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105p2 Final Revew

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.)

a)

The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.

b)

When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.

c)

After convergence, the table only contains the lowest cost route entries for all known networks.

d)

It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.

e)

Its contents are the result of running the SPF algorithm.

2.

What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table?

a)

adjacency database

b)

routing table

c)

forwarding database

d)

link-state database

3.

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

a)

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.

b)

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

c)

They request more information about their databases.

d)

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

4.

Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

a)

the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

b)

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router

c)

the IP address of the highest active interface on the router

d)

the router-id rid command

5.

Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

0.0.0.31

c)

255.255.255.223

d)

0.0.0.32

6.

What is one use of the router ID in OSPF routing?

a)

The router ID identifies the OSPF area.

b)

The router ID can be used to break a tie in the election process.

c)

The router ID indicates the router priority value.

d)

The router ID indicates the highest IPv4 address of all routers that are participating in OSPF routing.

7.

The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving an abnormally high number of web page requests from different locations simultaneously. Which type of security attack is occurring?

a)

adware

b)

DDoS

c)

spyware

d)

phishing

8.

Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data?

a)

integrity

b)

authentication

c)

confidentiality

d)

availability

9.

A cleaner attempts to enter a computer lab but is denied entry by the receptionist because there is no scheduled cleaning for that day. What type of attack was just prevented?

a)

social engineering

b)

shoulder surfing

c)

Trojan

d)

phishing

10.

Which two conditions would cause a router to drop a packet? (Choose two.)

a)

No inbound ACL exists on the interface where the packet enters the router.

b)

The ACL that is affecting the packet does not contain at least one deny ACE.

c)

No routing table entry exists for the packet destination, but the packet matches a permitted address in an outbound ACL.

d)

No outbound ACL exists on the interface where the packet exits the router.

e)

The packet source address does not match the source as permitted in a standard inbound ACE.

11.

What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?

192.168.16.0

192.168.17.0

192.168.18.0

192.168.19.0

a)

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255

b)

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255

c)

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255

d)

access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255

12.

Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

a)

A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.

b)

Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.

c)

Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

d)

A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.

e)

An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.

13.

Consider the configured access list.


R1# show access-lists

extended IP access list 100

deny tcp host 10.1.1.2 host 10.1.1.1 eq telnet

deny tcp host 10.1.2.2 host 10.1.2.1 eq telnet

permit ip any any (15 matches)


What are two characteristics of this access list? (Choose two.)

a)

The 10.1.2.1 device is not allowed to telnet to the 10.1.2.2 device.

b)

A network administrator would not be able to tell if the access list has been applied to an interface or not.

c)

Only the 10.1.1.2 device can telnet to the router that has the 10.1.1.1 IP address assigned.

d)

Any device on the 10.1.1.0/24 network (except the 10.1.1.2 device) can telnet to the router that has the IP address 10.1.1.1 assigned.

e)

The access list has been applied to an interface.

14.

When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way to use ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?

a)

The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.

b)

Apply the ACL to the vty lines without the in or out option required when applying ACLs to interfaces.

c)

The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command.

d)

The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.

15.

Consider the access list command applied outbound on a router serial interface.

access-list 100 deny icmp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any echo reply



What is the effect of applying this access list command?

a)

Users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network are not allowed to transmit traffic to any other destination.

b)

No traffic will be allowed outbound on the serial interface.

c)

The only traffic denied is echo-replies sourced from the 192.168.10.0/24 network. All other traffic is allowed.

d)

The only traffic denied is ICMP-based traffic. All other traffic is allowed.

16.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)

NAT improves packet handling.

b)

NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.

c)

NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.

d)

NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.

e)

NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

17.

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

a)

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

b)

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

c)

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

d)

There is no end-to-end addressing.

18.

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

a)

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

b)

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

c)

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

d)

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

19.

A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this scenario?

a)

WLAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

LAN

20.

Which type of network would be used by a company to connect locations across the country?

a)

SAN

b)

LAN

c)

WLAN

d)

WAN

21.

A new corporation needs a data network that must meet certain requirements. The network must provide a low cost connection to sales people dispersed over a large geographical area. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

a)

Internet

b)

satellite

c)

private infrastructure

d)

dedicated

e)

public infrastructure

22.

Which two statements describe a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)

a)

It requires static configuration of the VPN tunnel.

b)

It is used to connect individual hosts securely to a company network over the Internet.

c)

It connects entire networks to each other.

d)

It may require VPN client software on hosts.

e)

It requires hosts to send TCP/IP traffic through a VPN gateway.

23.

The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec building blocks?

a)

nonrepudiation

b)

Diffie-Hellman

c)

confidentiality

d)

authentication

e)

integrity

24.

Which statement describes the effect of key length in deterring an attacker from hacking through an encryption key?

a)

The length of a key does not affect the degree of security.

b)

The length of a key will not vary between encryption algorithms.

c)

The shorter the key, the harder it is to break.

d)

The longer the key, the more key possibilities exist.

25.

What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?

a)

latency

b)

jitter

c)

speed mismatch

d)

serialization delay

26.

A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a packet to travel from a source to a destination device and return. Which term describes the value?

a)

bandwidth

b)

priority

c)

latency

d)

jitter

27.

Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?

a)

best-effort

b)

IntServ

c)

hard QoS

d)

DiffServ

28.

What are two reasons for an administrator to issue the copy running-config tftp command on a switch or router? (Choose two.)

a)

to force an automatic reload of the device

b)

to overwrite the current configuration

c)

to have a backup of the running configuration file in the router​

d)

to transfer the current configuration file to a server

e)

to save the running configuration file to a remote location

29.

Which protocol or service can be configured to send unsolicited messages to alert the network administrator about a network event such as an extremely high CPU utilization on a router?

a)

NetFlow

b)

SNMP

c)

syslog

d)

NTP

30.

What are SNMP trap messages?

a)

messages that are sent periodically by the NMS to the SNMP agents that reside on managed devices to query the device for data

b)

messages that are used by the NMS to query the device for data

c)

unsolicited messages that are sent by the SNMP agent and alert the NMS to a condition on the network

d)

messages that are used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device

31.

How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire speed?

a)

48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

b)

1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time

c)

24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches

d)

44 Gb/s, due to overhead requirements

32.

What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

a)

collision domain

b)

broadcast domain

c)

user domain

d)

failure domain

33.

Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

a)

link aggregation

b)

virtual private networks

c)

virtual LANs

d)

Spanning Tree Protocol

34.

Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?

a)

It shows the order in which hosts access the network.

b)

It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.

c)

It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.

d)

It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.

35.

A computer technician performed a number of actions to correct a problem. Some actions did not solve the problem, but eventually a solution was found. What should be documented?

a)

a description of the problem and solution

b)

only the solution, because this solved the problem

c)

everything that was done to try to solve the problem

d)

only the failed attempts, so that future technicians will know what not to try

36.

A networked PC is having trouble accessing the Internet, but can print to a local printer and ping other computers in the area. Other computers on the same network are not having any issues. What is the problem?

a)

The default gateway router does not have a default route.

b)

The switch port to which the PC connects has an incorrect VLAN configured.

c)

The PC has a missing or incorrect default gateway.

d)

The link between the switch to which the PC connects and the default gateway router is down.

37.

A company uses a cloud-based payroll system. Which cloud computing technology is this company using?

a)

browser as a service (BaaS)

b)

infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

c)

software as a service (SaaS)

d)

wireless as a service (WaaS)

38.

Which component in a traditional infrastructure device provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 functions to create data paths within a network?

a)

data plane

b)

control plane

c)

forwarding information base

d)

adjacency table

39.

Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

a)

ITaaS

b)

IaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

SaaS

40.

What is JSON?

a)

It is a compiled programming language.

b)

It is a database.

c)

It is a data format for storing and transporting data.

d)

It is a scripting language.

41.

What are two reasons that most RESTful APIs require a key in the request? (Choose two.)

a)

to authenticate the requesting source

b)

to make sure that the query matches the service offered by the web application

c)

to specify the data format expected from the response

d)

to encrypt the query message in the API request

e)

to gather information on the people using the API

42.

Which characters are used to enclose a JSON key?

a)

commas

b)

quotation marks

c)

square brackets

d)

colons