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WorksheetsPatho II Final
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 36mins
Breast cancer can sometimes occur outside of the confines of breast tissue due to which of the following?
There are ducts and lobules extending into the subcutaneous tissue of the chest wall and into the axilla
There is a double-layered epithelium lining the duct system
There are superficial ducts lined with keratinizing squamous epithelium
Following puberty, the duct system expands and proliferates, giving rise to numerous terminal duct
Only with _________________ does the breast completely mature and become fully functional
Menopause
Pregnancy
Puberty
Prolactin production
When considering the breast tissue in response to the production of breast milk, which of the following occur?
The stroma increases in size
The myoepithelial cells become scant
The breast is mostly composed of lobules
Interlobular stroma is converted to radiolucent adipose tissue
The most common benign breast masses are ___________________ . These arise from the terminal duct lobular unit.
Fibroadenomas
Hemangiomas
Angiosarcoma
Ductal carcinoma in situ
A greater percentage of breast cancers are found in which quadrant of the breast?
Upper outer
Upper inner
Lower outer
Lower inner
Which is the most significant risk factor for developing breast cancer (other than gender)?
Alcohol consumption
Obesity
Hormone replacement therapy
Increasing age
The most common site for breast cancer to spread is the -
Lungs
Liver
Brain
Bone
The proto-oncogene, HER-2/neu gene codes for a transmembrane glycoprotein that:
Binds to the surface of cells, leading to alterations in the DNA
Sends more signals to the nucleus, causing cells to grow and divide quickly.
Cleaves DNA within the cell, leading to disruptions in translation
Acts as a marker to notify apoptotic cells
The most common invasive breast cancer is ___________________ .
Fibroadenomas
Hemangiomas
Angiosarcoma
Ductal carcinoma in situ
Invasive Lobular carcinoma
A rare form of breast cancer that beings in the milk passages and spreads to the skin of the nipple and areola is ______. It typically presents as persistent dermatitis and ezcematous skin lesions.
Fibroadenomas
Hemangiomas
Paget's Disease
Ductal carcinoma in situ
Invasive Lobular carcinoma
Breast devemopment is due to the initial release of _________, which causes fat storage in breast tissue.
Estradiol
Progesterone
FSH
LH
Which of the following accurately describes acute mastiitis?
Improves with lactation cessation
A local infection due to cracks and fissures in the nipples
Is mostly due to Staphylococcus aureus
Requires surgical drainage
Fever is often present
Which of the following is characterized by a painful erythematous mass that mimics a bacterial abscess?
Acute Mastitis
Squamous Metaplasia of Lactiferous Ducts
Duct Ectasia
Lymphocytic Mastopathy
Which of the following is associated with masses that are associated with densely collagenized stroma and must be distinguished from breast cancer?
Lymphocytic Mastopathy
Granulomatous Mastitis
Duct Ectasia
Squamous Metaplasia of Lactiferous Ducts
The most aggrssive forms of breast cancer are linked to what types of cells?
Estrogen negative
HER2/Neu negative
Progesterone negative
Triple negative
T/F: Lobular carcinoma is associated with an increased risk of cancer in BOTH breasts
True
False
HER2/neu would likely benefit from which of the following treatments?
Tamoxifen
Anastrozole
Trastuzumab
Hormone replacement therapy
Which of the following cells of the corpus luteum converts androsterone to 17B - Estradiol?
Granulosa cells
Theca cells
Sertoli cells
Leydig cells
A strong surge of ________ at day 14 of the menstrual cycle, triggers ovulation of an egg from a mature follicle.
LH
Progesterone
Testosterone
Estrogen
Why is fertilization less likely during the luteal phase, 16 - 28 days after ovulation?
The uterine glands secrete more mucus
There is an increase in progesterone
The corpus albicans is no longer making hormones
The functional layer of the endometrium is preparing to shed
Which of the following phases of follicular development occurs most rapidly?
First Stage
Sencond Stage
Third Stage
Fourth Stage
A 28 y/o female presents to your clinic for an annual routine checkup. Her BMI is 42 and she complains of scant uterine bleeding every month with her cycle. What other findings suggest PCOS?
Hirsutism
Dark, hyperpigmented rash in her skin folds
Sufficient endometrial lining
Hypoandrogenism
"Basal-like" breast cancers are ER ______ and PR _______, which causes high proliferative rates and poorly differentiated carcinomas.
+ , -
+ , +
- , +
- , -
Which of the following is the most common invasive breast cancer?
Ductal Carcinoma in Situ
Lobular Carcinoma in Situ
Pagets disease
Fibroadenoma
Which of the following is characteristic of colostrum?
Contains an increased citrate content
More protein than mature milk
More fat than mature milk
Contains IgA, lactoferrin, and oligosaccharides
Has a higher specific gravity than mature milk
What hormone inhibits milk production during pregnancy, and drastically decreases with the delivery of the placenta?
Estrogen
Progesterone
FSH
LH
Prolactin
Mature milk is produced ______ days after delivery and in response to __________ levels of prolactin, but also requires ___________ production.
10, high, estrogen
2, low, progesterone
10, high, progesterone
10, low, estrogen
2, low, estrogen
which probiotic is found in mother's milk and feeds on oligosacchrides?
lactobacilli
Bifidobacillus longum (B. infantis)
bactobacilli
staphylococcus
Oxytocin is important for the:
synthesis of milk
release of milk from the alveoli and small ductules
breast tissue development prior to the onset of menses
lactose production
Mature milk is sufficient for all vitamins except for -
K
A
E
D
C
GP120, found on the surface of the HIV, attaches to the _________ receptor on the surface of T cells and further binds with the use of ______________ receptors to enter the cell.
CD4, GCPR2
CD4, CXCR4/CCR5
CD8, GCPR2
CD8, CXCR4/CCR5
Human Placental Lactogen, is a major coponent of individuals that develop gestational diabetes. As it promotes the utilization of ______ and increases the availability of maternal ___________ for the infant
Glucose, free fatty acids
Ketones, free fatty acids
Glucose, ketones
Free fatty acids, glucose
After integration into the host genome, the HIV uses what enzyme to create cDNA?
DNA Polymerase
RNA Polymerase
Reverse Transcriptase
Cryptococcosis occurs in about 10% of AIDS patients. What is the major clinical manisfestation from this infection?
Pneumonia
Meningitis
Encephalitis
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Within days to weeks of the initial infection, what antigen can we test for that is present in 95% of HIV patients by day 16?
(a)
A 54 y/o Female, G4 P4, presents with a palpable periareolar mass, thick white nipple secretions and mild skin retractions. Patient has no pain or erythema. A likely diagnosis is -
Duct Ectasia
Squamous Metaplasia of Lactiferous Ducts
Acute Mastitis
Fat necrosis
HAART Therapy for HIV infections include which of the following?
2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI or Integrase Inhibitor
2 PI + 1 NRTI
1 NRTI + 1 NRTI
2 NNRTIs + 1 NRTI or PI
During the natural progression of the HIV virus, a patient that is asymptomatic and experiencing little to none opportunistic infections is likely in what phase of the disease?
Acute phase
Chronic phase
Final phase
Which of the following drugs is responsible for blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme in the cytoplasm of the cell by binding to the genetic material?
NRTI (Stavudine, Lamivudine, Tenofovir)
PI (Ritonavir, Lopinavir, Atazanavir)
NNRTI (Nevirapine, Delavirdine)
Entry Inhibitors (Enfuvirtide)
When considering the anatomy of the eye, what structure contains the ciliary body, which is responsible for creating the vitreous humor?
Anterior chamber
Posterior chamber
Cornea
Lateral border
Lens
Exposure to chronic levels of UV light can lead to which of the following disorders?
Actinic band keratopathy
Calcific band keratopathy
Keratoconus (progressive corneal thinning)
Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
Which of the following disorders is associated with Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and atopic disorders?
Actinic band keratopathy
Calcific band keratopathy
Keratoconus (progressive corneal thinning)
Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
The second leading cause of blindness is:
Glaucoma
Cataracts
Cytomegalovirus
Temporal Arteritis
Select all of the symptoms that are associated with closed angle glaucoma:
Nausea/ Vomiting
Headache
Severe eye pain
Halos around the eyes
Syncope
Most common worldwide cause of reversible blindness is:
Glaucoma
Cataracts
Cytomegalovirus
Temporal Arteritis
What is the most common risk factor associated with cataracts?
Aging most common reason
Eye trauma
Steroid use
Diabetes
The leading cause of blindness is :
Age-related Macular Degeneration
Open angle glaucoma
Cataracts
Closed angle glaucoma
Which of the following is associated with dry age-related macular degeneration?
Localized deposits that can be hard, soft, crystalline, or calcified
Thinning and loss of tissue in the macula
Pigment epithelial detachments
Areas of blood vessel leakage
Subretinal pigment epithelial clumping
Neovascularization arising from disc or retinal vessels that may lead to preretinal and vitreous hemorrhage describes:
Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
Non-proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
Which of the following is an emergent condition in patients that have hypertensive retinopathy?
AV Nicking
Papilledema
Cotton Wool Spots
Hemorrhages and microaneurysms
Increased expression of the _____ and ____ genes lead to increased oncogensis in HPV
E1
E2
E6
E7
E4
Which of the following are cofactors in the pathogenesis of HPV and cervical cancer?
Cigarette Smoking
HSV/Chlamydia/STI
Long term use of Oral Contraceptives
HIV or chronic immunosuppressive therapy
Nulliparity
True or False: PCOS has androgen and estrogen excess.
True
False
What are the most common types of HPV in Cervical Cancer?
16
18
33
34
1.Which of the following are theories of endometriosis (pick all that apply)
Lymphatic dissemination
Coelomic Metaplasia
Retrograde menstruation
Genetic link
Which of the following is the most common subtype of epithelial ovarian cancers, is aggressive, and often presents as advance disease (Stage III or IV) due to vague symptoms initially (bloating, constipation).
High grade Serous
Mucinous
Clear Cell
Sex-cord stromal tumors
Germ Cell tumors
Which of the following often presents with a large ovarian mass, with elevated CEA labs, and has appendectomies often performed with staging to ensure primary tumor site identification?
High grade Serous
Mucinous
Clear Cell
Sex-cord stromal tumors
Germ Cell tumors
Which of the following tumors is most likely to produce steroid hormones? Labs (AFP, LDH, Inhibin, and Hcg should be checked)
High grade Serous
Mucinous
Clear Cell
Sex-cord stromal tumors
Germ Cell tumors
What is the most common gynecologic malignancy?
Ovarian
Fallopian tube
Endometrial
Cervix
Which of the following is a benign ovarian neoplasm?
Clear cell
Serous
Granulosa Cell
Mature Teratoma
The most common renal cell carcinoma is-
Papillary
Clear cell
Chromophobic
Bellini Duct
Von Hippel Lindau mutations are associated with which of the following carcinomas?
Papillary
Clear cell
Chromophobic
Bellini Duct
Transition cell carcinoma is associated with mutations in:
FGFR3
Retinoblastoma gene
p53
TT47
An established link between the _________ gene and prostate cancer has been established.
BAK1
TMPRSS-ETS Fusion
BRCA 1
BRCA 2
The most common germ cell neoplasm and the least malignant is-
Seminoma
Yolk Sac tumor
Choriocarcinoma
Embryonal
