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MTTC 084 - Practice Test 1

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these pre-Colombian civilizations was Mesoamerican rather than Andean?

a)

Inca

b)

Aztec

c)

Moche

d)

Cañaris

2.

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding the Pilgrims?

a)

Pilgrims left England in 1620 on the ship known as the Mayflower and landed at Cape Cod

b)

The Pilgrims were led by William Bradford with a charter from the London Company

c)

The Pilgrims were a group of Puritans who left England to escape religious persecution

d)

The Pilgrims were a group of separatists who migrated to leave the Church of England

3.

Which of the following is not true regarding the early colonization of New York?

a)

Dutch fur traders first created the New Amsterdam settlement on Manhattan Island in 1624

b)

King Charles II of England entitled his brother James to conquer New Amsterdam 1664

c)

James, Duke of York, prohibited assemblies in New York as he was against representation

d)

Colonel Richard Nicols granted very few civil or political rights to the New York colonials

4.

Which of the following did not contribute to differences in the lives of New England colonists vs the lives of Chesapeake colonists during the 17th century?

a)

In Virginia and Maryland, female settlers greatly outnumbered male settlers

b)

New England colonists had significantly longer life expectancies than did Chesapeake colonists

c)

New England colonists had a better organized, more stable society than did Chesapeake colonists

d)

New England colonists had educational advantages over Chesapeake colonists

5.

Which of the following statements is true regarding New Spain in the 1500s?

a)

New Spain had not yet developed any kind of class system

b)

The Spanish originally imported Africans to use as slave labor

c)

The hacienda system eventually gave way to the encomienda system

d)

Conquistadors experienced shortages of labor in the New World

6.

Which of the following British generals came to Boston in May of 1775 to push General Thomas Gage to become more aggressive toward the American colonists?

a)

William Howe

b)

Henry Clinton

c)

John Burgoyne

d)

All of the above

7.

When Americans captured Fort Ticonderoga on Lake Champlain, who was/were leading them?

a)

Ethan Allen

b)

Benedict Arnold

c)

Richard Montgomery

d)

A and B

8.

Which of the following events happened earliest on the eve of the American Revolution?

a)

The Declaration of Independence, drafted mainly by Thomas Jefferson, was officially taken up by America’s Second Continental Congress

b)

Thomas Paine published his famous pamphlet, Common Sense, influencing even more moderate Americans to agree upon Independence

c)

The Second Continental Congress issued the “Olive Branch Petition,” begging King George III to ask Parliament to make peace with them

d)

King George III of England approved the Prohibitory Act, and official declaration that the colonists were in rebellion and no longer protected

9.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the Constitutional Convention of 1787?

a)

The delegates to the Convention had a common opinion that people are inherently selfish

b)

Convention delegate Benjamin Franklin was quite instrumental in the Great Compromise

c)

Edmund Randolph designed the “Virginia Plan,” which was introduced by James Madison

d)

Paterson’s New Jersey Plan favoring smaller states was an alternative to the Virginia Plan

10.

Which of these was not a factor that contributed to the duel in which Aaron Burr killed Alexander Hamilton?

a)

Some Federalists who opposed U.S. Western Expansion were attempting to organize a movement to secede from the Union

b)

Alexander Hamilton challenged Aaron Burr to a duel because he objected to U.S. expansion into the West, which Burr supported

c)

Secessionist Federalists tried to enlist Aaron Burr's support for their cause by backing him in his run for Governor of New York

d)

Alexander Hamilton was the leader of the group that opposed Aaron Burr's campaign to run for New York Governor

11.

Which of the following was the first canal built in New York State?

a)

The Cayuga-Seneca Canal

b)

The Chambly Canal

c)

The Oswego Canal

d)

The Erie Canal

12.

Which of the following written works did Thomas Paine publish after the American Revolution?

a)

Common Sense

b)

Rights of Man

c)

Age of Reason

d)

B and C

13.

Which of the following is not true about the Second Great Awakening?

a)

This movement was a reaction against the Enlightenment emphasis on rationalism

b)

This movement emphasized individualized, personalized, emotional religious faith

c)

This movement was characterized by the participation of large numbers of women

d)

This movement's individualistic nature contradicted nationalism and expansionism

14.

Which of the following statements is true regarding movements toward reform in America during the 1840s?

a)

American society was undergoing changes, which made conditions unstable and uncertain

b)

During this period of time, the traditional values of American society were being challenged

c)

The Romantic Movement, a reaction to the Enlightenment, was supportive of the reforms

d)

All of the above statements are true

15.

Which of the following was an example of violence in cities that occurred as a result of rapid urbanization in America in the 1830s?

a)

Democrats opposed Whigs in New York City so strenuously that the state militia was called in

b)

Both NYC and Philadelphia experienced a series of racial riots during the mid-1830s

c)

A Catholic convent was attacked and plundered by a violent mob in New York City in 1834

d)

All of the above occurred in American cities during the 1830s

16.

When was the first American transcontinental railroad finished?

a)

1862

b)

1890

c)

1869

d)

1865

17.

Which of the following helped prepare the U.S. for entry into WWI?

a)

The National Defense Act

b)

The Navy Act

c)

The Revenue Act

d)

These all prepared the US for entry into WWI

18.

Of the following demonstrations of Soviet disagreements with the US after WWI, which was the first to transpire?

a)

The Soviet Union backed Communist control of Hungary and Romania

b)

The Soviet Union endorsed Communist control of Czechoslovokia

c)

The Soviets did not allow conservatives to serve in the Communist government imposed on Poland

d)

Soviets refused to take part in the international Baruch Plan because they mistrusted American motives

19.

Which most correctly describes the group that invaded the Bay of Pigs in 1961?

a)

Members of the US CIA

b)

A group of Cuban exiles

c)

The people of Cuba

d)

CIA-sponsored Cuban exiles

20.

Which of the following does not correctly describe an event leading to the dissolution of the Soviet Union and the end of the Cold War

a)

Older generation Communists successfully staged a coup against Mikhail Gorbachev

b)

Soviet leader Gorbachev initiated Perestroika to restructure the Soviet economy

c)

Soviet leader Gorbachev instituted Glasnost to publicize the Soviet government

d)

The Berlin Wall came down, leading to reunification of east and West Germany

21.

During the Civil Rights era of the 1950s, which of the following events furthered the civil rights cause?

a)

The Supreme Court's decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka

b)

Governor Orval Faubus' actions relative to Little Rock High School

c)

Eisenhower's use of National Guard paratroopers to protect students

d)

Both A and C furthered the cause of civil rights

22.

In LBJs Great Society program, which of the following was NOT included?

a)

Medicare

b)

Voting Rights

c)

Federal aid to education

d)

Ending the Vietnam War

23.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the events of September 11, 2001, in the US?

a)

Shortly after that date the US defeated the Taliban and captured Al-Qaeda leader Osama Bin Laden

b)

On September 11, 2001, Muslim terrorists flew two hijacked airplanes into the World Trade Center in New York

c)

On September 11, 2001, Muslim terrorists flew a hijacked passenger airliner into the Pentagon in Arlington, Virginia

d)

An airplane hijacked by Muslim terrorists crashed in Pennsylvania after passengers resisted the terrorists

24.

The General Assembly of the Presbyterian Church in 1910 arrived at the "five fundamentals" of Fundamentalism. One of these fundamentals asserted that the Bible was inspired by the Holy Spirit and was therefore true and/ or infallible. Which of the following was NOT one of the other four "fundamentals?"

a)

Christ was born to a virgin (Virgin Mary)

b)

Christ was God's manifestation on Earth

c)

Christ died as the atonement for our sins

d)

Christ was resurrected in his bodily form

25.

Of the following, which statement about the US economy in the 1990s is incorrect?

a)

By the year 2000, the US economy was increasing at a rate of 5% a year

b)

The rate of unemployment in America at this time dropped to 6%

c)

The rates of productivity and of inflation in the US were about the same

d)

The US stock market's total value had doubled in only six years

26.

In 20th-Century America, which of the following occurred first?

a)

The Emergency Quota Act was passed by Congress

b)

European immigration peaked at almost 1.3 million

c)

Congress passed a very restrictive Immigration Act

d)

The Great Depression caused decreased immigration

27.

Of the following events, which did NOT have an impact on or was not associated with the "New Left" of protesting youth in the 1960s?

a)

The organization of the Students for a Democratic Society (SDS)

b)

The organization of the Berkeley Free Speech Movement at UC

c)

The assassinations of Martin Luther King, Jr., and Bobby Kennedy

d)

All of these were associated with or had an impact on the New Left

28.

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of all early civilizations?

a)

Agricultural surplus

b)

Clear division of labor

c)

A pictographic writing system

d)

Population centers such as towns and cities

29.

Which of the following rivers did NOT play an important role in the development of the earliest civilizations?

a)

The Tiber River

b)

The Yangtze River

c)

The Euphrates River

d)

The Nile River

30.

"The king allowed the conquered the right to maintain their own religious practices, local laws, and customs. This practice, however, shares no similarities of our present day principles of tolerance. In effect, allowing conquered people to maintain their own religions and customs forged a bond of loyalty between the conqueror and conquered. Though the conquered preserved many rights and customs, local governors called Straps, along with a network of spies, maintained order and reported back to the King."


Which empire does the above passage describe?

a)

Persians

b)

Akkadians

c)

Babylonians

d)

Egyptians

31.

Which of these factors did NOT contribute to the escalation of the Peloponnesian Wars?

a)

Athens had amassed great power, which threatened other Greek city-states

b)

Athens had created a monopoly on sea trade in the region

c)

Several city-states formed an alliance with Sparta to keep Athen's power in check

d)

Athens invaded Sparta

32.

According to the tradition, who founded the Hebrew people?

a)

Zoroaster

b)

Abraham

c)

Aeneas

d)

Daniel

33.

Which of the following was NOT developed by the Phoenicians?

a)

Purple dye

b)

Sailing technology

c)

The alphabet

d)

The ziggurat

34.

The first con-based economy was established by which of the following people?

a)

Phoenicians

b)

Egyptians

c)

Hebrews

d)

Lydians

35.

Which of the following choices is not true about early Christian monasticism?

a)

At first, all monks were hermits modeled on St. Anthony the Great

b)

Pachomius organized his followers into the first monastery in 318

c)

Basil the Great in the West, and Benedict in the East, were leaders

d)

The rule of St. Benedict was the most common of medieval rules

36.

The Renaissance which began in Italy subsequently spread to all but which of the following other countries in Europe?

a)

England

b)

France

c)

Germany

d)

All of these

37.

Which of the following statements does NOT characterize the Age of Absolutism?

a)

Nobles gained more power as monarchs had them live in their palaces

b)

The influence of the Church upon government diminished at this time

c)

The partitioning characteristic of feudal systems no longer took place

d)

All of these were characteristics found during the Age of Absolutism

38.

Which of the following is NOT true about the English Civil Wars between 1641 and 1651?

a)

These wars all were waged between Royalists and Parliamentarians

b)

The outcome of this series of civil wars was victory for Parliament

c)

These wars legalized Parliament's consent as requisite to monarchy

d)

Two of the wars in this time involved supporters of King Charles I

39.

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding consequences of the French Revolution?

a)

De Tocqueville wrote that it showed the rising middle class's growing self-awareness

b)

Conservative Edmund Burke felt it was a minority conspiracy with no valid claims

c)

Marxists viewed it as a huge class struggle with lower and middle classes revolting

d)

All of these statements are correct regarding consequences of the French Revolution

40.

"I will never accept any proposals that will obligate the Jewish people to leave France, because to me the Jews are the same as any other citizen in our country. It takes weakness to chase them out of the country, but it takes strength to assimilate them."


Who said this?

a)

Maximilien Robspierre

b)

Napoleon Bonaparte (I)

c)

Marquis de La Fayette

d)

The Abbe E. J. Sieyes

41.

Which of these is NOT true relative to the rise of Fascism in Europe?

a)

Fascism was opposed to nationalism and to patriotism

b)

Fascism was opposed to Marxism and the bourgeoisie

c)

Fascism purported to be an alternative to Bolshevism

d)

Fascism had some things in common with Bolshevism

42.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Second World War?

a)

It was a war wherein nations mobilized civilian as well as military resources

b)

It was a war wherein nations destroyed civilian as well as military personnel

c)

It eventually became known as "The War to End All Wars"

d)

It was the first war in history to detonate nuclear devices

43.

Of the following countries, which did NOT experience more war soon after WWII?

a)

Greece

b)

China

c)

Korea

d)

Japan

44.

Decolonization was difficult or impossible in countries with large, long-term settler populations where the settler population was too important and/or the indigenous population had become a minority. Of the following countries, which had a settler population that moved out and relocated upon the country's decolonizaiton?

a)

The Chinese population of Singapore

b)

The large Jewish population of Algeria

c)

The British population of Cayman Islands

d)

The Russian population of Kazashstan

45.

Of the following statements, which was NOT a characteristic of the Nuclear Age in the 1950s?

a)

The 1950s were a decade of nuclear optimism, as nuclear power was seen in a positive light

b)

While almost everything was expected to become atomic, cars were not yet included

c)

People expected that the atomic bomb would replace all other earlier kinds of explosives

d)

Nuclear power was expected to replace all energy sources such as coal or oil

46.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the hierarchy of the Catholic Church?

a)

Parish priests make up a diocese

b)

The head of the diocese is called a bishop

c)

The archdiocese is a collection of smaller dioceses overseen by the archbishop

d)

The curia is a group of archbishops with power over the pope

47.

Which of the following terms describes the practice of ostracizing Catholics who did not believe in official church policies or doctrines?

a)

Heretics

b)

Excommunication

c)

Interdict

d)

Canon Law

48.

Which of the following was NOT a cause of the first Crusade?

a)

The Turks overtook Jerusalem in 1065

b)

3,000 Christian pilgrims were massacred in Jerusalem

c)

Turks threatened to invade Constantinople

d)

A desire to distract the public from the abuse of power seen during the Inquisition

49.

"Before his religions conversion, he persecuted Jews who converted to Christianity. After experiencing a religious vision, he became the early Christian church's strongest proponent, founding and counseling churches throughout Greece and Macedonia. These churches when on to form the foundation of the religion that would eventually spread throughout the Roman Empire."


The above passage describes which of the men below?

a)

Jesus

b)

Paul

c)

Peter

d)

David

50.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about slavery in America?

a)

The Spanish brought African slaves to Florida by the mid 1560s

b)

Chattel (ownership) slavery was legal in America from 1654 - 1865

c)

Indentured servants preceded slaves in America as sources of labor

d)

Southern colonies imported more slaves in the 1600s to farm cotton

51.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the Articles of Confederation?

a)

They established the confederation's name as The United States of America

b)

They gave one vote apiece to each state in the Congress of the Confederation

c)

They established the freedom, sovereignty, and equality of individual states

d)

They did all these things, among many others; therefore, all these are correct

52.

The legislative structure set forth in the US. Constitution was determined by:

a)

The Virginia Plan

b)

The New Jersey Plan

c)

The Connecticut Compromise

d)

The Plan of Charles Pinckney

53.

Which of the following is NOT true about the U.S. Consitution?

a)

It is the oldest written constitution still used by any country today

b)

Its first thirteen amendments make up the Bill of Rights document

c)

It is the shortest written constitution still used by any nation today

d)

It replaced the Articles of Confederation after a period of six years

54.

What federal agency was created as an outcome of WWI?

a)

The Food Administration

b)

The Fuel Administration

c)

Railroad Administration

d)

These were all outcomes of WWI

55.

"This era represents the golden age of the Roman Empire. For about 200 years, the Empire experienced relatively few attacks, stability among its conquered lands, and significant developments in architecture and the engineering of roads and bridges. This time period saw the greatest expansion of the empire and the Romanization of the western world."


The above passage refers to which era of Roman history?

a)

The reign of Julio-Claudian line of emperors

b)

The reign of the Five Good Emperors

c)

Pax Romana

d)

The reign of the Flavian Emperors

56.

What are common social demographics for liberals?

a)

Single, religious, and educated

b)

Single, secular, and educated

c)

Married, religious, and educated

d)

Married, secular, and gun owners

57.

Virginian ___ advocated a stronger central government and was influential at the Constitutional Convention.

a)

Benjamin Franklin

b)

James Madison

c)

George Mason

d)

Robert Yates

58.

The first ten amendments to the Constitution are commonly known as:

a)

The Civil Rights Act

b)

Common Law

c)

The Equal Protection Clause

d)

The Bill of Rights

59.

What percentage of votes does the Senate need to pass a bill?

a)

Two-thirds majority

b)

A simple majority

c)

A supermajority

d)

Three-quarters majority

60.

The Vice President succeeds the President in case of death, illness or impeachment. What is the order of succession for the next three successors, according to the Presidential Succession Act of 1947?

a)

President Pro Tempore of the Senate, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense

b)

Speaker of the House, President Pro Tempore of the Senate, and Secretary of State

c)

President Pro Tempore of the senate, Speaker of the House, and Secretary of State

d)

Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Speaker of the House

61.

The President has the power to veto legislation. How is this power limited?

I. Congress can override the veto

II. The President cannot line veto

III. The President cannot propose legislation

a)

I and III

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

I only

62.

The President serves as Commander-in-Chief. What are the President's two limitations in that role?

a)

The President cannot declare war or oversee military regulations

b)

The President cannot enforce blockades or declare war

c)

The President cannot enforce quarantines or oversee military regulations

d)

The President cannot enforce blockades or quarantines

63.

Disagreements between individuals or organizations are tried in:

a)

Civil Court

b)

Criminal Court

c)

Federal Court

d)

State Court

64.

What best describes the way Washington, D.C. is governed?

a)

Congress has ultimate authority

b)

Washington, D.C. has a local government similar to that of other cities in the area

c)

There is no local government in place

d)

There is a mayor and city council, but Congress has the authority to overrule their decisions

65.

The Political Affairs Agency is party of which department?

a)

The Department of State

b)

The Department of Defense

c)

The Department of Homeland Security

d)

The Department of Security

66.

All of the Cabinent members have the title Secretary except:

a)

The head of the Department of Agriculture

b)

The head of the Department of Justice

c)

The head of the Department of Commerce

d)

The head of the Department of Defense

67.

Which Supreme Court case enforced the civil rights of citizens to not incriminate themselves?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Youngstown Sheet and Tube Company v. Sawyer

d)

United States v. Carolene Products Company

68.

What do the American labor union movement, the antislavery movement, the women's suffrage movement, and the civil rights movement all have in common?

a)

The all used political protest

b)

They all appealed to legal precedent

c)

They all came from political homogeneity

d)

They were all protected by the commerce clause

69.

Who may write a bill?

a)

Anyone

b)

A member of the House

c)

A Senator

d)

Any member of Congress

70.

To be President of the United States, one must meet these three requirements:

a)

The President must be college educated, at least 30 years old, and a natural citizen

b)

The President must be a natural citizen, have lived in the U.S. for 14 years, and have a college education

c)

The President must be a natural citizen, be at least 35 years old, and have lived in the U.S. for 14 years

d)

The President must be at least 30 years old, be a natural citizen, and have lived in the U.S. for 14 years

71.

The President may serve a maximum of ___ according to the ___ Amendment.

a)

Three four-year terms; 23rd

b)

Two four-year terms; 22nd

c)

One four-year term; 22nd

d)

Two four-year terms; 23rd

72.

The Office of Management and Budget helps the President prepare the federal budget. What is it part of?

a)

United States Trade Agency

b)

Federal Reserve Board

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission

d)

Executive Office of the President

73.

What effect do minor political parties have on the elections?

a)

They are too small to threaten major parties

b)

They take funding away from major parties

c)

They often work with the major parties

d)

They can potentially take votes away from major parties

74.

Which of the following statements about special interest groups is true?

a)

Special interest groups often utilize email and mass media

b)

Business groups generally favor Republican candidates

c)

Special interest groups often file amicus curiae briefs in cases in which they are not directly involved

d)

All of these are true

75.

What is a committee that raises money for political candidates and is formed by business, labor, or other special interest groups?

a)

Party

b)

Lobby

c)

PLEO

d)

PAC

76.

People are typically made aware of political facts and values through family, friends, society, and:

a)

Media

b)

Census Takers

c)

History

d)

Gun Ownership

77.

How do the media and public opinion or polls influence one another?

a)

The media does not affect polls or public opinion

b)

The media is unbiased and simply present candidates

c)

The way the media presents a candidate affects polls, and polls influence media portrayal

d)

The media controls poll results

78.

What was an early difference between Marxism and fascism?

a)

Fascism came out of socialism and Marxism from capitalism

b)

Fascists were nationalists and Marxists had an international focus

c)

Fascists wanted to defeat capitalism and Marxists wanted to preserve private property

d)

Marxism originally wanted to preserve class structure and fascism supported capitalism

79.

What does NOT help ensure a two-party system?

a)

A winner-take-all system

b)

A representative system

c)

State and federal laws

d)

Political culture

80.

How did the attacks of 2001 influence American nationalism?

I. Negatively

II. Positively

III. Not at all

a)

I and II

b)

I only

c)

III only

d)

II only

81.

Which supranational institution regulates international trade, human rights, and nation development?

a)

The UN

b)

The EEOC

c)

The UNDP

d)

The GOP

82.

Antarctica will appear the largest on a

a)

Mercator projection

b)

Robinson projection

c)

Homolosine projection

d)

Azimuthal projection

83.

Tracey needs to determine the shortest route between Lima and Lisbon. Which of the following maps should she use?

a)

Azimuthal projection with the North Pole at the center

b)

Azimuthal projection with Lisbon at the center

c)

Robinson projection of the Eastern Hemisphere

d)

Robinson projection of the Western Hemisphere

84.

During which state of spatial diffusion does the process slow to a stop?

a)

Primary

b)

Diffusion

c)

Condensing

d)

Saturation

85.

On which of the following maps would the scale be the largest?

a)

A map of Benelux nations

b)

A map of Senegal

c)

A map of Rio de Janeiro

d)

A map of Greenwich Village

86.

Which of the following is a possible absolute location for New Orleans?

a)

30°S, 90°E

b)

30°N, 90°E

c)

30°S, 90°W

d)

30°N, 90°W

87.

Which of the following is NOT a method of representing relief on a physical map?

a)

Symbols

b)

Color

c)

Shading

d)

Contour Lines

88.

Which biome features scrubby plants and small evergreen trees and also has a hot, dry summer followed by a wetter winter?

a)

Taiga

b)

Coniferous forest

c)

Chaparral

d)

Savanna

89.

In the plate movement known as ____, an oceanic plate slides underneath a continental plate

a)

Faulting

b)

Spreading

c)

Subduction

d)

Converging

90.

Which of the following statements about tropical rainforests is false?

a)

There are tropical rainforests on only two continents

b)

The largest tropical rainforest is the Amazon River basin

c)

Over half of the world's plant and animal species are found in the tropical rainforest

d)

Tropical rainforests cover less than 10 percent of the earth's surface

91.

Which of the following locations would be considered a modern cultural hearth?

a)

New York City

b)

Baghdad

c)

Auckland

d)

Edmonton

92.

Juan has a mill, which he uses to grind wheat into flour. This is an example of

a)

Primary economic activity

b)

Secondary economic activity

c)

tertiary economic activity

d)

Quaternary economic activity

93.

in the United States, what is the correct term for a settlement with fewer than 100 inhabitants?

a)

Village

b)

Town

c)

Hamlet

d)

City

94.

When a person grows only enough food to feed himself and his family, he is engaged in

a)

Nomadic herding

b)

Commercial farming

c)

Sharecropping

d)

Subsistence farming

95.

The popularity of hockey in Canada and the northern United States is an example of

a)

expansion diffusion

b)

indirect diffusion

c)

forced diffusion

d)

direct diffusion

96.

During one year in Grassley County, there are 750 births, 350 deaths, 80 immigrants, and 50 emigrations. What is the natural increase rate for this year?

a)

400

b)

830

c)

430

d)

More information is needed

97.

Which form of religion includes the belief that the natural world is imbued with spirits?

a)

Monotheism

b)

Pantheism

c)

Animism

d)

Polytheism

98.

Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for nationhood?

a)

Defined territory

b)

Elections

c)

Government

d)

Sovereignty

99.

When a foreign power has some political and economic control over a region in another country but does not directly govern, it is said to have a(n)

a)

Colony

b)

Sphere of Influence

c)

Settlement

d)

Enclave

100.

Which of the following nations is NOT a member of OPEC?

a)

Saudi Arabia

b)

Venezuela

c)

Yemen

d)

Iraq

101.

Which of the following statements concerning choice theory are correct?


I. Scarcity forces people, including producers, to make choices


II. Producers make choices and, as a result, face trade-offs


III. Opportunity cost is one way to measure the cost of a choice

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

102.

A society produces 10 units of Good X and 10 units of Good Y. Then, the society changes its production, increasing production of Good X into 15 units. Production of Good Y drops to 6 units.


What is the Opportunity Cost of producing the additional 5 units of Good X?

a)

5 units of Good X

b)

15 units of Good X

c)

6 units of Good Y

d)

4 units of Good Y

103.

How is the long-run Phillips curve different than the short-run Phillips curve?

a)

In the long-run Phillips curve, there is a trade-off between unemployment and inflation

b)

In the long-run Phillips curve, unemployment is always greater than inflation

c)

In the long-run Phillips curve, there is no trade-off between unemployment and inflation

d)

In the long-run Phillips curve, unemployment equals inflation

104.

Which of the following will result if two nations use the theory of comparative advantage when making decisions of which goods to produce and trade?

a)

Each nation will make all of their own goods

b)

Both nations will specialize in the production of the same specific goods

c)

Each nation will specialize in the production of different specific goods

d)

Neither nation will trade with one another

105.

Which of the following are true of the demand curve?


I. It is normally downward sloping

II. It is normally upward sloping

III. It is influenced by the law of diminishing marginal unity

IV. It is unaffected by the law of diminishing marginal unity

a)

I and III only

b)

I and Iv only

c)

II and III only

d)

II and IV only

106.

The government increases spending by $1,000,000 and the multiplier is 5. How does this affect aggregate demand (AD)?

a)

It has no effect

b)

AD will increase by $5,000,000

c)

AD will increase by $200,000

d)

AD will decrease by $5,000,000

107.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

If the government imposes a tax on a good, the supply curve will shift to the left

b)

If the government imposes a tax on a good, it will result in a deadweight loss

c)

If the government imposes a tax on a good with a highly inelastic demand, it will be difficult for producers of the food to shift the cost to consumers

d)

If the government imposes a tax on a good, the market price of the good will likely increase

108.

The price of gasoline skyrockets, dramatically affecting the amount that producers spend to send their goods to market. What do you expect to happen in the short run?

a)

Prices increase, GDP increases

b)

Prices decrease, GDP decreases

c)

Prices increase, GDP decreases

d)

Prices decrease, GDP increases

109.

Which of the following is NOT true of monopolistic competition?

a)

There are no great barriers to entry or exit from the market

b)

Firms within monopolistic competition benefit from product differentiation

c)

Firms within monopolistic competition maximize profit by producing where MR=MC

d)

Firms in monopolistic competition are efficient

110.

The value of a "market basket" of goods and services in one year compared to the value of the same goods and services in another year is known as what?

a)

CPI

b)

GDP

c)

GNP

d)

CCI

111.

Which of the following statements about the long run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve is correct?

a)

The horizontal part represents high levels of unemployment

b)

The curved part represents high levels of unemployment

c)

The vertical part represents high levels of unemployment

d)

The LRAS curve is a straight, vertical line

112.

Assume the Fed acts to try to keep rising prices stable. Which theory suggests that unemployment will increase as a result?

a)

Phillips curve

b)

Business cycle

c)

Circular flow model

d)

Classical economics

113.

Which of the following is most likely to benefit from inflation?

a)

A bond investor who owns fixed-rate bonds

b)

A retired widow with no income other than fixed Social Security payments

c)

A person who has taken out a fixed-rate loan

d)

A local bank who has loaned money out at fixed rate

114.

Which of the following would be most likely to try to combat inflation by decreasing the money supply?

a)

A believer in the Laffer Curve

b)

A supply-side economist

c)

A Keynesian economist

d)

An advocate of monetary policy

115.

Assume that the loanable funds market is at equilibrium at the intersection of IdM1 and S. Then, the US government raises taxes on corporations. At which point is equilibrium established?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

Some point above S

116.

A business takes out a one-year loan to pay for an investment on January 1. On December 31 of that year they pay the loan back. During that time, the nation experiences a recession, and the overall price level in the economy drops. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The nominal interest rate of the loan is greater than the real interest rate

b)

The real interest rate of the loan is greater than the nominal interest rate

c)

The nominal interest rate of the loan is greater than the nominal rate

d)

The loan has a real interest rate but not a nominal rate

117.

The value of the goods and services exported by a country within a year and the goods and services imported by that same country during the same year is captured most directly in what?

a)

Balance of payments

b)

Current account

c)

Capital account

d)

Financial account

118.

An increase in the value of the American dollar in foreign exchange markets might be caused by what?

a)

An increase in aggregate demand in the US

b)

An increase in interest rates in the US

c)

A balance of payments that equals zero (debts equal credits)

d)

Inflation in the US

119.

What must nominal GDP be multiplied by to arrive at real GDP?

a)

GNP

b)

Price Deflator

c)

Supply

d)

Demand

120.

The best definition of culture is:

a)

The actual expression of societal norms

b)

The ideal of what should occur in a particular society

c)

The universal practices evident in all societies

d)

The sum of everything learned by participants in a society

121.

Which of the following best characterizes ethnocentrism?

a)

The belief that one's personal culture is superior to others

b)

The idea that it is difficult to adapt to a new culture

c)

The idea that some cultures pre-date others

d)

The belief that matriarchal societies are superior

122.

If a man is concurrently described as being a psychologist, a husband, a father, and a respected member of the community, he is bring defined according to his:

a)

Ascribed status

b)

Master status

c)

Achieved status

d)

Status set

123.

Sociocultural evolution:

a)

Describes the inclination of cultures to increase in complexity in the long run

b)

Describes the interconnection which exists between people

c)

Describes the quantity of cultural elements which are environmentally based

d)

Describes a specific method of categorizing societies

124.

The sociologist who defines modern conflict theory according to educational credentials is:

a)

Karl Marx

b)

Randall Collins

c)

Ralf Dahrendorf

d)

Max Weber

125.

An illustration of the emergent-norm theory in action is:

a)

An adult shoots a thief, and other fire their own shots shortly thereafter

b)

A crowd storms through town to defend a wounded soldier

c)

A father becomes threatened because his son is more successful than he is

d)

A child attempts to convince a group that violence is wrong

126.

___ is the study of how the different parts of the body interact with one another and how this communication affects behavior.

a)

Behavioral neuroscience

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Humanism

d)

All of the above are correct

127.

Johnny loves soccer and wants to join the soccer team. Though he does not particularly like football, his parents press him to join the football team. Johnny ends up joining the football team in order to please his parents. This is an example of:

a)

Conditions of worth

b)

Ideal self

c)

Morality principle

d)

Reality principle

128.

Jesse struggled with depression one summer. His mother began to bring him breakfast in bed every day to cheer him up. Jesse began sleeping in even longer. When he did get up, he kept completely to himself. The more Jesse withdrew, the more his mother showered him with attention and gifts. This explanation of abnormal behavior comes from which of the following perspectives?

a)

Cognitive approach

b)

Learning or behavioral approach

c)

Medical approach

d)

Psychoanalytic approach

129.

____ was responsible for a famous experiment in which teachers were told to administer an electrical shock to students every time a student gave a wrong answer.

a)

Solomon Asch

b)

Kitty Genovese

c)

Karen Horney

d)

Stanley Milgram

130.

____ was a woman who was raped and killed in 1964 while thirty-eight witnesses watched. The witnesses did not call the police until after the killer was gone.

a)

Virginia E. Johnson

b)

Kitty Genovese

c)

Karen Horney

d)

Lana Brock