d. 52.1%
13.
13. Eosin Y is also known as
a)
a. Dichlorofluorescein
b)
b. Tetrabromophenolpthalein
c)
c. Tetrabromofluorescein
d)
d. Bromocresol green
14.
14. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
a)
a. Amylopectin
b)
b. Amylose
c)
c. Glucose
d)
d. Sucrose
15.
15. What weight of potassium biphthalate is needed to standardize 12.7 mL of 0.1150 N NaOH?
a)
a. 0.2979 g
b)
b. 0.7841 g
c)
c. 0.5841 g
d)
d. 0.3947 g
16.
16. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloid is determined.
a)
a. Ultimate
b)
b. Specific
c)
c. Proximate
d)
d. Extraction
17.
17. The primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is:
a)
a. Anhydrous sodium carbonated
b)
b. Sodium tartrate
c)
c. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d)
d. Sodium oxalate
18.
18. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using:
a)
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b)
b. Potassium phthalate
c)
c. Sodium oxalate
d)
d. Tromethamine
19.
19. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as:
a)
a. Hub’s method
b)
b. Wij’s method
c)
c. Hanus method
d)
d. All of the choices
20.
20. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + - 25°C. This temperature is represented by:
a)
a. Very dull heat
b)
b. Dull red heat
c)
c. White red heat
d)
d. Bright red heat
21.
21. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:
a)
a. Method I c
b)
b. Method II
c)
c. Method I a
d)
d. Method III
22.
22. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is known as:
a)
a. Acidimetry
b)
b. Alkalimetry
c)
c. Compleximetry
d)
d. Redox Titration
23.
23. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is :
a)
a. Oxalic acid
b)
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c)
c. Vinegar
d)
d. Bromine solution
24.
24. What color will be the result if the indicator phenolphthalein was placed in sodium hydroxide solution ?
a)
a. Yellow
b)
b. Pink
c)
c. Colorless
d)
d. Blue
25.
25. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of 1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is:
a)
a. Acid value
b)
b. Ester value
c)
c. Hydroxyl value
d)
d. Saponification value
26.
26. Which of the following compound is considered as an oxidizing agent?
a)
a. Ascorbic acid
b)
b. KMnO4
c)
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d)
d. Sodium nitrite
e)
e. A and C
27.
27. Which of the following antiviral drugs inhibits the uncoating of the influenza virus?
a)
a. Interferon
b)
b. Oseltamivir
c)
c. Didanosine
d)
d. Amatadine
28.
28. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet:
a)
a. Bioavailability
b)
b. Hardness and thickness
c)
c. Weight variation
d)
d. Disintegration
29.
29. Which of the following bacteria is used as a biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:
a)
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b)
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c)
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d)
d. Lactobacillus plantrarune
e)
e. A and B
30.
30. Gram staining is the most commonly used in differential staining, What is the role of Saffranin in Gram staining technique?
a)
a. Primary Stain
b)
b. Secondary Stain
c)
c. Counter stain
d)
d. A and C
e)
e. B and C
31.
31. Hydrolysis products of ASA will produce:<br /><br />I. Acetic Acid<br />II. Benzoic Acid<br />III. Salicylic Acid<br />IV. Tartaric Acid
a)
a. I only
b)
b. I and III
c)
c. II and III
d)
d. I,III and IV
32.
32. Which of the following bacteria has a distinct chinese letter characteristics?
a)
a. Corynebacterium diptheriae
b)
b. Bacillus subtilus
c)
c. Staphlycoccus aureus
d)
d. Bacillus cereus
33.
33. Mike was preparing curry for his meal , while cooking he forgot to wash his hands after going to the comfort room. Which causative agent would most likely not be transmitted.
a)
a. Salmonella typhi
b)
b. Taenia solium
c)
c. Entamoeba histplytica
d)
d. Toxoplasma gondii
34.
34. Which of the following immunoglobulin is present during an allergic reaction?
a)
a. IgE
b)
b. IgM
c)
c. IgA
d)
d. IgG
35.
35. Breakbone fever is caused by what zoonotic disease?
a)
a. Malaria
b)
b. Chikunggunya
c)
c. Dengue
d)
d. Filariasis
36.
36. Determine the iodine value of oil weighing 0.2100g if 24.5 mLand 12.0 mL of 0.1100 N sodium thiosulfate solution are required for the blank and residual titrations respectively.
a)
a. 83.0893
b)
b. 45.1487
c)
c. 67.2148
d)
d. 78.1479
37.
37. Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease of humans and other animals caused by parasitic protozoans. What is the zoonotic vector of Malaria?
a)
a. Anopheles mosquito
b)
b. Aedes Aegypti
c)
c. House Fly
d)
d. Dragon Fly
38.
38. Analysis wherein the constituents of a sample are separated and then the product is weighed
a)
a. Neutralization
b)
b. Diazotization
c)
c. Gravimetric
d)
d. Karl Fischer method
39.
39. Microorganism used in antimicrobial assay of Gramicidin
a)
a. Lactobacillus leichmanii
b)
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c)
c. Streptococcus faecium
d)
d. Lactobacillus plantarum
e)
e. A and B
40.
40. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is:
a)
a. Refractometer
b)
b. Polarimeter
c)
c. Spectrometer
d)
d. Flame photometer
41.
41. The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR region is
a)
a. Chromophore
b)
b. Chelate
c)
c. Ligand
d)
d. Spectra
42.
42. Which of the following bacteria is the known causative agent for Rocky mountain fever?
a)
a. R. prowazeki
b)
b. R. akari
c)
c. R. ricketsii
d)
d. R.typhi
e)
e. A and C
43.
43. Assay of atropine in Atropa belladonna is:
a)
a. Ultimate
b)
b. Proximate
c)
c. AOTA
d)
d. NOTA
44.
44. It refers to water suitable for drinking
a)
a. Safe
b)
b. Drinkable
c)
c. Potable
d)
d. Portable
45.
45. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known
a)
a. R Plasmid
b)
b. F Plasmid
c)
c. X Plasmid
d)
d. Y Plasmid
46.
46. Type of T cell which is the primary target of HIV virus
a)
a. CD8
b)
b. CD4
c)
c. Macrophages
d)
d. Neutorphils
e)
e. A and B
47.
47. Which of the following bacteria has a characteristics of medussa like colonies?
a)
a. Bacillus anthracis
b)
b. Bacillus cereus
c)
c. Clostrdium difficile
d)
d. Clostridium perfringens
48.
48. A 30 year old female is diagnosed with systemic candidiasis, which of the following drug is considered to be the drug of choice for systemic candidiasis?
a)
a. Fluconazole
b)
b. Ketoconazole
c)
c. Amphotericin B
d)
d. Itraconazole
49.
49. Also known as the Maximum exponential phase
a)
a. Lag Phase
b)
b. Log Phase
c)
c. Stationary Phase
d)
d. Death Phase
50.
50. Theory of Abiogenesis is proposed by:
a)
a. John Needham
b)
b. Robert Hooke
c)
c. Francesco Redi
d)
d. Rudolf Virchow
51.
51. Which bacteria has a question marked shaped characteristic?
a)
a. Vibrio cholera
b)
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c)
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
d. Leptospira interrogans
52.
52. Vector of Borrelia burgdorferi with manifestation of chronicum migrans
a)
a. Ixodes ticks
b)
b. Pediculus humanus
c)
c. Cannis familiaris
d)
d. Canis lupus
53.
53. Which of the following bacteria is considered as the most common cause of primary atypical pneumonia?
a)
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b)
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c)
c. Chalamydia psitacci
d)
d. Chamydia pneumoniae
54.
54. Which of the following mycoses affects/infects the hair and skin?
a)
a. Epidermophyton
b)
b. Microsporum
c)
c. Trichophyton
d)
d. NOTA
55.
55. Sporotrichosis is caused by the infection of fungus called Sporothrix schenckii. The disease is commonly known as:
a)
a. Rose gardener’s disease
b)
b. Hansen’s disease
c)
c. Montezumas revenge
d)
d. Q fever
e)
e. Valley fever
56.
56. Which of the following viruses listed is the only single stranded DNA viruse?
a)
a. Poxvirus
b)
b. Parvovirus
c)
c. CMV
d)
d. HPV
57.
57. Which of the following bacteria most likely uses bird droppings especially pigeons as a reservoir?
a)
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b)
b. Crypococcus neoformans
c)
c. Candida albicans
d)
d. Pneumocystis jiroveci
58.
58. The following are antifungal medications classified under imidazole group except:
a)
a. Ketoconazole
b)
b. Fluconazole
c)
c. Miconazole
d)
d. Clotrimazole
59.
59. M.O.A of Caspofungin
a)
a. Inhibits squalene epoxidase
b)
b. Cell wall sysnthesis inhibitor
c)
c. Increase membrane permeability
d)
d. Inhibits B 1-3 glucan synthase
e)
e. A and C
60.
60. Which of the following virus is/are considered as the biggest animal virus?
a)
a. Poxvirus
b)
b. Parvovirus
c)
c. CMV
d)
d. HPV
e)
e. A and C
61.
61. The following viruses are chareacterized as naked DNA virus except;
a)
a. Adenoviridae
b)
b. Herpesviridae
c)
c. Parvoviridae
d)
d. Papovaviridae
62.
62. Hepa A and E are transmitted through what mechanism?
a)
a. Blood transfusion
b)
b. Bird droppings
c)
c. Fecal Oral route
d)
d. NOTA
63.
63. Which of the following virus is considered as the smallest RNA virus?
a)
a. Picronaviridae
b)
b. Caliciviridae
c)
c. Retrovirus
d)
d. Togaviridae
64.
64. Rubeola is under the classification of Paramyxoviridae and causes measles ,which of the following symptoms is exclusive to measles infection?
a)
a. Coughing
b)
b. Immunocompromised
c)
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d)
d. Koplik spots
65.
65. Mumps are manifested through the following condition except
a)
a. Parotitis
b)
b. Orchitis
c)
c. Sterility
d)
d. Slap cheek appearance
66.
66. Ebola virus is classified under what viral classification?
a)
a. Filoviridae
b)
b. Orthomyxoviridae
c)
c. Ebuliaviridae
d)
d. Bunyaviridae
67.
67. Single most important cause of gastroenteritis in CHILDREN :
a)
a. Arenaviridae
b)
b. Rotavirus
c)
c. Orbivirus
d)
d. Bunyaviridae
68.
68. The 1st antiretroviral drug approved by FDA
a)
a. Abacavir
b)
b. Tenofovie
c)
c. Zidovudine
d)
d. Didanosine
69.
69. Which of the following drug is classified under Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor?
a)
a. Delavirdine
b)
b. Indinavir
c)
c. Etravirine
d)
d. Nevirapine
70.
70. Which of the following zoonotic diseases is/are considered the most important?
a)
a. Leptospirosis
b)
b. Bird flu
c)
c. Swine flue
d)
d. Rabies
e)
e. B and C
71.
71. RNA viruses with positive sense are all enveloped except:
a)
a. Picornavidae
b)
b. Caliciviridae
c)
c. Retrovirus
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. B and C
72.
72. Philippines is classified under what climatic condition?
a)
a. Zone III
b)
b. Zone I
c)
c. Zone II
d)
d. Zone IV
73.
73. A crude drug weighing 5.5058 g was incinerated yielding a residue of 0.1150g and a silica residue of 0.0560g. Calculate the % total ash
a)
a. 1.02 %
b)
b. 2.09%
c)
c. 4.35%
d)
d. 5.47%
74.
74. Which of the following protozoan is the causative agent of East African Sleeping Sickness?
a)
a. Trypanosoma brucei (gambiense)
b)
b. Trypanosoma brucei (rhodiense)
c)
c. Trypanosoma cuzi
d)
d. Leishmania tropica
75.
75. A patient residing in Latin America is infected with protozoan known as Trypanosoma cruzi which of the following medication is most likely to be prescribed?
a)
a. Benznidazole
b)
b. Stibogluconate
c)
c. Metronidazole
d)
d. Interferon alpha
e)
e. A and B
76.
76. If a sample of beeswax is found to have an acid no. of 20.4 and a saponification no. of 89.8 . What is the ester value of sample?
a)
a. 69.4000
b)
b. 110.2212
c)
c. 58.1751
d)
d. 78.1548
77.
77. What type of precision expresses the precision under the same operating conditions over a short interval of time?
a)
a. Repeatability
b)
b. Intra-assay precision
c)
c. Reproducibility
d)
d. A and B
e)
e. B and C
78.
78. Parameters to sterilize bacteria:
a)
a. 650 C for 1 min
b)
b. 300 C for 30 sec
c)
c. 500 C for 1 hr
d)
d. 750 C for 10 sec
79.
79. Which of the following organelle is most likely responsible for drug resistance?
a)
a. Mitochondria
b)
b. R.E.R
c)
c. Goldi bodies
d)
d. Capsule
80.
80. Which of the following medication is the drug of choice for the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia if Co-trimoxazole is ineffective?
a)
a. Pentamidine
b)
b. Co-amoxiclav
c)
c. Chloramphenicol
d)
d. Flucytosine
e)
e. B and C
81.
81. What test is used to test for mutagenicity?
a)
a. CBC
b)
b. FBS
c)
c. Immuno-asay
d)
d. Ame’s test
82.
82. An object that is able to harbour and transmit microorganisms is termed as:
a)
a.Mite
b)
b. Fomite
c)
c. Arthropod
d)
d. Vector
83.
83. Which of the following organism causes the benign tertian malaria<br /><br />I.Plasmodium falciparum<br />II.Plasmodium vivax<br />III. Plasmodium ovale<br />IV. Plasodium malariae
a)
a. II only
b)
b. II and III
c)
c. I and IV
d)
d. I and III
84.
84. Which Millenium development goal is geared towards ensuring improvement in maternal Heatlh
a)
a. MDG 2
b)
b. MDG 4
c)
c. MDG 5
d)
d. MDG 8
85.
85. Sieve or Mesh number is:
a)
a. Number of linear openings per square inch
b)
b. Number of square opening per square foot
c)
c. Number of square opening per linear inch
d)
d. Number of linear opening per cubic foot
86.
86. Aerobic, non spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing mengitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients
a)
a. P. vulgaris
b)
b. L. monocytogenes
c)
c. N. mengitidis
d)
d. P.aeruginosa
87.
87. Which of the following bacteria causes San Joaquin fever and considered as the most virulent fungal pathogen?
a)
a. Coccidioides immitis
b)
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c)
c. Blastomyces dermatidis
d)
d. Candida albicans
88.
88. Which of the following medication is used as the drug of choice for Aspergillosis caused by the microorganism Aspergillus fumigatus
a)
a. Amphotericin B
b)
b. Fluconazole
c)
c. Voriconazole
d)
d. Posaconzaole
e)
e. A and B
89.
89. Bithionol is known as the drug of choice for:
a)
a. Fascioliasis
b)
b. Filariasis
c)
c. Onchocerciasis
d)
d. Cestode and Trematode Infection
90.
90. Which of the following bacteria cause the disease commonly known as the “Leningrand’s curse”?
a)
a. Naegleria fowleri
b)
b. Giardia lamblia
c)
c. Trichoman vaginalis
d)
d. Legionella pneumphila
91.
91. What animal is commonly utilized for pyrogen test?
a)
a. Dog
b)
b. Pigeon
c)
c. Domesticated chicken
d)
d. Rabbit
e)
e. A and B
92.
92. Kissing disease or Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by what virus?
a)
a. Epstein Barr Virus
b)
b. Cytomegalo virus
c)
c. Hepres Virus
d)
d. Polyoma virus
93.
93. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients:
a)
a. Primary malnutrition
b)
b. Secondary malnutrition
c)
c. Undernutrition
d)
d. Overnutrition
e)
e. NOTA
94.
94. Organisms characterized to have a uniform distribution of flagella over the cell surface is termed:
a)
a. Amphitricous
b)
b. Peritrichous
c)
c. Lopotrichous
d)
d. Atrichous
e)
e. A and B
95.
95. Patient X went to a laboratory facility for AIDS/HIV screening. What level of prevention does the patient is undergoing?
a)
a. Primary
b)
b. Secondary
c)
c. Tertiary
d)
d. Quaternary
e)
e. A and B
96.
96. Leprosy is a disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium leprae, Which of the following type of leprosy is positive for lepromin test?
a)
a. Lepromatous
b)
b. Tuberculoid
c)
c. Both A and B
d)
d. None of the above
97.
97. When is World AIDS day is celebrated?
a)
a. December 1
b)
b. October 15
c)
c. March 24
d)
d. February 4
e)
e. NOTA
98.
98. What is the temperature range utilized in disintegration test?
a)
a. 37 ± 0.5
b)
b. 37 ± 2.0
c)
c. 35 ± 0.5
d)
d. Either A and B
e)
e. NOTA
99.
99. What test may assess the efficiency of membrane filter media?
a)
a. Bloom strength test
b)
b. Dioctylphthalate test
c)
c. Bubble point test
d)
d. Leaker’s test
e)
e. B and C
100.
100. Which of the following method of analysis is considered to be the most sensitive?
a)
a. UV fluorescence spectrophotometry
b)
b. UV absorption spectrophotometry
c)
c. IR fluorescence spectrophotometry
d)
d. IR absorption spectrophotometry
100 %
