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Immuno Mission 4 Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What 2 groups of bacteria does the Gram stain distinguish between?

a)

gram-positive

b)

gram-negative

c)

gram neutral

d)

gram peptidoglycan

2.

What bacterial cell structure does Gram stain bind to?

a)

nucleus

b)

cell wall

c)

ribosomes

d)

ER

3.

What are the differences between Gram + and Gram – bacteria?

a)

Gram + have thick peptidoglycan layer, Gram – have outer membrane and thin peptidoglycan; Gram+ have teichoic acid, Gram – have LPS

b)

Gram + have thin peptidoglycan layer, Gram – have outer membrane and thick peptidoglycan; Gram+ have techoic acid, Gram – have LPS

4.

What makes up the lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane of Gram – bacteria?

a)

lipid A

b)

oligosaccharide-side chain made of sugars

c)

core polysaccharide

d)

thick peptidoglycan layer

5.

What is the function of the bacterial cell wall?

a)

Protects from mechanical damage and osmotic shock

b)

Binary fission and replication

c)

promote osmotic shock

6.

What are some of the pathogenic actions of LPS in humans?

a)

Fever inducer

b)

Blood vessel dilation

c)

Blood vessel constrictor

d)

Phagocytize

7.

What is the total magnification when using a 50x objective lens and 10x optical lens?

a)

5000x

b)

5x

c)

50x

d)

500x

8.

What is the average size of a prokaryotic cell?

a)

0.1-0.5 um

b)

2.0-4.0 um

c)

0.5-2.0 um

d)

<0.5

9.

What units would one use to measure a virus

a)

nanometers

b)

micrometers

c)

millimeters

d)

angstrom

10.

What do you call a microorganism that can cause disease?

a)

parasite

b)

bacterium

c)

plague

d)

pathogen

11.

What is one advantage that microorganisms causing infection have over the body’s immune cells?

a)

replicate much faster than immune cells can kill them

b)

replicate much slower than immune cells can kill them

c)

move much faster than immune cells can kill them

d)

phagocytize much faster than immune cells can kill them

12.

How are endotoxins made

a)

a lipopolysaccharide component of the gram + cell outer membrane

b)

a lipopolysaccharide component of the gram – cell outer membrane

c)

a lipopolysaccharide component of the gram – cell inner membrane

d)

a monosaccharide component of the gram – cell outer membrane

13.

What causes a frameshift mutation?

a)

point mutations

b)

germline

c)

insertions

d)

deletions

14.

What do frameshift mutations lead to?

a)

Incorrect proteins and premature stop codons

b)

Nucleotides in a sequence divisible by 2

c)

Correction of amino acid sequences

d)

Reverse protein functions

15.

What cellular component is responsible for making protein from codons in mRNA?

a)

nucleus

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

16.

What is the name of the process in which DNA is made into RNA?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

mutation

17.

What is the name of the process in which RNA is made into protein?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

mutation

18.

What is the end product of DNA replication?

a)

completely identical RNA molecule as the template

b)

combination of parent and complementary DNA

c)

completely complementary DNA molecule

d)

completely identical DNA molecule as the template

19.

What is the end product of RNA transcription?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mDNA

20.

What is the function of RNA polymerase?

a)

To make an mRNA transcript from a DNA template that will be translated by a ribosome to make a protein.

b)

To make an tRNA transcript from a DNA template that will be translated by a ribosome to make a protein.

c)

To make an mRNA transcript from a RNA template that will be translated by a ribosome to make a protein

d)

To make an mRNA transcript from a DNA template that will be translated by a mitochondria to make a protein.

21.

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

a)

to make a new DNA strand

b)

to make a new RNA strand

c)

to make a complementary RNA strand

d)

to fill in the gaps of replication

22.

_______________ system is activated immediately upon microbial infection in the body

a)

Adaptive Immune

b)

Artificial Immune

c)

Innate Immune

d)

Active Immune

23.

_______________ system establishes immunological memory and takes a few days to initiate a response.

a)

Adaptive Immune

b)

Artificial Immune

c)

Innate Immune

d)

Active Immune

24.

Skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, gastric juices are the _______ of the body.

a)

second line of defense

b)

first line of defense

c)

memory line of defense

d)

adaptive line of defense

25.

What are the cells of the innate immune system

a)

dendritic cells, macrophages, NK cells

b)

mast cells

c)

basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils

d)

all of the above

26.

What are the cells of the adaptive immune system?

a)

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

b)

eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils

c)

natural killer cells

d)

APC

27.

What do natural killer cells attack?

a)

bacteria-infected cells

b)

cancer cells

c)

virus infected cells

d)

mutated cells

28.

What makes a dendritic cell different from a macrophage?

a)

Dendritic cells transport antigens from the lymph nodes to epithelia

b)

Dendritic cells transport antibodies from the epithelia to the lymph nodes

c)

Macrophages transport antigens from the epithelia to the lymph nodes

d)

Dendritic cells transport antigens from the epithelia to the lymph nodes

29.

Where can you find macrophages? What are they derived from?

a)

Tissues like skin, derived from neutrophils

b)

Tissues like skin, derived from monocytes

c)

Tissues like skin, derived from mast cells

d)

Tissues like skin, derived from neutrophils

30.

Which of the following is not a type of T cell

a)

helper t cell

b)

memory t cell

c)

cytotoxic t cells

d)

effector and t reg t cells

e)

none of the above

31.

Which of the following are types of B cells

a)

Plasma b cells

b)

Helper b cells

c)

Memory b cells

d)

Cytotoxic b cells

32.

MHC Class I is found on what cells?

a)

Normal body cells (nucleated)

b)

White blood cells

c)

Red blood cells

33.

MHC class II is found on what cells?

a)

Normal body cells (nucleated)

b)

White Blood Cells

c)

Red Blood Cells

d)

Macrophages

34.

MHC Class I present what type of derived antigen?

a)

intracellular

b)

extracellular

c)

endogenous

d)

exogenous

35.

MHC Class II present what type of derived antigen?

a)

intracellular

b)

extracellular

c)

endogenous

d)

exogenous

36.

What is the main reason for transplant rejection?

a)

Differing APC's between patient and donor

b)

Differing T cells between patient and donor

c)

Differing MHC molecules between patient and donor

d)

Differing B cells between patient and donor

37.

What is the purpose of MHC molecules on the Helper T cells?

a)

Recognizing self from non self and recognizing antigen fragments (co-receptor of CD4+ molecules).

b)

Recognizing self from non self

c)

recognizing antigen fragments (co-receptor of CD4+ molecules).

d)

none of the above

38.

Helper T cells have what CD receptor?

(a)  

39.

Cytotoxic t cells have which CD receptor?

(a)  

40.

When an antigen is processed it is broken down and its fragments presented on what?

a)

MHC class I or class II receptors

b)

antibodies

c)

DNA sequence

d)

lysosomes

41.

Cytotoxic t cells target what type of pathogen?

a)

intracellular

b)

extracellular

42.

Helper t cells target what type of pathogen?

a)

intracellular

b)

extracellular

43.

The process of amplifying a specific T cell or B cell that is specific to a certain antigen.

a)

none of the above

b)

positive selection

c)

complement cascade

d)

clonal selection

44.

What causes clonal selection to amplify the amounts of a specific lymphocyte?

a)

When a B cell activates a T cell with a specific receptor shape, the T cell then undergoes differentiation and clonal selection makes the necessary antibody

b)

When a T cell activates a B cell with a specific receptor shape, the B cell then undergoes differentiation and clonal selection makes the necessary antibody

45.

The complement cascade consists of what pathways?

a)

classical

b)

alternative

c)

lectin binding

d)

all of the above

46.

What makes these complement cascades similar?

a)

They all produce C3 complement protein that is cleaved into C3a and C3b

b)

They all produce C4 complement protein that is cleaved into C4a and C4b

47.

Which portion of an antibody composes the antigen-binding site?

a)

Variable regions of heavy chain

b)

Variable regions of light chain

c)

Variable regions of heavy chain and light chain

d)

Fc

48.

What is the first antibody to respond to an infection?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

49.

Where does clonal selection take place?

a)

blood

b)

bone marrow

c)

thymus

d)

nephrons

50.

What are the cell surface receptors of B cells? How is this different from T cells?

B cells- antibodies, usually IgD and IgM; T cells- CD8 and CD4

a)

B cells- antibodies, usually IgD and IgM; T cells- CD8 and CD4

b)

T cells- antibodies, usually IgD and IgM; B cells- CD8 and CD4

51.

Where do T cells mature?

a)

blood

b)

bone marrow

c)

thymus

d)

nephrons

52.

Heavy chain genes of antibodies are?

a)

VJ segments

b)

VDJ segments

c)

Fb segments

d)

Fc segments

53.

Light chain genes of antibodies are?

a)

VJ segments

b)

VDJ segments

c)

Fb segments

d)

Fc segments

54.

Which B cells secrete antibodies after clonal selection?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Memory cells

55.

The selecting and proliferation of T cells in thymus that do not attack self-antigens.

a)

opsonization

b)

positive selection

c)

complement cascade

d)

clonal selection

56.

What do TH2 cytokines do?

a)

They help with differentiation of T cells.

b)

They help with differentiation of B cells.

57.

Coating a pathogen with antibodies to enhance receptor-mediated phagocytosis.

a)

opsonization

b)

positive selection

c)

complement cascade

d)

clonal selection

58.

What T cells attack tumor cells?

a)

Cytotoxic t cells

b)

CD4

c)

Helper t cells

d)

CD8

59.

What type of virus is HIV?

a)

adenovirus

b)

retrovirus

c)

megavirus

d)

coronavirus

60.

Which enzyme do retroviruses depend upon in order to create a retrotransposon?

a)

Reverse Transcriptase

b)

Integrase

c)

Lipase

d)

Ribonuclease

61.

The co-receptor of a CD4 T cell interacts with and relies on what receptor on the antigen-presenting cell?

a)

MHC Class II

b)

MHC Class I

62.

What region of an antibody is responsible for the five classes of antibodies?

a)

constant region

b)

variable region

63.

Which antibody can be passed from mother to fetus?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

64.

The prior exposure of an infectious agent in a weakened form in order to establish immunity and prevent later onset of infection.

a)

positive selection

b)

opsonization

c)

injection

d)

vaccination

65.

Which cells are responsible for immunological memory throughout one’s life?

a)

memory b and t cells

b)

t cells

c)

memory b

d)

plasma b and t cells

66.

Lytic results in cell death and immediate synthesis of viral components upon integration of viral genome into host genome but during the lysogenic cycle, the virus is dormant and does not undergo synthesis of viral components, instead it remains within the genome and replicates with the host genome during cell division and eventually hundreds of cells are made each with the viral genome. The lytic cycle can then be triggered.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Antibodies interact with an antigen so that it cannot interact with a target cell.

a)

opsonization

b)

neutralization

c)

immunization

d)

inoculation

68.

What is budding? What does the virus take with it?

a)

The release of an enveloped virus from a host cell. It takes the nucleus of the host cell.

b)

The release of a virus. It takes the cytoplasm of the host cell.

c)

The release of an enveloped virus from a host cell. It takes the plasma membrane of the host cell.

69.

the naked virus lifecycle different from the enveloped virus lifecycle because

The naked virus enters the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis while the enveloped virus enters by fusion of viral envelope with host cell membrane. The naked virus has a capsid that must undergo uncoating within endosome, enveloped viruses with capsid must uncoat OUTSIDE the cytoplasm.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Antibodies that are secreted in large amounts by a hybrid cell which is a fusion of a normal plasma B cell and myeloma (cancerous plasma B cell). Used for immunological diagnostic tests.

a)

monoclonal antibodies

b)

chemotherapy

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

71.

Genes that when activated can cause a normal cell to become cancerous.

a)

signaling genes

b)

oncogenes

c)

nondormant genes

72.

Prions are infectious VIRUSES that can cause disease in normal cells and cause neurodegeneration. They are caused by mutation of the of PrPC resulting in PrPSc glycoprotein.

a)

True

b)

False