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Special Collections and Point-of-care Testing

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Non-routine laboratory tests that may not only involve additional preparation and procedure but may require other specimens such as urine or feces. These can be applied for special cases such as blood donation.

a)

Special Palamig

b)

Special Halo-halo

c)

Special Collection Procedures

d)

Cross-match Test

2.

Important in determining which blood product can be safely used for blood transfusion.

a)

Blood Bank Specimen

b)

Blood Culture Testing

c)

Coagulation Specimen

d)

Glucose Test

3.

These are all blood bank identification system, EXCEPT:

a)

ID bracelet

b)

Blood ID band

c)

Siemens patient identification check-blood administration

d)

School ID

4.

Tube color/additive for used for the collection of blood bank specimen.

a)

Lavender Top or EDTA tube

b)

Light Blue Top or Sodium Citrate tube

c)

Yellow Top or SPS tube

d)

Gray Top or Potassium Oxalate and Sodium Fluoride tube

5.

Blood Donors should not be/have:

a)

17 to 66 years of age

b)

Minimum weight of 110 lbs or 50 kg

c)

Failed physical examination

6.

A test that checks the blood for pathogens for patients who have a fever of unknown origin (FUO). The test determines the presence of bacteria in the blood that causes bacteremia or presence of microorganism and toxins in the blood that causes septicemia.

a)

Blood Bank Specimen

b)

Blood Culture Testing

c)

Coagulation Specimen

d)

Glucose Test

7.

How many blood culture sets should we collect?

a)

5-6 blood culture sets

b)

1-2 blood culture sets

c)

4-6 blood culture sets

d)

2-4 blood culture sets

8.

Crucial in the blood collection procedure because it prevents the contamination by microbial flora in the skin which can be introduced in blood culture bottles and affect the results.

a)

Skin Antisepsis

b)

Skin Testing

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Vasoconstriction

9.

Also called Normal Flora, are the microorganisms that live on other living organisms or inanimate objects without causing disease.

a)

Microbacterial Flora

b)

Microbial Flora

c)

Microbium Flora

d)

Microtainer Flora

10.

Antiseptics used in blood culture: choose two (2)

a)

Benzalkonium Chloride

b)

Chlorhexidine Gluconate

c)

Bleach

d)

Hydrochloric Acid

11.

How many seconds should you perform friction rub at a puncture site?

a)

10-20 seconds

b)

15-30 seconds

c)

20-30 seconds

d)

30-60 seconds

12.

True or False: In blood culture testing, to mix the blood with the medium, shake the bottle a couple of times.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

3 ways to inoculate the medium, EXCEPT:

a)

Direct Inoculation

b)

Syringe Method

c)

Intermediate Collection Tube

d)

Adhesion

14.

A butterfly and a specially designed holder are used. The holder is connected to the Luer connector of the butterfly collection set.

a)

Direct Inoculation

b)

Syringe Method

c)

Intermediate Collection Tube

15.

Blood is transferred to the culture bottles after completing the draw using a safety transfer device, which is activated as soon as the needle is removed from the site.

a)

Direct Inoculation

b)

Syringe Method

c)

Intermediate Collection Tube

16.

Performed in the laboratory rather than the patient’s bedside. Nonetheless, this is not recommended because the sodium polyanethole sulfonate (SPS) in collection tubes increases its concentration when added to the blood culture bottles.

a)

Direct Inoculation

b)

Syringe Method

c)

Intermediate Collection Tube

17.

A physician requests this to assess the blood clotting functions especially if the patient has unexplained bleeding.

a)

Blood Banking

b)

Blood Culture Testing

c)

Coagulation Tests

d)

Hemostasis

18.

All are coagulation tests, EXCEPT:

a)

Prothrombin Time (PT)

b)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

c)

Thrombin Time (TT)

d)

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)

19.

A complex process in which multiple components of the blood clotting system are activated in response to vessel injury to control bleeding.

a)

Hemostasis

b)

Homeostasis

20.

Vasoconstriction and platelet plug formation. The key component of primary hemostasis is the platelet. Primary Hemostasis is triggered by injury to the vessel wall, exposing subendothelial collagen.

a)

Primary Hemostasis

b)

Secondary Hemostasis

c)

Fibrin Clot formation and stabilization

d)

Inhibition of Coagulation

21.

Activation of coagulation factors and the generation of thrombin.

a)

Primary Hemostasis

b)

Secondary Hemostasis

c)

Fibrin Clot formation and stabilization

d)

Inhibition of Coagulation

22.

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin monomers which polymerize to form a soluble clot. Thrombin will activate factor XIII which cross-links to fibrin monomers and will stabilize the clot.

a)

Primary Hemostasis

b)

Secondary Hemostasis

c)

Fibrin clot formation and stabilization

d)

Inhibition of Coagulation

23.

Inhibition of thrombin generation and fibrin clot breakdown (fibrinolysis). Once the vessel is repaired the clot must be dissolved to restore the blood flow.

a)

Primary Hemostasis

b)

Secondary Hemostasis

c)

Fibrin clot formation and stabilization

d)

Inhibition of Coagulation

24.

Factors III, VII

a)

Extrinsic Pathway

b)

Intrinsic Pathway

c)

Common Pathway

25.

Factors X, V, II, Fibrinogen

a)

Extrinsic Pathway

b)

Intrinsic Pathway

c)

Common Pathway

26.

Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII

a)

Extrinsic Pathway

b)

Intrinsic Pathway

c)

Common Pathway

27.

Used to assess deficiencies or inhibitors of the Extrinsic pathway factors (factor III, VII) and Common pathway factors (X, V, II, fibrinogen). Measures how long it takes for a clot to form in a blood sample.

a)

Prothrombin Time (PT)

b)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

c)

Thrombin Time (TT)

28.

Used to assess deficiencies or inhibitors of the Intrinsic pathway factors (XII, XI, IX, VIII) and Common pathway factors (X, V, II, fibrinogen). Measuring a person’s ability to form blood clots.

a)

Prothrombin Time (PT)

b)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

c)

Thrombin Time (TT)

29.

Used to assess deficiencies or dysfunction of fibrinogen or the presence of an inhibitor of thrombin (factor IIa)

a)

Prothrombin Time (PT)

b)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

c)

Thrombin Time (TT)

30.

The process in which fibrin is dissolved. Produce plasmin, and that plasmin will cleave the fibrin and dissolves the clot.

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

INR

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Warfarin

31.

Measures prothrombin time. A type of calculation based on prothrombin time test results.

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

INR

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Warfarin

32.

It is a protein made by the liver, it is a clotting factor.

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

INR

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Warfarin

33.

A blood-thinning medicine that is used to prevent dangerous clots. It is an anticoagulant therapy.

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

INR

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Warfarin

34.

Tube color/additive for coagulation specimens

a)

Lavender top or EDTA tube

b)

Light blue top with 3.4% Citrate tube

c)

Light blue top with 3.2% Citrate tube

d)

Pink top or EDTA tube

35.

Blood to coagulant ratio:

a)

9:2

b)

9:1

c)

9:3

d)

9:4

36.

This blood test is done to check if the patient is suffering from diabetes and other metabolic problems. It is also used to monitor insulin therapy.

a)

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

b)

Glucose Tolerance Test

c)

Lactose Tolerance Test

d)

Paternity/Parentage Testing

37.

Also called “Oral Glucose Tolerance Test”; This is to evaluate the ability of the body to metabolize glucose by measuring the tolerance level to high glucose level.

a)

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

b)

Glucose Tolerance Test

c)

Lactose Tolerance Test

d)

Paternity/Parentage Testing

38.

Glucose Tolerance Test Procedure, EXCEPT:

a)

Eat a balanced meal containing approximately 250 grams of carbohydrates for 3 days

b)

Must fast for 12 to 16 hours before the scheduled test

c)

Drinking water is allowed to avoid dehydration

d)

Record the time when the drink was finished then start timing the test which is collected within 30 minutes, 1 hour, 2 hours, and so forth.

39.

It is any degree of glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy.

a)

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Diabetes Mellitus

40.

Measures the ability of the body to process lactose and determines if the patient lacks mucosal lactase which is an enzyme that converts lactose into glucose or galactose.

a)

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

b)

Glucose Tolerance Test

c)

Lactose Tolerance Test

d)

Paternity/Parentage Testing

41.

Performed to exclude the possibility of paternity of a particular child. Before the advent of DNA parenting testing, testing for parentage involves ABO and Rh typing and basic red cell antigen testing.

a)

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

b)

Glucose Tolerance Test

c)

Lactose Tolerance Test

d)

Paternity/Parentage Testing

42.

Measures drug levels at designated intervals so that the appropriate dosage can be established and maintained for the patient, thus avoiding toxicity.

a)

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

b)

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

c)

Toxicology Test

d)

Forensics Specimen

43.

Performed by drawing a large volume of blood about 500 mL from the patient as part of the treatment procedure for polycythemia and hemochromatosis.

a)

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

b)

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

c)

Toxicology Test

d)

Forensics Specimen

44.

Tube color/additive used for Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

a)

Lavender Top or EDTA tube

b)

Light Blue Top or Sodium Citrate

c)

Green Top or Heparinized tube

d)

Gray Top or Oxalated tube

45.

The overproduction of red blood cells which is harmful to the patient.

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Anemia

46.

Aminoglycoside Drugs EXCEPT:

a)

Amikacin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Tobramycin

d)

Alaxin

47.

Involves the collection of blood, hair, urine, and other substances from the body for the purpose of determining the presence of toxins which could be in very small amounts.

a)

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

b)

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

c)

Toxicology Test

d)

Forensics Specimen

48.

The most common specimens are breath and blood for alcohol. Others request urine for drug screening, blood specimen for drugs, and DNA analysis.

a)

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

b)

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

c)

Toxicology Test

d)

Forensics Specimen

49.

Usually ordered for purposes related to treatment, but could also be for industrial or job-related purposes such as insurance claims or programs and employee drug screening. The law enforcement department orders Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) for individuals involved in traffic-related accidents.

a)

Blood Alcohol (Ethanol) Specimens

b)

Trace Element Testing

c)

Drug Screening

50.

Tube color/additive used for Blood Alcohol (ETOH) Specimens

a)

Lavender Top or EDTA tube

b)

Light Blue Top or Sodium Citrate

c)

Green Top or Heparinized tube

d)

Gray Top or Potassium Oxalate and Sodium Fluoride

51.

The specimen used is urine instead of blood. The chain of custody protocol is strictly implemented since legal implications are involved.

a)

Blood Alcohol (Ethanol) Specimens

b)

Trace Element Testing

c)

Drug Screening

52.

Checks for the presence of aluminum, arsenic, copper, lead, iron, and zinc. They are collected in small amounts and must use special element-free tubes colored royal blue, since traces of these elements in the glass, plastic or stopper could trickle into the specimen will affect the accuracy of the result.

a)

Blood Alcohol (Ethanol) Specimens

b)

Trace Element Testing

c)

Drug Screening