wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Physical science EOC

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The law of conservation of ___________ states that energy, like matter, cannot be created nor destroyed; it can only be changed from one form of energy to another.  Energy takes takes many forms in the world around us.  Each form of energy can be converted to and from other forms of energy.
a)
energy
b)
solubility
c)
conduction
d)
radiation
2.
__________ energy is used in our homes to produce stereo sound through speakers.
a)
potential
b)
kinectic
c)
thermal
d)
sound
3.
______ energy produces current from which a fluorescent lamp will work.
a)
Sound
b)
thermal
c)
light
d)
nuclear
4.
______ energy, which is stored in the nucleus of atoms, is harnessed to produce electrical energy in moden power plants.
a)
thermal
b)
nuclear
c)
kinetic
d)
potential
5.

_____ energy used for cooking and heating

a)

thermal

b)

sound

c)

kinetic

d)

nuclear

6.
____ energy is stored in the bonds that hold atoms together in molecules.  When fuels or foods are broken down, this energy is converted to heat or kinectic energy.
a)
Nuclear
b)
chemical
c)
kinetic
7.
_____ energy is the energy contained by moving objects due to their motion.
a)
Kinectic
b)
potential
c)
sound
d)
light
8.
______ energy, also known as stored energy, is the energy of position. When a boulder sits on top of a cliff, it has gravitational _____energy as a result of its height above the ground.  When the boulder tumbles off the cliff, its gravitational ______ energy is converted to kinectic energy.  
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
c)
Mechanical
d)
Nuclear
9.
________________
Define: The transfer of heat energy between materials that are in direct contact with each other
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
radiation
10.
Circulation of air or water
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
11.
transfer of energy through space or air
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
12.
A copper ornament has a mass of 0.0693 kg and changes from a temperature of 20.0°C to 27.4°C.  How much heat energy did it gain?  Cooper's Specific Heat is 390 J/k X 
°C.  °
Q=Mc∆T
a)
200 J
b)
400 J
c)
390 J
13.
Amount of energy needed to raise the temperature by kg//C
a)
Specific heat capacity
b)
Specific temperature
c)
temperature of substance
14.
What is the change called from a solid to a liquid?
a)
melting
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
evaporation
15.
What is the change called from a solid to a gas?
a)
melting
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
evaporation
16.
What is the change called from a liquid to a solid?
a)
melting
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
evaporation
17.
What is the change called from a liquid to a gas?
a)
melting
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
evaporation
18.
What is the change called from a gas to solid
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
evaporation
19.
What is the change called from a gas to liquid
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
freezing
d)
condensation
20.
These reactions are __________ (or give off heat)
-- freezing
--depostion
-condensation
-getting colder
a)
exothermic
b)
endothermic
21.
These reactions are __________ (or take in heat)
-- melting
-sublimation
-evaporation-
-getting hotter
a)
exothermic
b)
endothermic
22.
 A person places a metal spoon that is at room temperature into a bowl of hot soup. How will the thermal energies of the spoon and the soup be affected? 
a)
 The spoon will increase in thermal energy, and the soup will decrease in thermal energy.
b)
  Both the spoon and the soup will increase in thermal energy.
c)
The spoon will decrease in thermal energy, and the soup will increase in thermal energy.
d)
 Both the spoon and the soup will decrease in thermal energy. 
23.
Which is the lowest point of a transverse wave? 
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
period
d)
trough
24.
An object has a mass of 12.8 kg and a velocity of 8.4 m s. What is the kinetic energy of the object? 
a)
53.8 J
b)
107.5 J
c)
451.6 J
d)
903.2 J
25.
How much potential energy does a 55-kg person gain when she walks to the top of a hill 20 m tall?
a)
75 J
b)
539 J
c)
1,100 J
d)
10,780 J
26.
 Which statement best describes the atoms of elements that form compounds by covalent bonding? 
a)
They share electrons between them.
b)
They have a large difference in atomic mass.
c)
They are in the same period in the periodic table
d)
They have a large difference in valence electron number. 
27.
Which best describes alpha particles? 
a)
They are attracted to negative electric fields
b)
They are composed of beta particles
c)
They are able to penetrate concrete blocks.
d)
They are products of chemical reactions.
28.
What type of chemical reaction is represented by this equation? 2Li +  2H2O ---> 2LiOH  + H2   
a)
decomposition
b)
double replacement
c)
single replacement
d)
synthesis
29.
 A teacher wants to demonstrate a chemical reaction to her students. Which activity would best demonstrate a chemical reaction? 
a)
 placing a metal in an acid to create a gas
b)
measuring the densities of liquid water and ice
c)
melting a solid piece of aluminum 
d)
filling a balloon with helium gas 
30.
 Which element has the same number of valence electrons as krypton (Kr)? 
a)
neon (Ne)
b)
fluorine (F)
c)
chlorine (Cl) 
d)
selenium (Se) 
31.

How many neutrons are in an atom of H-3?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

32.
 Which best represents how electrons are arranged in the energy levels of a carbon atom? 
a)
first energy level = 1 electron second energy level = 5 electrons
b)
first energy level = 2 electrons second energy level = 4 electrons
c)
first energy level = 3 electrons second energy level = 3 electrons
d)
first energy level = 4 electrons second energy level = 2 electrons 
33.
A flashlight bulb connected to a 6-V battery draws a 0.5-A current. What is the power used by the flashlight bulb? 
a)
1.25 W 
b)
3 W
c)
6.5 W 
d)
12 W
34.
Which statement best explains why there could be a force of attraction between two electrically charged objects? 
a)
because they have like charges
b)
because they have unlike charges
c)
because they have the same number of protons 
d)
because they have the same number of electrons
35.
An atom has 29 protons, 29 electrons, and 35 neutrons. What is the mass number of the atom? 
a)
29
b)
35
c)
64
d)
93
36.

Which process is represented by the following description: “sugar is added to water and a sweet liquid results after stirring”?

a)

melting

b)

dissolving

c)

evaporation

d)

oxidation

37.

Which of the following is an example of a situation in which exothermic chemical reactions occur?

a)

Ice cubes melt into water

b)

Boiling pots of water turn to steam

c)

Fireworks explode during a holiday.

d)

Pieces of KCl dissolve in water.

38.

Soft drinks consist of a mixture of water, sugar, and flavoring, with carbon dioxide gas bubbled through it. Which of these ingredients would be considered the solvent?

a)

water

b)

sugar

c)

flavoring

d)

carbon dioxide

39.

What number should precede H2 in the chemical equation below in order for the equation to be balanced?

___ H2 +N2 -----> 2NH3

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

40.

As you move from left to right across a row of elements in the periodic table, what happens to the number of neutrons in a typical atom?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It increases

c)

It decreases

d)

It decreases until you reach the middle and then it increases.

41.

In a restaurant kitchen, lamps are used to keep food warm. Which type of electromagnetic radiation do the lamps emit that is primarily responsible for keeping the food warm?

a)

gamma

b)

infrared

c)

ultraviolet

d)

visible

42.

Aluminum oxide, Al2O3, is produced by combining Al3+ and O2-particles. What type of compound has been formed?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

metallic

d)

molecular

43.

A toaster is plugged into a wall outlet that has a voltage of 110 volts. If the toaster’s resistance is 10 ohms, what current runs through the toaster?

a)

10 amperes

b)

11 amperes

c)

100 amperes

d)

1100 amperes

44.

Albert stirs a mug of hot chocolate with a metal spoon. What type of heat transfer is responsible for the spoon getting hot?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

thermoelectric

d)

radiation

45.

Which of the following is a chemical property of iodine?

a)

violet as a gas

b)

silver-black as a solid

c)

reacts with starch to give a dark blue color

d)

a solid at room temperature

46.

An ionic bond typically forms between certain types of elements. Which pair of elements will form an ionic compound?

a)

Na and Cu

b)

K and Cl

c)

Ne and O

d)

Li andMg

47.

The number of protons in a neutral atom is equal to the number of

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

ions

d)

isotopes

48.

In a chemical formula, the number of each type of atom in the compound is

a)

Supersubscripts

b)

chemical symbols

c)

oxidation numbers

d)

subscripts

49.

The elements that make up a compound and the exact number of atoms of each element in a unit of the compound can be shown in a ____.

a)

chemical formula

b)

chemical symbol

c)

subscript

d)

super subscript

50.

Which of the following is a fission reaction?

a)

hydrogen-2 and hydrogen-3 combining to form a helium-4 atom and a neutron

b)

carbon-12 and hydrogen-1 combining to form a nitrogen-13 atom

c)

a glucose molecule being metabolized with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water

d)

uranium-235 absorbing a neutron and breaking into barium-141, krypton-92, and three neutrons

51.

To use radioactive dating for a substance, you must know the substance's

a)

melting point

b)

half-life

c)

rate of weathering or erosion

d)

heat of reaction

52.

Select the product of radioactive decay that has the greatest ability to penetrate matter?

a)

alpha particles

b)

beta particles

c)

gamma rays

d)

neutrons

53.

Which of these substances has the highest specific heat?

a)

water

b)

ice

c)

steam

d)

lead

54.

Which group of has eight valence electrons in its elemental form?

a)

noble gases

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

alkali metals

55.

Select the voltage that will result in a current of 10 amps in a circuit with a resistance of 12 ohms.

a)

1.2 volts

b)

2 volts

c)

22 volts

d)

120 volts

56.

Select the particle or particles that account for more than 99.99% of the mass of atoms other than hydrogen.

a)

protons only

b)

electrons only

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

electrons and neutrons

57.

The atomic number of beryllium is 4. Select the number of electrons a beryllium atom will gain or lose when it forms a beryllium ion

a)

gain 2

b)

gain 4

c)

lose 2

d)

lose 4

58.

An example of using a lever is

a)

using a big spoon to stir a pot of soup

b)

usinf a fork to scramble an egg

c)

using a ramp to push a barrel into a pickup truck

d)

using a screwdriver to pry the lid off a can of paint

59.

Seawater contains sodium chloride and other dissolved salts,. Identify the term that correctly describes those dissolved salts.

a)

mixtures

b)

elements

c)

solvents

d)

solutes

60.

Litmus paper is used to test for

a)

metals

b)

acidity

c)

salt content

d)

oxygen levels

61.

Fusion describes the process of

a)

small nuclei joining together to produce heavier nuclei

b)

small nuclei joining together to produce lighter nuclei

c)

small nuclei joining together to form a macromolecule

d)

large nuclei breaking apart to form lighter nuclei

62.

The doppler effect results in the listener hearing

a)

increased loudness

b)

destructive interference

c)

increased pitch

d)

better sound quality

63.

Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from low to high energy

a)

Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

b)

Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio

c)

Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio

d)

Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

64.

How are Electromagnetic waves different from Mechanical waves?

a)

EM waves have very short wavelengths

b)

EM waves transmit energy instead of matter

c)

EM waves can travel through the vacuum of space (without particles)

d)

EM waves can change direction by reflection

65.
The shortest wavelength in visible light is______.
a)
violet
b)
red
c)
blue
d)
yellow
66.
This wave has the second highest frequency on the spectrum. 
a)
microwaves
b)
visible light
c)
x-rays
d)
gamma ray
67.
The higher the frequency the ______ the energy. 
a)
higher
b)
lower
c)
neither, stays the same
68.

The lower the frequency the ______ the energy.

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

neither, stays the same

69.

Definition: Crest

a)

The highest point of a transverse wave

b)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

c)

The center of a transverse wave

d)

The distance between two points on a wave

70.

Definition: Trough

a)

The center of a wave

b)

The resting position of a wave

c)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

d)

The highest point of a transverse wave

71.

What is the frequency of a wave?

a)

# of oscillations produced in a certain amount of time

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

d)

Resting point of a wave - no wave movement

72.

What is the amplitude of a wave?

a)

Where there is no wave movement

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

A disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another

d)

The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave

73.

What parts of the wave can be used to help measure the wavelength? Hint: There are two correct answers

a)

Crest to crest

b)

Trough to trough

c)

Resting position to wavelength

d)

Amplitude + Frequency

74.

There are two types of mechanical waves:

a)

EM and Compressional

b)

Compressional and Longitudinal

c)

Transverse and Longitudinal

d)

Transverse and Electromagnetic

75.

What is an example of a transverse wave?

a)

X-Ray

b)

Light Waves

c)

Slinky

d)

Water waves

76.

What is an example of a longitudinal wave?

a)

X-Ray

b)

Light Waves

c)

Slinky

d)

Water waves

77.

Infrared waves are also known as ______________ waves.

a)

Red

b)

Fire

c)

Heat

d)

Melting

Similar Resources on Wayground

Astronomy Final Review

79 questions

Astronomy Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

PS 2024 S8P1 Matter

75 questions

PS 2024 S8P1 Matter

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

STAAR Review

78 questions

STAAR Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Unit 1 Review

75 questions

Unit 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

First Semester Review

75 questions

First Semester Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University

Particles

74 questions

Particles

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 9th Grade

FOSS Heredity & Adaptation Vocab (All)

72 questions

FOSS Heredity & Adaptation Vocab (All)

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Energy Transformations and Review

80 questions

Energy Transformations and Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade