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APES Unit 6 Pollution Study Game

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 7hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The 3 main anthropogenic sources of gaseous air pollutants in the US are

a)

soil erosion, volcanoes, and forest fires

b)

transportation, soil erosion, and energy production

c)

industry, transportation, and energy production

d)

industry, transportation and agriculture

2.
What three components have to be present to create photochemical smog?
a)
VOCS, PANS, Carbon Dioxide
b)
VOCS, Ozone, Nitrogen Monoxide
c)
Nitrogen Dioxide, Sunlight, and VOCS
d)
Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, and Ozone
3.
Which of the following is NOT a carcinogen?
a)
Arsenic
b)
Radon
c)
Asbestos
d)
Carbon Monoxide
4.

a secondary pollutant

a)

forms in the stratosphere

b)

is transformed by sunlight, water, or other elements in the atmosphere

c)

cannot be directly tracked to its source

d)

forms primarily from incomplete combustion

5.

Which is a source of sulfur dioxide found in nature?

a)

forest fires

b)

lightning

c)

plant emissions

d)

volcano

6.

Thermal inversions

a)

increase the rate of smog formation

b)

trap high concentrations of pollution at ground level

c)

result in increased levels of acid deposition

d)

reduce the negative effects of VOC's

7.

The effects of acid deposition include

a)

increased cancer rates in aquatic organisms

b)

increased pH of lake water

c)

decreased mobilization of metals

d)

decreased aquatic biodiversity

8.

Which is NOT used to prevent the emission of particulate matter?

a)

gravitational settling

b)

fabric filters

c)

electrostatic precipitators

d)

catalytic converters

9.

Which method is used to reduce the nitrogen oxide emissions

a)

installation of catalytic converters

b)

increased temperature of combustion

c)

the use of calcium carbonate to absorb the emissions

d)

the use of fluidized bed combustion

10.
Of the following cities, which regularly experiences the worst levels of photochemical smog that is enhanced by thermal inversions?
a)
New York City, NY
b)
Los Angeles, California
c)
Portland, Oregon
d)
Atlanta, Georgia
11.

Smoke from forest fires is most likely to affect air quality over larger areas for many days when

a)

smog is produced due to chemical reactions in the atmosphere

b)

a persistent atmospheric inversion exists in the region

c)

it emits primary pollutants

d)

it emits secondary pollutants

12.

The Clean Air Act- regulates vehicle emissions.

a)

true

b)

false

13.
Used on factory stacks to remove gases and particulate.
a)
Filters
b)
Emission reducers
c)
Scrubbers
d)
Filter Strips
14.

A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors, which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.

a)

Water droplets

b)

Allergens

c)

Particulate matter

d)

Combustibles

15.

Which of the following are examples of VOC's ? (Select 3)

a)

paint and paint thinners

b)

gasoline

c)

water vapor

d)

formaldehyde

e)

smog

16.

Which of the following is NOT a primary pollutant?

a)

nitric oxides

b)

smog

c)

sulfur dioxide

d)

volatile organic compounds

17.
Composed of fibers known to cause lung disease
a)
Asbestos
b)
Radon
c)
Lead
d)
Formaldehyde
18.
The majority of atmospheric mercury is produced by:
a)
Municipal Waste Incinerators
b)
Coal burning power plants
c)
Medical waste
d)
Runoff from thermometer factories
19.

Uranium 238 decays to make this carcinogenic gas found in the bedrock

a)

Asbestos

b)

Radon

c)

Lead

d)

Thalidomide

20.

Which is NOT used to prevent the emission of particulate matter?

a)

gravitational settling

b)

fabric filters

c)

electrostatic precipitators

d)

catalytic converters

21.

What can you predict about indoor air pollution in India and Sub-Saharan Africa?

a)

Homes have more efficient insulation and increased ventilation decreasing indoor air pollution

b)

Use of biomass fuel sources such as wood and charcoal for cooking increases indoor air pollution

c)

Industrial power plants burning fossil fuels for electrical energy generation decreases indoor air pollution

d)

Use of chemical pesticides on croplands increases indoor air pollution

22.
Requires minimum safety standards for community water supplies
a)
Safe Drinking Water Act
b)
Clean Water Act
c)
Clean Air Act
d)
Resource Conservation Recovery Act
23.
Establishes cradle to grave tracking of hazardous waste
a)
Safe Drinking Water Act
b)
Clean Water Act
c)
CERCLA
d)
Resource Conservation Recovery Act
24.
Found in old plumbing pipes and ceramic glazes
a)
Asbestos
b)
Radon
c)
Lead
d)
Formaldehyde
25.
In a river ecosystem, dissolved oxygen concentrations drop quickly downstream from a point-source input of organic matter into the river due to
a)
increasing populations of mayfly and stonefly larvae
b)
increasing bacterial activity as organic matter decays
c)
decreasing bacterial activity as turbidity increases
d)
decreasing water temperature
26.

______ is an unwanted sound that is harmful to people and animals.

a)

Noise pollution

b)

Air pollution

c)

Water Pollution

d)

Land Pollution

27.

One of the effects of noise pollution is _______

a)

Happy sleep

b)

Respiratory infection

c)

Poor communication

28.

Thermal inversions _________________________.

a)

increase the rate of smog formation

b)

trap high concentrations of pollution at ground level

c)

result in increased levels of acid deposition

d)

reduce the negative effects of VOC's

29.

Which size of particulate matter causes the greatest health concerns?

a)

PM2.5

b)

PM10

c)

PM100

d)

PM30

30.

Two major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are __________.

a)

sunlight and water

b)

sulfates and sunlight

c)

water and volatile organics

d)

nitrogen oxides and sulfates

31.

Radon is usually found in this location in your home.

a)

attic

b)

basement

c)

bathroom

d)

kitchen

32.

Exposure to too much radon gas can cause

a)

lung cancer

b)

sun burn

c)

blindness

d)

acne

33.
Which of the following substances is an colorless, odorless, tasteless, radioactive gas?
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
radon
c)
ozone
d)
asbestos
34.

Ozone caused by light, heat, and burning fossil fuels leading to NOx and CO2

a)

trophospheric

b)

stratospheric

c)

mesospheric

d)

thermospheric

35.

Point source pollution example

a)

a neighborhood with overfertilized lawns

b)

all the cars in a city during rush hour

c)

a factory not using scrubbers

d)

wildfires across California

36.
E-waste is harmful because:
a)
It leaches heavy metals such as lead
b)
Is highly reactive
c)
Is a well known teratogen
d)
Cannot be recycled
37.
Created because of Love Canal, mandated Superfund sites
a)
RCRA
b)
CERCLA
c)
Brownfields
d)
Clean Water Act
38.
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine disruptor?
a)
DDT
b)
Atrazine
c)
BPA
d)
CFC
39.
DDT is a POP (Persistent Organic Pesticide) that can act as an endocrine disruptor.  Which would it have the greatest effect on?
a)
Producers
b)
Primary Consumers
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)
Autotrophs
40.
The release of a large amount of sewage overflow into a nearby creek would lead to:
a)
High DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
b)
Low DO, High BOD, Low Fecal Coliform
c)
Low DO, High BOD, High Fecal Coliform
d)
Low DO, Low BOD, High Fecal Coliform
41.
Plastics
a)
decompose readily in water
b)
Decompose slowly, if at all, and persist for decades
c)
Releases radioactive isotopes
d)
Decompose in landfills to produce methane
42.
Which best describes leaching
a)
water flows through soil, landfills, or other areas dissolving materials and carrying it with the water to lower levels
b)
Acid rain is formed when water flows through a coal mine
c)
The use of drip irrigation
d)
A friend constantly borrows money but never pays it back
43.
In a river ecosystem, dissolved oxygen concentrations drop quickly downstream from a point-source input of organic matter into the river due to
a)
increasing populations of mayfly and stonefly larvae
b)
increasing bacterial activity as organic matter decays
c)
decreasing bacterial activity as turbidity increases
d)
decreasing water temperature
44.

Type of aquatic ecosystem that was once viewed as wasteland and drained by the government

a)

estuaries

b)

coral reefs

c)

open ocean

d)

wetlands

45.

Presence of fecal coliform bacteria suggests that

a)

a factory polluted the river

b)

a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

c)

the water is safe for drinking

d)

untreated animal waste contaminated the water

46.

Which of the following describe the relationship between D.O. and B.O.D.?

a)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. decreases

b)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. increases

c)

When B.O.D. decreases, the D.O. decreases

d)

When B.O.D. increases, the D.O. decreases

47.
How do landfills effect the environment?
a)
Landfills cause fish to be poisoned and die.
b)
Landfills support plant growth and healthy soil.
c)
Landfills cause smog in the air.
d)
Landfills cause chemicals from trash to absorb into the soil and harm plants.
48.
Which is one reason that trash and litter can hurt wildlife?

    
a)
Wildlife are afraid of human garbage.
b)
Trash covers the scent of other animals they are hunting.
c)
Wildlife may try to eat plastics and choke on them.
d)
Trash and litter removes their camouflage.
49.

What is an effect of land pollution?

a)

no clean drinking water

b)

loss of habitat for animals

c)

diseases from breathing in poor quality air

50.
What is a landfill?
a)
A place for people to recycle
b)
A place where people's trash is taken
c)
A place where oil spills begin
d)
A type of factory
51.

The federal legislation that sets standards for wildlife and recreation in surface bodies of water in the US

a)

Water Quality Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Pollution Prevention Act

d)

National Environment Policy Act

e)

Safe Drinking Water Act

52.

Which of the following is a point-source pollutant?

a)

Sediment loading from erosion

b)

Runoff of pesticides from croplands

c)

Animal wastes from feedlots

d)

Fertilizer runoff from urban areas

e)

A sewage treatment plant effluent pipe

53.

Which of the following would most likely cause metabolic stress in aerobic lake organisms?

a)

Variation in conductivity

b)

Dissolved oxygen levels at or below 2 ppm

c)

Influx of dissolved solids

d)

A 1 to 2 -degree change in water temperature

e)

An increase in pH from 6-7

54.

Which of the following river conditions would yield the highest dissolved oxygen content?

a)

Fast-moving cold water, large amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

b)

Stagnant, warm water with large clumps of algae

c)

Slow- moving warm waters, low amounts of submerged vegetative biomass

d)

Warm water with little vegetative biomass

55.
Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution
a)
Effluent from a sewage treatment plant
b)
BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.
c)
Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.
d)
Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.
56.
What is the danger in eating some fish from lakes or ocean?
a)
They may be invasive species.
b)
If abundant, they may lead to a crash in other species.
c)
If they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels of mercury or POP's like PCB's
d)
They may contain too many nutrients from fertilizers.
57.
All of the following are ways to disinfect wastewater EXCEPT:
a)
Chloroform
b)
Chlorine
c)
UV rays
d)
Ozone
58.
What is it called when a persistent pollutant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the tissues of an organism as they continue to eat something that contains the pollutant
a)
Subsidence
b)
Biomagnification
c)
Tragedy of the commons
d)
Bioaccumulation
59.

Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas?

a)

nitrates and phosphates

b)

heavy metals

c)

synthetic organic compounds

d)

pharmaceuticals

e)

Acid deposition

60.
Select the correct order for the water treatment process.
a)
Sedimentation - Chlorination - Filtration
b)
Sedimentation - Filtration - Chlorination
c)
Filtration - Chlorination - Sedimentation
d)
Filtration - Sedimentation - Chlorination
61.
The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is defined as:
a)
the amount of oxygen required by humans who use a water supply
b)
the amount of oxygen required for biochemical decomposition processes
c)
the amount of oxygen needed by plants growing in a water source
d)
the amount of oxygen given off by a specific water source
62.
The “dead zone” in the northern Gulf of Mexico consists of a large ocean area depleted in ___. This problem appears to be caused by ___.
a)
oxygen; nitrogen from agricultural runoff
b)
marine microorganisms; ozone depletion
c)
carbon; industrial pollutants 
d)
oxygen; global warming
63.

Endocrine disruptors cause the following impacts to organisms

a)

increased respiratory rate

b)

damage to the cardiovascular system

c)

increased size of individual organisms

d)

birth defects and cancer

64.

The process of human activities in urban or agricultural areas that load nutrients into surface bodies of water is known as

a)

artificial fertilization

b)

cultural eutrophication

c)

thermal pollution

d)

lake stratification

e)

synthetic primary productivity

65.
Incineration of waste is primarily used
a)
to generate heat or electricity
b)
to reduce waste volume and mass
c)
to eliminate heavy metals
d)
when there is no other option
66.

Organic matter like yard waste in landfills is a problem primarily because

a)

there is a high risk of toxic leaching

b)

it contains bacteria that spreads disease

c)

as it breaks down it can dissolve the containment

d)

it produces methane gas

67.
Amount of a toxic material per unit of body weight of test animals that kills half the test population in a certain time
a)
risk assessment
b)
risk management
c)
LD50
d)
LD60
68.
What is the LD-50 for Toxin B?
a)
10 mg
b)
13 mg
c)
25 mg
d)
50 mg
69.

Ecosystems such as wetlands filter both human and animal waste and act as a natural buffer to the surrounding environment.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

70.

What is the first step in the water treatment process?

a)

coagulation

b)

filtration and removal of debris, sand, grit, etc.

c)

flocs

d)

concentation

71.
What is the purpose of using ultraviolet light on the water?
a)
To bleach it out
b)
To "sterilize" any bacteria 
c)
To remove chlorine
d)
To kill viruses
72.

In which part of the wastewater treatment process are bacteria introduced to the wastewater to feed on organic particles, such as food and feces? (Select 2 choices)

a)

sedimentation

b)

aeration

c)

disinfection

d)

primary treatment

e)

secondary treatment

73.
What does chlorination do to the water?
a)
Removes microorganisms
b)
Cleans the water
c)
Makes the water taste nice
d)
Removes twigs and sediment
74.
The principle advantage of using wetlands for wastewater treatment is:
a)
the resulting water exceeds all drinking water standards 
b)
a natural ecosystem replaces industrial methods for advanced treatment
c)
it removes dioxin and other pollutants in the sediment of the wetland
d)
the method eliminates the production of methane, which contributes to global warming
75.

Which method introduces microorganisms to break down hazardous organic compounds?

a)

Sanitary landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Discharge to sewers, streams, and rivers

d)

Chemical treatment

e)

Biological treatment

76.

List the following steps of Water purification in the correct order

Step P: Water is passed through a screen to remove debris.

Step Q: Pathogenic organisms are killed by chlorination, UV, or ozone.

Step R: Suspended particles clump and settle out.

Step S: A flocking agent, such as alum, is added to the water.

a)

P, Q, R, S

b)

S, P, R, Q

c)

P, S, R, Q

d)

R, P, S, Q

e)

S, R, P, Q

77.

Caffine has an LD50 of 130ppm for mice. Which is the best reason that coffee and caffinated soft drinks are not considered dangerous?

a)

Caffine is only toxic to mice and not to humans

b)

You would have to drink an enormous amounts of caffinated drinks to consume a dose that would amount to that concentration

c)

LD50 is a rating only used for mice.

d)

Caffine is popular, so a high toxicity is acceptable.

78.

What is more dangerous LD50 of

a)

0.04 ppm

b)

1.29 ppm

c)

1.04 ppm

d)

0.40 ppm

79.

Dose causing death of half of the organisms exposed at this level.

a)

LD50

b)

LC50

c)

TC50

d)

TD50

80.

The LD50 for acetaminophen is 2404 mg/kg (rat, oral). 1 kg = 2.2 pounds. How many milligrams of acetaminophen would be a lethal dose for a 150 lb adult? (rounded to the nearest tenth)

a)

360600.0 mg

b)

16.0 mg

c)

2404 mg

d)

163928.8 mg

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