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Economics Semester Test Study Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

While the wants and needs of consumers are unlimited, productive resources are limited, forcing consumers and producers to make choices. This concept is known as

a)

Borrowing

b)

Surplus

c)

Scarcity

d)

budgeting

2.

In economics, the term “scarcity” is best illustrated by which of the following situations?

a)

Producers lack the productive resources needed to produce all of their goods and services.

b)

Consumers have no money needed to buy goods and services.

c)

Entrepreneurs lack the customers needed to earn a profit.

d)

Laborers lack the skills needed to earn a promotion.

3.

What are the factors of production?

a)

Land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

b)

Land, needs, wants, capitals

c)

Rent, wages, interest, profit

d)

Land, labor, scarcity, entrepreneurship

4.

In the production of loaves of bread, which best represents the factor of capital?

a)

The flour used in the dough

b)

The retailer who sells the bread

c)

The oven used to bake the bread

d)

The worker who kneaded the dough

5.

George decides to go back to school to earn an advanced degree. Which productive resource is most directly affected by George’s decision?

a)

Entrepreneurship

b)

Human capital

c)

Natural resources

d)

Physical capital

6.

People’s education, skills/abilities, health, and motivation are all part of _________ capital.

a)

Physical

b)

Natural

c)

Financial

d)

Human

7.

Which topic would a macroeconomist most likely study?

a)

Supply and demand

b)

Production costs

c)

Inflation

d)

Labor markets

8.

Microeconomics focuses on

a)

the economic impact of implementing fiscal and monetary policy.

b)

the big picture, looking at the economy as a whole.

c)

international trade and finance.

d)

small economic units, such as individuals, firms, and markets.

9.

Which description below best describes the relationship between opportunity costs and trade-offs?

a)

Trade-offs are the opposite of an opportunity cost.

b)

Trade-offs decrease the opportunity cost of any decision.

c)

Opportunity costs occur when trade-offs are made.

d)

The opportunity costs and the trade-off are constant.

10.

Imagine you have decided to buy a movie ticket for $15. Which of the following best describes the opportunity cost of your decision?

a)

The $5 you pay for popcorn

b)

The time spent watching previews before the movie

c)

The money and time you spend on the movie

d)

The time you spent deciding which movie you should watch

11.

When one choice is made over another, the next best use of time, money, and/or resources is called a/an

a)

rational decision

b)

opportunity cost

c)

favorable outcome

d)

efficient outcome

12.

In order to classify a decision as rational,

a)

the decision is lawful.

b)

the marginal cost outweighs the marginal benefit.

c)

the producer makes a profit.

d)

the marginal benefit outweighs the marginal cost.

13.

Which of the following best describes marginal cost?

a)

The additional expenses or effort you expend when performing one more unit of action

b)

The additional benefit you receive from performing one more unit of action

c)

The amount you pay for a good or service

d)

When consumers wants and needs exceed scarce productive resources

14.

Which of the following best describes marginal benefit?

a)

The benefit you get when you sell a good or service

b)

The additional expenses or effort you expend when performing on more unit of action

c)

When scarce productive resources meet the needs of consumers

d)

The additional benefit you receive from performing one more unit of action

15.

Which of the following is the best example of an implicit cost?

a)

The price of a movie ticket.

b)

The homework you could have completed instead of going to see a movie

c)

The cost of fuel to drive to the movie theater

d)

The cost of popcorn and a drink.

16.

Freedom of choice and competition are most commonly associated with which type of economic system?

a)

Command

b)

Market

c)

Traditional

d)

Communist

17.

In a command economy, the role of the government is to

a)

Make major economic decisions

b)

Promote competition

c)

Encourage entrepreneurs

d)

Meet the needs and wants of consumers

18.

Which of the following is a common role of government in a mixed economy?

a)

Guarantee that all incomes are equal

b)

Prevent regulators from interfering with markets

c)

Provide public goods

d)

Set production quotas

19.

Which of the following lists the three basic economic questions?

a)

What to produce, How to produce, Why to produce

b)

When to produce, For whom to produce, How to produce

c)

Where to produce, For whom to produce What to produce

d)

What to Produce, How to produce, For whom to produce

20.

The way in which a society answers the three basic economic questions determines its:

a)

Market Structure

b)

Political system

c)

Marketing system

d)

Economic system

21.

Private ownership and voluntary exchange are characteristics of which type of economic system?

a)

Command

b)

Traditional

c)

Market

d)

Planned

22.

Which term below is a command economy most commonly associated with?

a)

Capitalism

b)

Government regulation

c)

Competition

d)

Private property

23.

The concept of the invisible hand refers to which of the following?

a)

Congress passing a new law

b)

Government regulation

c)

Individuals seeking their own self-interests

d)

The Federal Reserve adjusting interest rates

24.

A mixed economy allocates resources through

a)

demand, but not supply.

b)

by bartering.

c)

government directives only.

d)

supply, demand, and government intervention.

25.

Which of the following is a common role of government in a market economy?

a)

Provide public goods

b)

Own the factors of production

c)

Prevent competition

d)

Encourage central planning

26.

How are public goods and public assistance programs paid for in the United States?

a)

Profits earned by corporations

b)

Tax revenue collected from consumers and producers

c)

Charitable donations

d)

Income earned from the sale of stocks

27.

In a mixed economy, which of the following would most likely be considered a role of the government?

a)

To protect monopolies

b)

To control the use of productive resources

c)

To correct market failures

d)

To ensure the wants and needs of all consumers are met

28.

Congress moved to pass a new antitrust law. This new law is an example of which role of government?

a)

Discouraging negative externalities

b)

Promoting competition in the market

c)

Protecting the environment

d)

Preventing labor unions

29.

Congress passed a new law that taxing car producers based on the amount of pollutants their plants released into the atmosphere. This new law is an example of which role of government?

a)

Discouraging negative externalities

b)

Promoting competition in the market

c)

Protecting consumers

d)

Preventing labor unions

30.

A negative externality results in a ________ for a different person other than the original decision maker, while a positive externality results in a ________ for a different person other than the original decision maker.

a)

loss, cost

b)

cost, benefit

c)

gain, benefit

d)

benefit, cost

31.

Of the choices below, which role would the United States government least likely play?

a)

A central planner determining what products to make

b)

A regulator preserving competition in the market

c)

A consumer of goods and services

d)

A protector from negative externalities

32.

Driving a car on a crowded highway produces

a)

a negative externality.

b)

a positive externality.

33.

Apartment dwellers who buy fire alarms or fire extinguishers generate a

a)

negative externality.

b)

positive externality.

34.

What is the free-rider problem?

a)

scarcity even when you pay for a good

b)

Reaping all the benefits without contributing

c)

Common goods that don't have a price

d)

none of the above

35.

What statement best explains why the government provides goods and services to its citizens?

a)

To provide benefits to small groups of people in certain areas of the country.

b)

To provide goods and services that would not be available if individuals had to provide them.

c)

To compete with businesses in the private sector.

d)

To make a large profit by providing certain goods and services to its citizens.

36.

What is one reason that local law enforcement is considered a public good?

a)

Everyone in the community benefits from it.

b)

Nobody in the community has to pay for it.

c)

Private firms make a profit from producing it.

d)

Individual citizens pay directly for it.

37.

The part of the economy that involves the transactions of the government.

a)

Private sector

b)

Free rider

c)

Public sector

d)

Externality

38.

The part of the economy that involves the transactions of individuals and businesses.

a)

Public sector

b)

Externality

c)

Private sector

d)

Public good

39.

Is a situation in which the market, on its own, does not distribute resources efficiently.

a)

Public good

b)

Private sector

c)

Externality

d)

Market Failure

40.

An example of a public good is...

a)

Firefighters

b)

police officers

c)

parks

d)

all of thee above

41.

What does non-rival mean?

a)

More than one person can use it

b)

Only one person can use it

c)

There are direct competitors for a product

d)

None of the above

42.

Excludable means:

a)

Someone can deny access to a good

b)

Everyone is able to access a good

c)

Multiple people can use something at the same time

d)

Only one person can use something at one time

43.

Public goods are

a)

rival and excludable

b)

non-rival and non-excludable

c)

rival and non-excludable

d)

non-rival and excludable

44.

What kind of statement is this: "Minimum Wage should be $50/hour."

a)

normative

b)

positive

c)

micro

d)

macro

45.

What kind of statement is this: You are taking an economics test.

a)

positive

b)

normative

c)

micro

d)

macro

46.

What kind of statement is this: The rich make too much money

a)

positive

b)

normative

c)

micro

d)

macro

47.

Alex is studying for his math quiz, but his favorite TV show just started. If he studies for the quiz, he will miss out on watching the show. Alex decides not to watch the show and continue studying for the quiz. What is the opportunity cost of his decision?

a)

studying for a quiz

b)

watching TV

c)

eating dinner

d)

taking a nap

48.

Amber was shopping at the mall. She had $80 to spend. She found three items she liked: $75 for a pair of shoes, $70 for a jacket, and $62 for a dress. After shopping for a couple hours, she decided to borrow a pair of shoes from her cousin and to buy the jacket for $70. What was her opportunity cost?

a)

Shoes

b)

Jacket

c)

Dress

d)

Purse

49.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.

What is the marginal benefit of one more gallon of gas, when you currently have 0 gallons?

(a)  

50.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.

What is the marginal benefit of one more gallon of gas, when you currently have 1 gallon?

(a)  

51.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.

What is the marginal benefit of one more gallon of gas, when you currently have 2 gallons?

(a)  

52.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.

What is the marginal benefit of one more gallon of gas, when you currently have 3 gallons?

(a)  

53.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.

What is the marginal benefit of one more gallon of gas, when you currently have 4 gallons?

(a)  

54.

The table shows your total benefits from consuming different quantities of gas each week.


The price of gasoline is $2.50/gallon.


Given this information, what is the optimal number of gallons of gas to consume each week:

(a)  

55.

A deep-sea diver can sell each pearl he retrieves for $20 in the seaside market.


However, each time he dives in search of a pearl, it is harder to find than the one he found before. The table below describes the cost (in time and effort) of retrieving each successive pearl.


At what number of pearls harvested should the diver stop diving for more pearls?

(a)  

56.

Which law bans monopolies?

a)

Tea Act

b)

Anti-Trust Act

c)

Townsend Act

d)

Monopoly Act

57.

Which of the following is an example of an Involuntary Exchange?

a)

Buying a pizza online

b)

Going to work for a paycheck

c)

A person being robbed

d)

Trading baseball cards

58.

Use Marginal Analysis to explain why you are continuing to answer these questions instead of leaving them all blank?

a)

I'm not using marginal analysis

b)

The benefit of answering the questions is greater than the cost of not answering the questions

c)

The cost of answering the questions is greater than the benefit of not answering the questions

d)

Marginal Analysis is not being used, this is negative externalities

59.

What prevents businesses from charging extremely high prices in the free market system?

a)

Monopolies

b)

Negative Externalities

c)

Competition

d)

Positive Externalities

60.

Is this chart showing an example of income inequality? Explain why or why not.

a)

No, people make different amounts of money, that's life

b)

No, people who don't have money are lazy and uneducated

c)

Yes, the chart shows the lower-class making more than the middle-class. That is wrong

d)

Yes, there are significant differences in income amounts between all of the groups

61.

The law of demand argues that as prices rise

a)

the quantity demanded will fall

b)

the quantity demanded will rise

c)

the demand curve will shift to the right

d)

no change will occur

62.

This part of the market determines DEMAND

a)

buyers

b)

sellers

c)

suppliers

d)

store owners

63.

What does this curve represent?

a)

supply

b)

equilibrium

c)

demand

d)

surplus

64.

The diagram represents a

a)

increase in demand

b)

decrease in demand

c)

change in quantity demand

d)

none of the above

65.

What is the Equilibrium Price?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

66.

Which of the following will cause an increase in demand for snowboards?

a)

More costly production methods

b)

A decrease in the price of lift tickets at resorts in Colorado

c)

A decrease in consumer income

d)

A decrease in the population

67.

Demand can be best defined as

a)

an individual's need or desire for a good or service at a given price.

b)

how much of a good or service is being produced.

68.

The only thing that causes a movement along a supply or demand curve (Change in Quantity Demanded):

a)

Price

b)

Quantity

c)

Climate

d)

Weather

69.

Goods that are bought and used together are

a)

complementary goods

b)

substitute goods

c)

income goods

d)

unrelated goods

70.

Which of the following is likely to increase the demand for peanut butter?

a)

Fewer children in the population

b)

News that insects have destroyed much of the peanut crop and that there will be less peanut butter on the shelves in three months.

c)

A big increase in the price of jelly.

d)

A report from the Surgeon General of the United States that eating peanut butter makes people nutty.

71.

What is caused when the demand for a product or service is higher than the supply?

a)

shortage

b)

consumer

c)

surplus

d)

equilibrium

72.

What is caused when the demand for a product or service is lower than the supply?

a)

shortage

b)

consumer

c)

surplus

d)

equilibrium

73.

What is the equilibrium price of the graph?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

No equilibrium price shown

74.

If the original price was $40 and we raised the price to $60, what would most likely happen?

a)

Demand would decrease and a surplus would be created

b)

Demand would increase and a shortage would be created

c)

Not enough information to make an accurate prediction

d)

No change would occur

75.

If the original price was $40 and we lower the price to $20, which option would be correct?

a)

A surplus of 50 would be created

b)

A shortage of 50 would be created

c)

A shortage of 100 would be created

d)

A surplus of 100 would be created

76.

Which statement is correct about the Law of Supply?

a)

When the price of a good decreases, quantity supplied decreases

b)

When the price of a good decreases, quantity supplied increases

77.

Apple manufactures the iMac G3 with all original technology with very little interest from consumers. What causes Apple to not sell many of these computers?

a)

Quantity Supplied is Greater than Quantity Demanded

b)

Quantity Supplied is Less than Quantity Demanded

78.

According to the supply and demand schedule, what is the equilibrium price?

a)

$1.00

b)

$1.25

c)

$1.50

d)

$1.75

79.

Based on the movement of the supply curve, did the equilibrium price increase or decrease?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

80.

Which answer choice does this image represent?

a)

Quantity Supplied is Greater than Quantity Demanded

b)

Quantity Supplied is Less than Quantity Demanded

81.

The newest Jordan's release caused Foot Locker to sell out of their supply in less than one hour. What caused the Jordan's to sell out so quickly?

a)

Quantity Supplied is Greater than Quantity Demanded

b)

Quantity Supplied is Less than Quantity Demanded

82.

Based on the movement of the supply curve, did the equilibrium price increase or decrease?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

83.

Which answer choice does this image represent?

a)

Quantity Supplied is Greater than Quantity Demanded

b)

Quantity Supplied is Less than Quantity Demanded

84.

Which graph below shows the SUPPLY CURVE?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

This part of the market determines SUPPLY

a)

buyers

b)

sellers

c)

consumers

d)

Impossible to determine

86.

The diagram represents a(n)

a)

increase in supply

b)

decrease in supply

c)

change in quantity supplied

d)

none of the above

87.

How many cup holders are producers willing to supply at a price of $2.50?

a)

3,000

b)

4,000

c)

5,000

d)

7,000

88.

When the demand for a product or service is higher than the supply this causes what?

a)

shortage

b)

consumer

c)

surplus

d)

equilibrium

89.

A decrease in the price of a good will

a)

increase supply.

b)

decrease supply.

c)

increase quantity supplied.

d)

decrease quantity supplied.

90.

Which image shows what will happen if the United States government gives U.S. Car producers Subsidies

a)
b)
c)
d)
91.

If we raise the price to $60 what happens to Quantity Supplied?

a)

Quantity supplied will decrease to 100

b)

Quantity supplied will increase to 200

c)

Quantity demanded will decrease to 50

d)

No change

92.

If we lower the price to $20 what will happen to the quantity demanded?

a)

Quantity demanded will increase to 200

b)

Quantity demanded will decrease to 100

c)

Quantity supplied will decrease to 50

d)

No change

93.

Which of these best defines equilibrium in a market?

a)

a situation in which quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

b)

a situation in which quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

c)

a situation in which quantity supplied and quantity demanded are equal

d)

a situation where a minimum price is set

94.

A situation in which the quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded is

a)

a shortage

b)

a surplus

c)

a price floor

d)

a price ceiling

95.

A situation in which quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied is

a)

a shortage

b)

a surplus

c)

a price floor

d)

a price ceiling

96.

Which of the following demonstrates price equilibrium? (Could be more than one answer)

a)
b)
c)
d)
97.

Which of these demonstrates a surplus of goods?

a)
b)
c)
d)
98.

Which of these demonstrates a shortage of goods?

a)
b)
c)
d)
99.

At $9 the market is experiencing

a)

a surplus

b)

a shortage

c)

equilibrium

d)

a quota

100.

Assuming this is the market for bottled water, this shift could be caused by

a)

Hurricane Irma

b)

A population decrease

c)

An increase in technology

d)

Government Subsidy

101.

Record Peach Harvest—Price Lowest in a Decade How will this information likely affect the supply curve for frozen peach pies?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

102.

Average Wages Decline for Workers Around the Country How will this information likely affect the demand curve for movie tickets?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

103.

U.S. Car Company to Close Six Factories How will this information likely affect the supply curve for the company’s minivans?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

104.

Congress Passes New “Sugar Tax” How will this information likely affect the supply curve for sugar?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

105.

Hospitals Report Dramatic Decrease in Births How will this information likely affect the demand curve for baby strollers?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

106.

The President Approves Subsidies for Solar Energy Industry How will this information likely affect the supply curve for solar energy panels?

a)

Panel a

b)

Panel b

c)

Panel c

d)

Panel d

107.

Looking at the graph: to return to equilibrium, price would need to:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Shift demand curve

108.

An effective price floor must be set above equilibrium, resulting in:

a)

a shortage

b)

a surplus

c)

limited choices

d)

None of the above

109.

If the government set the price at $700, would that be a price ceiling or floor?

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Price Floor

c)

Neither

110.

If an effective rent ceiling is eliminated, which of the following is most likely to occur in the rental housing market?

a)

An increase in the demand for housing, resulting in a decrease in the quantity of housing supplied

b)

An increase in the demand for housing, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing demanded

c)

An increase in rents, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing supplied

d)

A decrease in rents, resulting in an increase in the quantity of housing supplied

111.

When a price ceiling is imposed in a market:

a)

A surplus results

b)

Sellers of the product are made better off

c)

A shortage results

d)

Quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded

112.

At the price, neither a surplus or a shortage exists

a)

equilibrium

b)

consumer surplus

c)

producer's surplus

d)

dead weight

113.

A _______________ is a maximum price sellers are allowed to charge for a good. It's an upper limit for the price.

a)

equilibrium

b)

shortage

c)

surplus

d)

price ceiling

114.

This is the minimum price buyers are required to pay for a good. It's a lower limit for the price.

a)

equilibrium

b)

shortage

c)

price floor

d)

price ceiling

115.

A price ceiling will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

116.

A price floor will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

117.

What is the equilibrium quantity in this graph?

a)

$1.50

b)

$1.00

c)

600

d)

800

118.

At the price of $1.00, there is a

a)

shortage of 200

b)

surplus of 200

c)

shortage of 400

d)

surplus of 400

119.

If the government set the price at $300, what would be the result?

a)

Surplus of 4,000

b)

Surplus of 2,000

c)

Shortage of 4,000

d)

Shortage of 2,000

120.

If the government creates a price floor of $80, which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

The quantity demanded = 60

b)

The quantity supplied = 180

c)

There is a shortage of 140

d)

The price floor is ineffective

121.

In a free market, the equilibrium price would be

a)

$10

b)

$8

c)

$6.

d)

$4

122.

If the government institutes a price ceiling of 30$, which of the following statements will be correct?

a)

There is a shortage of 90

b)

There is a surplus of 90

c)

There is a shortage of 140

d)

The price ceiling is ineffective