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Random MCQ's 2

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the length of the MFC inflatable pathway?

a)

5.0m

b)

5.5m

c)

4.5m

d)

none of the above

2.

Moving water id described as

a)

powerful

b)

relentless

c)

predictable

d)

All of the above

3.

The force of water against an object is directly related to its speed. A flow of ____ per second exerts a force of almost ____ kgs on a persons leg in a depth of approx ____.

a)

1 m/s, 4kg, 1m

b)

1 m/s, 8kg, 2m

c)

1 m/s, 8kg, 1m

d)

1m/s, 4kg, 2m

4.

Double the water speed =

a)

Double the force

b)

Triple the force

c)

Quadruple the force

d)

none of the above

5.

Shallow water crossings are dependant on 4 factors. Select the correct 4 listed below.

a)

Depth, speed, rescuers, communications

b)

Depth speed, rescuers, equipment

c)

Depth, speed, channel bottom, casualties

d)

Depth, speed, channel bottom, rescuers.

6.

The continuous loop method for crossing a stretch of water should only be used over a short distance. The maximum recommended distance is?

a)

20m

b)

25m

c)

30m

d)

35m

7.

The average car, even when full of water will float for at least how many seconds?

a)

35

b)

40

c)

45

d)

60

8.

There is normally plenty of time for the occupants to escape out onto the roof. What happens next depends on

a)

Nature of the river bed

b)

Force of the current

c)

weight and distribution of the passengers

d)

all of the above

9.

Saltwater entering the lungs causes fluids to be drawn into the lungs from the body. This can primarily lead to

a)

cardiac arrest

b)

pulmonary oedema

c)

excessive coughing

d)

near drowning

10.

A river flowing at ___ miles per hour will take away body heat some ____ times faster than cold air

a)

5 and 25

b)

5 and 50

c)

5 and 200

d)

5 and 250

11.

A minimum of ___ litres of water should be consumed every ___ hours regardless of air temperature

a)

1 and 4

b)

1.5 and 8

c)

1 and 8

d)

1.5 and 4

12.

Heat stroke is extremely life threatening, what percentage of victims do not survive the condition?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

13.

Safety, Health and Welfare law requires that sufficient steps be taken to protect against the consequences of a fall. What year were the "working at height" regulations intriduced?

a)

2005

b)

2006

c)

2007

d)

1989

14.

When working at a height, rescue team leader considerations regarding exposure to the elements include - wind, wet, cold and

a)

heat

b)

temperature

c)

time of day

d)

wind direction

15.

What is the minimum height requirement for "working at height" according to the act?

a)

3m

b)

6m

c)

any height below ground level

d)

none of the above

16.

If a ladder must be used as a working platform, it should only be used for a short duration. What is the maximum time allowed?

a)

10 min

b)

20 min

c)

30 min

d)

40 min

17.

What is the ratio to be maintained between the base of a ladder and the structure that it is pitched against?

a)

1:3

b)

1:4

c)

1:5

d)

1:6

18.

Suspension Trauma is a natural reaction caused by the body being held

a)

Horizontal

b)

Vertical

c)

In a confined space

d)

none of the above

19.

The Dublin Port Tunnel (DPT) is a twin bore tunnel measuring ____ km in length and with a height clearance of ____ meters

a)

4.65 and 4.5

b)

4.8 and 4.8

c)

4.5 and 4.65

d)

5.4 and 6.45

20.

DPT incidents require hand held radios to be on which channel?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

21.

DPT hazardous substances incidents. a 3 x F/F recce team in B/A and gas tight suits may be committed for a maximum of how many minutes?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

22.

In a completely evacuated tube what is the greatest approximate height water can rise?

a)

5m

b)

8m

c)

10m

d)

12m

23.

What is considered the approximate practical maximum lift from an open source?

a)

5m

b)

8m

c)

10m

d)

12m

24.

If a gauge on a water storage tank reads 4 bar, what is the "pressure head" in meters?

a)

40m head

b)

60m head

c)

4m head

d)

20m head

25.

For every 1 meter in height that water is pumped above ground level what is the pressure lost due to head?

a)

.01 bar

b)

.1 bar

c)

1.00 bar

d)

1.10 bar

26.

Friction loss is inversely proportional to the power of five to the hose diameter. If the diameter of the hose is halved the friction loss is approximately ___ times greater.

a)

12

b)

24

c)

32

d)

64

27.

The formula for Jet Reaction is

a)

R= 1.57 x p x d2/ 10 = Newtons

b)

R= 2.4 x P - d/10 = Newtons

c)

R=1.57 x p + d2 / 10= Newtons

d)

R= 1.57 + d + p / 10= Newtons

28.

A flat bottom swimming pool measures 10 meters long x 5 meters wide x 2 meters deep. what is the volume of the pool in litres?

a)

100,000 litres

b)

150,000 litres

c)

120,000 litres

d)

none of the above

29.

What is the friction loss for a 25m length of 70mm hose?

a)

0.1 bar

b)

0.2 bar

c)

1.0 bar

d)

2.0 bar

30.

When priming and deep lift is achieved a pressure not less than ____ bars should be maintained?

a)

0.5 bar

b)

1.0 bar

c)

1.5 bar

d)

2.0 bar

31.

When pumping from an open supply and the pump gives off a distinctive rattling sound what action should the pump operator take?

a)

take no action

b)

ensure the strainer is deep enough in the water

c)

ease back the throttle

d)

increase pressure

32.

Foam extinguishes flammable or combustible material in 4 ways. It smothers, fuel barriers, cools and ______

a)

heat barrier (separates flames from the fuel surface)

b)

drowns

c)

layers

d)

none of the above

33.

It is estimated that water having been treated with class A foam concentrate can wet a Class A fuel up to how many times more rapidly than untreated water?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

25

d)

30

34.

Priming will occur at idle speed over a period of time but the optimum engine speed for priming should be set at ____ RPM

a)

800

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

2000

35.

When setting a water relay to work, at what pressure should the base pump operator increase pressure to?

a)

5 bar

b)

6 bar

c)

7 bar

d)

10 bar

36.

Stage 1 procedures apply where

a)

The size of the incident is small

b)

no more than one ECP is in use

c)

the total number of wearers does not exceed 10

d)

all of the above

37.

Branch guidelines may be used at the discretion of the OIC under stage 1 procedures?

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The ECO shall have a minimum of _________ emergency team consisting of _______ BA wearers standing by for every _______ BA wearers committed to the risk area

a)

one, two, ten

b)

one, three, eight

c)

one, four, ten

d)

two, two, ten

39.

At a domestic fire incident where BA is in use, the ECO and the BA teams shall use which radio channel for BA

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

9

40.

BA re-entry. In exceptional circumstances it may be necessary for BA teams to re-enter the risk area. Which of the following is not specified criteria for re-entry?

a)

Re-entry is for a clearly defined specified task

b)

cylinder contents are sufficient for the risk

c)

the re-entry distance is no more than half the distance previously travelled

d)

wearers are fit for the task to be done

41.

BA guidelines must be used when entry is made into risk areas of high expansion foam

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

BA teams of three wearers are compulsory when at what type of incident?

a)

Port and docks incident

b)

Dublin port tunnel incident

c)

Bridgehead in operation

d)

None of the above

43.

BA wearers should not present themselves to the ECO if the pressure gauge on their BA set indicates contents less than what percentage of full capacity?

a)

60%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

85%

44.

BA personal line is what length at maximum extension?

a)

6m

b)

1.25m

c)

5m

d)

4.75m

45.

BA guideline is what length?

a)

30m

b)

40m

c)

50m

d)

60m

46.

What is the measurement between the pairs of tabs on a guideline?

a)

2m

b)

2.5m

c)

3m

d)

3.5m

47.

An EMS - ACE 1 form is used to record what event?

a)

adverse clinical event

b)

allergic close encounter

c)

ammonium chemical exposure

d)

none of these