wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MEC 1 WGU

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a teacher wants to ensure that the content being measured on her test is consistent with the purpose of the exam, what is he/she measuring?

a)

Content Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Consequential Validity

d)

Construct Validity

2.

W hat is the purpose ofconstruct validity?

a)

Determine whether an assessment correlates highly with another assessment

b)

Determine how closely the assessment represents the material is should be measuring

c)

Identify whether the assessment measures the intended concept and not an unintended variable.

d)

Analyze how well the assessment predicts outcomes of interest

e)

Identify the penalty for scoring low on an assessment

3.

What is the purpose of content validity in objective assessments?

a)

Analyze how well the assessment can predict future outcomes

b)

Determine how closely the assessment represents the material that should be assessed

c)

Identify whether the assessment measures the intended concept and not an unintended variable

d)

Determine whether the assessment correlates with another assessment

4.

What is the purpose of criterion-related validity?

a)

To see if an assessment is a reasonable method to get desired results

b)

Measure the degree of correlation between an assessment and second assessment

c)

Measure how well an assessment measures the intended concept and not an unintended variable

d)

Measure the degree of agreement between a theoretical concept and an assessment

e)

Measure how well an assessment measures what it is designed to measure

5.

degree which results of an assessment is used for a particular purpose and has social consequences

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

6.

degree of correlation between results of one assessment and another

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

7.

degree it measures what the specifications indicate it is intended to measure

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

8.

degree an assessment correlated with an existing measure of that performance

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

9.

what is being measured is consistent with the exam’s purpose

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

10.

to measure how well an assessment device measures what it was designed to measure

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

11.

To measure the degree of agreement between a theoretical concept and an assessment

a)

Consequential Validity

b)

Concurrent Validity

c)

Construct Validity

d)

Criterion-Related Validity

e)

Content Validity

12.

How do you ensure validity of a test? (Multiple Answers)

a)

The scoring procedures are evaluated for objectivity

b)

Test is evaluated for evidence of bias

c)

Test is evaluated for content consistency

d)

Scores are evaluated for test-retest stability over time

e)

Scores are evaluated with the Spearman-Brown correlation formula

13.

What are threats to validity? (Multiple Answers)

a)

Using a homogeneous grouping of prompts

b)

Subjective scoring methods

c)

Administering a pretest

d)

Cheating by students

e)

Ambiguous test directions

14.

Test administered and then repeated on the same subjects at future date; results are compared and correlated with first test

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

15.

Divide a test into 2 comparable halves and correlate scores on those halves

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

16.

Estimate reliability that is computed from a single administration of the test

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

17.

Measured by three different approaches: split-half consistency, Kuder-Richardson, and Cronbach’s alpha

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

18.

The extent in which 2 or more forms of a test are consistent

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

19.

The degree in which two tests measure the same content

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

20.

When a well-designed behavior is evaluated by expert judges and the scores are in agreement

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

21.

The consistency of a scoring system

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

22.

The extent in which 2 or more evaluators agree

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

23.

The degree of the relationship between scores

a)

Internal Reliability

b)

Equivalency Reliability

c)

Inter-Rater Reliability

d)

Stability Reliability

24.

Test-retest reliability is also known as what?

a)

Stability

b)

Internal

c)

Split-half

d)

Equivalence

25.

Split-test reliability is also called what?

a)

Stability

b)

Internal

c)

Inter-Rater

d)

Equivalence

26.

Why is reliability essential?

a)

Ensure an assessment approximate the real-life situation being measured

b)

Demonstrate an ability to perform and maintain effectiveness

c)

Ensure an assessment measures the construct that it purports to measure

d)

Demonstrates a causal relationship between two variables

27.

Which of the following are methods to determine reliability? (Multiple Answers)

a)

ANOVA

b)

ANCOVA

c)

MANCOVA

d)

Inter-rater

e)

Parallel Forms

28.

Which of the following are methods to determine reliability? (Multiple Answers)

a)

Split-half measure of internal consistency

b)

Cronbach’s alpha internal consistency measure

c)

Analysis of covariance

d)

Face validity

e)

Kuder-Richardson

29.

High Reliability Coefficients show:

a)

High Reliability

b)

Low Reliability

30.

Low Reliability Coefficients show:

a)

High Reliability

b)

Low Reliability

31.

Which are characteristics of reliability coefficients? (Multiple Answers)

a)

Measure how well scores hold up over time

b)

Measure less than the square root of the correlation between two test versions

c)

Measures the degree to which items on a test are homogeneous

d)

Measure the closeness of judges’ scores

e)

Measure the correlation between predictor and predicted

32.

Heterogeneous test groups

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

33.

Large number of test items

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

34.

Negligible standard error of measurement

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

35.

Minor differences in students’ scores

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

36.

Constructed-response test

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

37.

Projective test (e.g., personality tests)

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

38.

Short test

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

39.

Significant disparity in students’ scores

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

40.

Several subtest components of one larger test

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

41.

Significant standard error of measurement

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

42.

Inconsistent rating of constructed response items

a)

High Reliability Coefficient

b)

Low Reliability Coefficient

43.

Is the Spearman-Brown Correlation used for:

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

44.

Never graded; anonymous

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

45.

Conducted to improve the quality of student learning and not for grading students

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

46.

Review of interim and final project deliverables by the development team

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

47.

Review of design and interface by internal and external designers to improve navigation

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

48.

Expose curriculum weaknesses to improve student learning

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

49.

Provide information to improve teaching

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

50.

Use information gathered in each stage of evaluation to revise the curriculum

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

51.

Allows midcourse corrections

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

52.

Assess organization of materials and presentation process of instruction

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

53.

Implementation Evaluation

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

54.

Evaluate student learning by using diagnostic surveys

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

55.

Evaluate student learning through ongoing classroom assessment techniques

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

56.

Provides information for decision makers who evaluate program development

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

57.

Final course evaluation

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

58.

End-of-course survey to measure student satisfaction with the teacher

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

59.

A multiple-selection test taken at a test center

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

60.

Conducted at the end of a curriculum to address long-term effects of the instruction

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

61.

Assess the quality and impact of implemented curriculum

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

62.

Provide evidence for possible cause-and-effect relationships

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

63.

Evaluations investigating the demonstrable effect of curriculum

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

64.

Data outcome used to determine if a program should be discontinued

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

65.

Informs stakeholders of the extent to which curriculum met its goals

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

66.

Determine cost-effectiveness

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

67.

Determine impacts and effects of instruction

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

68.

Impact Evaluation

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

69.

Measure if your technology skills improved to the level predicted in the program’s proposal

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

70.

Used to justify expenditures or funds for a program

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

71.

Measures effectiveness of the curriculum against original objectives

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

72.

Students create a map showing names and places in a novel

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

73.

Assessment of the students’ ability to conduct a Chemistry experiment

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

74.

Provides information about how a student understands and applies knowledge in a real-world scenario

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

75.

Program entrance assessment

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

76.

Measure skills in relation to the abilities needed in certain classes

a)

Formative

b)

Summative

c)

Performance Based

d)

Placement

77.

Which is an element of a formative evaluation?

a)

Inductive analysis

b)

Affective evaluation

c)

Meta-analysis

d)

Implementation evaluation

78.

Provide opportunities for interaction between the researcher and participants

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

79.

Recognized as having a high contact and response rate

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

80.

Permit researchers to record responses and reactions

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

81.

Allow flexible inquiry process with a high response rate

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

82.

Provide answers to well-defined questions in electronic format

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

83.

Offer framed oral conversations that result in data collection

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

84.

Provide answers to well-defined questions in electronic format

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

85.

Are aggregated through the use of electronic forms

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

86.

Provide anonymity for potentially sensitive responses

a)

Interview

b)

Questionnaire

87.

Which of the following are types of QUALITATIVE data collected during assessments? (Multiple Answers)

a)

Interval

b)

Circular Scale

c)

Discrete

d)

Ratio

e)

Nominal

88.

Which of the following are types of QUANTITATIVE data collected during assessment?

a)

Portfolio artifacts

b)

Dichotomous scores

c)

Polytomous scores

d)

Discrete variables

e)

Holistic scoring of essays

89.

Administering a summative evaluation using student test

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

90.

Administering a survey with closed-ended question

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

91.

Obtaining academic records (e.g., GPAs) from management

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

92.

Using a Likert scale that asks students to rate items from 1 to 5

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

93.

Questionnaires with closed-ended questions to determine satisfaction

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

94.

A comparison of pre-test and post-test scores

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

95.

Obtain tabulated statistical data from management information systems

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

96.

Interviewing students to specifically capture scaled responses

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

97.

Scores of assessments

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

98.

Observations to record the number of times students are off task

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

99.

Observations to record the amount of time a student remains on task

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

100.

Time to complete a test

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

101.

Using focus groups

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

102.

Giving an essay exam

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

103.

A semantic differential scale to indicate attitude on a continuum

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

104.

Administering surveys with open-ended questions

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

105.

Observing students to describe types of interaction

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

106.

Generating theoretical insights through focus groups of students

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

107.

Observations to gather types of behavior seen during instruction

a)

Quantative

b)

Qualitative

Similar Resources on Wayground

PSTM - introduction to teaching (part 2)

103 questions

PSTM - introduction to teaching (part 2)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

ENTPLAN 105

105 questions

ENTPLAN 105

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Kế Toán Doanh Nghiệp

106 questions

Kế Toán Doanh Nghiệp

quiz

Worksheet

•

University